Jarhyn
Wizard
- Joined
- Mar 29, 2010
- Messages
- 14,524
- Gender
- Androgyne; they/them
- Basic Beliefs
- Natural Philosophy, Game Theoretic Ethicist
Harm does not have to be objectively defined to say that doing harm is a feature of immorality.
Is it possible for an action or inaction to be immoral when nobody is harmed?
I personally think harm CAN be objectively defined BUT the objective definition will necessarily invoke subjectives: because everyone will, objectively, have subjective goals, we can create an objectivity from the universality of subjectivity.
It just means that any "objective" view of harm creates general rather than specific rules.