• Welcome to the new Internet Infidels Discussion Board, formerly Talk Freethought.

The Christ Myth Theory

All hail Carrier The Great!!! He has spoken. So shall it be.

It has been touched on before. Jesus is an obvious demigod. God father human mother. Son has some but not all of the god's powers. Son dies in an heroic act and goes to be with dad.
 
Christianity is a delusion, a strong and unwavering belief in the face of overwhelming evidence against it, just like flat-earth theory or QAnon. And there is no way to escape it until they confront their emotional reasons to avoid genuinely questioning and testing it; and then finally actually do question and test it with a persistent attention to sound logic, critical reasoning, and honest fact-checking.
But until then..
Their cognitive dissonance and delusion compel beliefs resistant to all evidence.

Given three minimal facts on which minimal historicity rests (see comment #336 )​

Lataster promotes the oft-forgotten ‘Historical Jesus agnostic’ as the equivalent of, well, the ‘God agnostic’.
I'd like to throw one more term into the mix. Not all ‘atheists’ are ‘strong atheists. Some are simply ‘agnostics’. I would like to propose, then, that we use the term ‘ahistoricists’ to encompass both the ardent ‘mythicists’ and the less certain ‘agnostics’. This avoids the false dichotomy, which I think historicists (much like theists) have been taking advantage of. They often frame the debate as only being between the right and the wrong, the reasonable and righteous historicists versus the silly mythicists, ironically appearing as unnuanced and dogmatic fundamentalists in the process. (As with the common false dilemma, presented by apologists, of ‘the truth’ being found in ‘Christianity’ or in ‘strong atheism’.)[14]

If, at the end of the exercise I admit that the scenario seems about a 12% chance then YOU CAN DECLARE VICTORY.
So I assume the following estimate for Swammerdami:
  • Jesus Historicity = 89%
  • Jesus Ahistoricity = 11%
As for myself, they are:
  • Jesus Historicity = ~33%
  • Jesus Ahistoricity = ~66%
 
I will ask about FOUR specific documents: A, B, C and D.

Document A) Paul's Epistle to the Galatians where he writes "[I met in Jerusalem with] James, the Lord's brother."

Document B) Josephus writes "[in Jerusalem] James the brother of Jesus [who is called Christ]."
I won't list the various cases beyond noting that a later interpolation of the bracketed phrase is a popular suspicion.

Document C) Paul(?) and/or Luke(?) imply that there are Jews and/or Christians in Rome circa 60 AD.

Document D) Tacitus and/or Suetonis, presumably reading 1st-century accounts, write of Chrestians in Rome circa 60 AD.

[. . . ]

I. In the designated model, what is the provenance and truth of Document A?
II. In the designated model, what is the provenance and truth of Document B?
III. In the designated model, what is the provenance and truth of Document C?
IV. In the designated model, what is the provenance and truth of Document D?
  1. Document D) is dismissed as evidence for the historicity of Jesus per normative historical methodology on valid/usable evidence.
  2. Document C) is dismissed as evidence for the historicity of Jesus per normative historical methodology on valid/usable evidence.
  3. Document B) is dismissed as evidence for the historicity of Jesus per normative historical methodology on valid/usable evidence.
  4. Document A) is valid/usable evidence per normative historical methodology. However it's weight as evidence is reliant on the interpretation of the verse.

Carrier (6 November 2016). "Ehrman and James the Brother of the Lord". Richard Carrier Blogs.
Ehrman concedes that “brother” can be meant non-literally, a “spiritual brother” as Ehrman describes it, meaning “someone who is connected by common bonds of affection or perspective to another.” That actually isn’t what any peer reviewed mythicist argument claims. Christians were not brothers because they were “connected by common bonds of affection or perspective.” They were brothers because they were at baptism the adopted sons of God. Literally. Paul explicitly says that. And this made them all brothers of the Lord Jesus. Again, Paul explicitly says that.

Godfrey, Neil (12 August 2018). "Gullotta's review of Carrier's On the Historicity of Jesus, point #4, "James, the brother of the Lord"". Vridar.
Daniel Gullotta begins his foray into Richard Carrier’s argument that James was a fictive, not biological, brother of Jesus.
It has been claimed that if there is an Achilles’ heel to the Jesus Myth theory, it would be the reference to ‘James, the brother of the Lord’ (Gal 1.19). Typically, historical Jesus scholars take James to be one of Jesus’ many biological siblings; however, Carrier and other mythicists have argued that the familial language used throughout the Pauline letters is reason enough to doubt that James is Jesus’ biological brother. (Gullotta, p. 334)

Godfrey, Neil (5 December 2017). "Thinking through the "James, the brother of the Lord" passage in Galatians 1:19". Vridar.
I was attempting to think through the pros and cons surrounding the disputed claims over the significance and meaning of James being described as the brother of the Lord in Paul’s letter to Galatians. I set out the various factors in a discussion of Bayesian probability. But since Bayesian analysis is a scary phrase for some people I have extracted the different pros and cons from that post and set them out here for reference purposes. Being lifted from the original post, some of the points appear here to be in no particular order.
 
Christianity is a delusion, a strong and unwavering belief in the face of overwhelming evidence against it, just like flat-earth theory or QAnon. And there is no way to escape it until they confront their emotional reasons to avoid genuinely questioning and testing it; and then finally actually do question and test it with a persistent attention to sound logic, critical reasoning, and honest fact-checking.
But until then..
Their cognitive dissonance and delusion compel beliefs resistant to all evidence.

Given three minimal facts on which minimal historicity rests (see comment #336 )​

Lataster promotes the oft-forgotten ‘Historical Jesus agnostic’ as the equivalent of, well, the ‘God agnostic’.
I'd like to throw one more term into the mix. Not all ‘atheists’ are ‘strong atheists. Some are simply ‘agnostics’. I would like to propose, then, that we use the term ‘ahistoricists’ to encompass both the ardent ‘mythicists’ and the less certain ‘agnostics’. This avoids the false dichotomy, which I think historicists (much like theists) have been taking advantage of. They often frame the debate as only being between the right and the wrong, the reasonable and righteous historicists versus the silly mythicists, ironically appearing as unnuanced and dogmatic fundamentalists in the process. (As with the common false dilemma, presented by apologists, of ‘the truth’ being found in ‘Christianity’ or in ‘strong atheism’.)[14]

If, at the end of the exercise I admit that the scenario seems about a 12% chance then YOU CAN DECLARE VICTORY.
So I assume the following estimate for Swammerdami:
  • Jesus Historicity = 89%
  • Jesus Ahistoricity = 11%
As for myself, they are:
  • Jesus Historicity = ~33%
  • Jesus Ahistoricity = ~66%
I would go so far as to say I find Jesus in the story to be 100% fiction based on 66% true facts about at least 3 different people and things they taught, and 33% falsehoods between the combination of history, exaggeration or invention of miracles, and various exaggerations of various events and quantities of people involved.
 
  • Like
Reactions: dbz
So far, Zero models have been proposed in this thread to account for the four pieces of documentary evidence I asked about. This was NOT intended as a difficult exercise. I could do it myself, but don't want to put words in the mythicist's mouth.

This was not intended as a 'Gotcha.' I am sincerely trying to understand how the mythologization might have played out. Yet of all the mythicists posting in this thread, Zero have offered any coherent model. Those are Zeros with a Z.

I don't have a dog in this fight, nor an axe to grind. I've already stipulated that Jesus was not supernatural, and that we know little about him. His own personality may have little to do with Christianity as it developed in the 2nd century and beyond. I asked for help from the mythicists on my own terms and none have been able to answer four simple questions. I am left with a . . . disappointed opinion of the mythicisits.


  1. Document D) is dismissed as evidence for the historicity of Jesus per normative historical methodology on valid/usable evidence.
  2. Document C) is dismissed as evidence for the historicity of Jesus per normative historical methodology on valid/usable evidence.
  3. Document B) is dismissed as evidence for the historicity of Jesus per normative historical methodology on valid/usable evidence.
  4. Document A) is valid/usable evidence per normative historical methodology. However it's weight as evidence is reliant on the interpretation of the verse.

Did you think I was imagining a legal proceeding and was wondering about the admissability of evidence? Did you seriously imagine yours complied with the questions I asked, or were you instead showing deliberate obstinacy?

I've given up trying to explain my request. From now on the title of this thread will be, as far as I am concerned, "Mythicists do not understand English or simple logic."
 
I would go so far as to say I find Jesus in the story to be 100% fiction based on 66% true facts about at least 3 different people and things they taught, and 33% falsehoods between the combination of history, exaggeration or invention of miracles, and various exaggerations of various events and quantities of people involved.

Mordecai S. Chertoff said:​

There is the danger that untutored people.. will take this invented lore for the real thing and read his fantasy for the sake of edification and erudition.
N.B. In reference to  King Jesus (book)
 
There are no imdpenpendent corroborating accounts of Jesus from the time.

As such any 'documents' are hear say. Alleged quotes from apostles or anyone else are just that, alleged. There was no journalistic recording and reporting. There were no Roman records, whoever he may have been he did not gain much attention from Rome. There are Jewsih figures from the day fprwhich there is evidence and multiple contemporaneous reports.

Even the term Jesus Christ is most likely a later Greek influenced invention.
 
  • Like
Reactions: dbz
From now on the title of this thread will be, as far as I am concerned, "Mythicists do not understand English or simple logic."

Well, we are in good company..
• Carrier (25 April 2016). "Bart Ehrman Just Can't Do Truth or Logic". Richard Carrier Blogs.
Because Ehrman continues to ignore, and never honestly conveys (much less ever rebuts), what peer reviewed mythicism actually says, he has no valid opinion in this debate. He is stalwartly avoiding telling the truth about what our thesis is, and what are arguments for it are. Just as he continues to lie about our qualifications, our numbers, and our work having been formally peer reviewed and formally debated by his colleagues. And just as he continues to lie about what the Bible and Talmudic Jews actually say.

It now seems clear. Historicity can only be defended with lies.
 
There were no refutations of His existence either despite there being Christians.

So what gain would there be for the Romans to acknowledge and mention a Jesus, who would be known as a King above Caesar and higher than their Roman gods? What gain is there for the Jews to acknowledge and mention a Jesus who brought in the gentiles and condemned the Sanhedrin? I suppose it's best for them to mention very little if not at all.
 
There are no imdpenpendent corroborating accounts of Jesus from the time.

As such any 'documents' are hear say. Alleged quotes from apostles or anyone else are just that, alleged. There was no journalistic recording and reporting. There were no Roman records, whoever he may have been he did not gain much attention from Rome. There are Jewsih figures from the day fprwhich there is evidence and multiple contemporaneous reports.

Even the term Jesus Christ is most likely a later Greek influenced invention.
Also
• Carrier (20 July 2020). "99 Problems & the Truth Ain't One: Q&A on the Inspiring Philosophy / Godless Engineer Historicity-of-Jesus Debate (Part I)". Richard Carrier Blogs.
Pliny never says Jesus was a historical man, but only a worshiped deity. And Josephus, Tacitus, Lucian, and Celsus, even if wholly authentic, all simply repeat Christian assertions originating in the Gospels or subsequent legend, giving no indication of fact-checking any of it. No competent historian should be claiming any of this is evidence for the historicity of Jesus. Hence we should be asking why any historian does. Because their doing so discredits them as reliable authorities in this matter. A profession that ignores its own methods and even logic is not an authority we can rely on anymore.
 
Nobody would dispute the well documented evidence of several people named Jesus or thereabouts as crazy street preachers around 0-200ce.

The only thing there is to dispute is which one, but the cult itself offers plenty of reason to identify Jesus as "the idea that doesn't die", rather than any given singular person.

So when a play sets all of them as equal and makes the death and empty tomb metaphor, yeah, the point makes all kinds of sense in a contemporary context, but in a current context that would be lost.
 
  • Like
Reactions: dbz
That's not how historians use Bayes.
No professional historian....
@Politesse , Why not just claim: No professional historian whose name isn't Richard Carrier would use Bayesian "logic" for anything at all.
  • That Picard "professional" maneuver reminds me of a similar Bart.Ehrmanite manure! Mooooooo...
Carrier's work on historical method, Proving History: Bayes's Theorem and the Quest for the Historical Jesus[177] promotes the use of Bayes' theorem
Wikipedia
to analyze highly uncertain problems in history, as Carrier notes, "All historians use it, unknowingly, to generate every claim they make about history."[189][190]

Comment by Richard Carrier—4 July 2020—per "Open Thread On the Historicity of Jesus". Richard Carrier Blogs. 29 June 2020. "[A]ll historians who are arguing validly, even though they can almost never explain what it is about their arguing that makes it valid, are in fact already arguing with Bayes’ Theorem. In other words, we can fully model their argument with Bayes’ Theorem and thus explain why what they are arguing is valid—even though they are not consciously aware of this fact about their reasoning. See my article "Bayesian Statistics vs. Bayesian Epistemology" (and philosophy of history expert Aviezer Tucker’s demonstration in Our Knowledge of the Past and Efraim Wallach’s demonstration with respect to the evolution of the consensus on Old Testament historicity)."

Carrier (31 October 2021). "Doing the Math: Historicity of Jesus Edition". Richard Carrier Blogs.
The simplest form of the Bayesian equation to use for this purpose is the Odds Form, in which the odds on any claim being true equal the prior odds times the likelihood ratio, which is the relative odds of the evidence being as it is. This is the form I use in my peer reviewed work On the Historicity of Jesus.
Carrier (29 May 2018). "A Test of Bayesian History: Efraim Wallach on Old Testament Studies". Richard Carrier Blogs.
The article is by Efraim Wallach, titled “Bayesian Representation of a Prolonged Archaeological Debate,” in Synthese 195.1 (January 2018): 401-31. The abstract reads:
This article examines the effect of material evidence upon historiographic hypotheses. Through a series of successive Bayesian conditionalizations, I analyze the extended competition among several hypotheses that offered different accounts of the transition between the Bronze Age and the Iron Age in Palestine and in particular to the “emergence of Israel.” The model reconstructs, with low sensitivity to initial assumptions, the actual outcomes including a complete alteration of the scientific consensus. Several known issues of Bayesian confirmation, including the problem of old evidence, the introduction and confirmation of novel theories and the sensitivity of convergence to uncertain and disputed evidence are discussed in relation to the model’s result and the actual historical process. The most important result is that convergence of probabilities and of scientific opinion is indeed possible when advocates of rival hypotheses hold similar judgment about the factual content of evidence, even if they differ sharply in their historiographic interpretation. This speaks against the contention that understanding of present remains is so irrevocably biased by theoretical and cultural presumptions as to make an objective assessment impossible.
Godfrey, Neil (27 October 2019). "Review part 10: Questioning the Historicity of Jesus / Lataster (Conclusion)". Vridar.
Lataster drew together the Carrier-based arguments of the previous chapters and set out first, Carrier’s probabilistic summaries of them all, and secondly, his (Lataster’s) alternative calculations.
Heilig, Christoph (2015). Hidden Criticism?: The Methodology and Plausibility of the Search for a Counter-Imperial Subtext in Paul. Mohr Siebeck. ISBN 978-3-16-153795-0.
2.3 Bayes’s Theorem
At this point, in order to justify the two-part plausibility of hypotheses, we can make use of Bayes’s theorem.
 
Last edited:
There were no refutations of His existence either despite there being Christians.

So what gain would there be for the Romans to acknowledge and mention a Jesus, who would be known as a King above Caesar and higher than their Roman gods? What gain is there for the Jews to acknowledge and mention a Jesus who brought in the gentiles and condemned the Sanhedrin? I suppose it's best for them to mention very little if not at all.
THere are a number of assumptions here. One, there is the assumption of first hand knowledge of the historical person of Jesus. None of the sources claim a 1st hand knowledge. There are also source that appear to have been tampered with by Christians. What can be said is that a number of the stories about Jesus are historically improbable, and others are physically impossible. When you have evidence that has been tampered with so much, such as the tampering of Antiquities, it is impossible to show that there was a 'historical Jesus'. There might have been, but what seems to be more important, that there isn't evidence that the mythical/supernatural Jesus is true.
 
There were no refutations of His existence either despite there being Christians.

So what gain would there be for the Romans to acknowledge and mention a Jesus, who would be known as a King above Caesar and higher than their Roman gods? What gain is there for the Jews to acknowledge and mention a Jesus who brought in the gentiles and condemned the Sanhedrin? I suppose it's best for them to mention very little if not at all.
THere are a number of assumptions here. One, there is the assumption of first hand knowledge of the historical person of Jesus. None of the sources claim a 1st hand knowledge. There are also source that appear to have been tampered with by Christians. What can be said is that a number of the stories about Jesus are historically improbable, and others are physically impossible. When you have evidence that has been tampered with so much, such as the tampering of Antiquities, it is impossible to show that there was a 'historical Jesus'. There might have been, but what seems to be more important, that there isn't evidence that the mythical/supernatural Jesus is true.
Also
• Carrier, Richard (30 May 2020). "The Romans Neither Could Nor Cared to Investigate the Resurrection of Jesus". Richard Carrier Blogs.
[A]ll the evidence shows the Romans didn’t care, there was no evidence for them to investigate, and no records existed to consult. And even if they ever did, there’s no evidence they didn’t cast doubt on the resurrection—because we haven’t been allowed to read them.
 
I was first exposed to this in a 70s philosophy of religion class. Taught by of all people a Catholic deacon who started in a seminary and switched to philosophy.

In the tome of the gospels there were a number of people claiming the mantle of a savior based on the biblical prophesy. Some were outright bandits using the legend.

The Palestinian Jews were looking for a Jewish king to restore them to power. There were a number claimng the mantle.

Rome woud have tolerated a s]spiritual movement, but would not tolerate any idea of a Jewish king or any monarch in the empire. Roe wqs genrally tolerant of beiefs as long as the conquered accpted Roman rule.

Someone posted about apartcular Jew who paraded around in the Temple wearing purple robes. That wold have infuriated Rome.

A Jewish rabbi wandering around preaching the meek shall inherit the Earth and give to Rome what is Rome's would hardly get noticed.

The crucifixition part of the myth does not sound likely given the geopolitics and the words attributed to Jesus. Compared to the leader of the Jewish Revolt and the end at Masada Jesus would have gone unnoticed.
 
There were no refutations of His existence either despite there being Christians.

So what gain would there be for the Romans to acknowledge and mention a Jesus, who would be known as a King above Caesar and higher than their Roman gods? What gain is there for the Jews to acknowledge and mention a Jesus who brought in the gentiles and condemned the Sanhedrin? I suppose it's best for them to mention very little if not at all.
The 'early Chrtians' were seen by Rome as a heretic Jewish sect.

What later became Christians were divorced form Judaism and separated in time from the alleged events. There was no singular from of Christians.

What you experience as Christianity rtoday is largely the invention of the Catholic church theology for over a 1000 years. Your Christianity lilkely has little to do with theearly Jewish follo and te first Gentile converts.
 
Your Christianity lilkely has little to do with theearly Jewish follo and te first Gentile converts.

One of the most relevant questions is: Did a group of Jews, prior to Paul, worship/revere a celestial second-god with similar attributes as those Paul attributed to his celestial Jesus, his Christ lord, his second-god?[78] Lataster writes:
Ehrman argues that since there are Jewish texts that outlaw angel worship, there must have been Jews worshipping ‘non-God’ divine beings. . . . Ehrman even refers to the Son of Man of 1 Enoch as the “cosmic judge of the earth”, and acknowledges that some considered him to be the Messiah, and worshipped him ([How Jesus Became God] pp. 66-68). He also gives a nod to ‘Wisdom’ and ‘Logos’, and admits that Philo of Alexandria describes his Logos as divine, as God’s first born. Ehrman even realises that the Tanakh made it very easy for Jews to incorporate similar ideas from the Ancient Greeks (such as the Wisdom figure appearing in Proverbs 8, and Genesis 1’s ‘creative Logos’). All this only bolsters the claims . . . that all the elements needed to create Christianity, without a HJ [Historical Jesus], were already present in Judaism.[79]

Many Jewish counter-culture
Wikipedia
sects[80] were extant during the period in question that may have influenced or even competed with the Jewish sect that Paul joined—now termed as the original "Christian" sect—but which may have originally been named "The Brothers of the Lord".[81]

Christian peshers​

Pesher is Hebrew for ‘commentary’ and particularly used for commentaries on the OT in the Dead Sea scrolls, which looked for hidden meanings in the text which were seen to apply to and to justify the community's way of life. The NT use of OT texts has some similarity with this method…
A Dictionary of the Bible, edited by W. R. F. Browning[84]

Peter as the putative founder of Christianity may have created a pesher that he used to recruit followers to his cult. This hypothetical pesher would have revealed God's plan for Jesus to bring about salvation.[85]

The Markan text was written at least forty years after the Christian religion began (then an average human lifetime), and thus was responding to recent events (the destruction of Jerusalem). We can NOT explain the origins of Christianity by appealing to the Markan text or to the author's motives; The Markan text is a latecomer that was responding to profound changes in the religion and its circumstances. The religion itself began long before it was known that the Romans would actually destroy Jerusalem (early Christian thinking was then more in line with Daniel, which never mentions this, but only the temple’s “desecration,” after which God and his angels would destroy everything).[86]
 

Hi Jarhyn. I have always had respect for you. I don't know if you consider yourself a "mythicist" or not, but I am still interested in an answer to my question.

Please start by just telling me if you understand the question (actually four closely related questions) that I posed above. And understand why dbz's "response" was ridiculous.

The question I am asking you now has NOTHING to do with Jesus or ancient documents. I am trying to understand if I use English the same as everyone else.
 

Jewish Antiquities 20.200​

Viklund, Roger (2 April 2013). "Richard Carrier's article: Origen, Eusebius, and the Accidental Interpolation in Josephus, Jewish Antiquities 20.200". Jesus granskad.
To summarize, this is what Carrier suggests. In the 240’s Origen writes that “Titus destroyed Jerusalem, on account, as Josephus wrote, of James the Just, the brother of Jesus who was called Christ”. Although Origen says that Josephus wrote this, Origen nevertheless got it from Hegesippus, from whom he paraphrases it, not quotes it. He also includes a passage from Matt 1.16, and this he does in his Commentary on Matthew.
Origen searches Josephus in order to find where Josephus had written this, but does not manage to find the passage. He only finds the story of the stoning of one James in AJ 20.200 which spoke of “the brother of Jesus, whose name was James”. Perhaps he made a note there: “the one called Christ”. If Origen did not make such a note, then someone else later on made it, adapting to the phrase Origen previously used.
Eusebius used the same library as Origen less than a century later, and probably had a copy of AJ which was made from the very manuscript used by Origen. In the copying of that manuscript, the marginal note would have been inserted into the text so that it now read “the brother of Jesus who was called Christ, the name for whom was James …”. Eusebius, apart from this, also quoted the passage given by Origen as if it had been written by Josephus. But since he only got it from Origen, neither he could say where Josephus had written this.

Cf. Carrier, Richard (2012). "Origen, Eusebius, and the Accidental Interpolation in Josephus, Jewish Antiquities 20.200". Journal of Early Christian Studies. 20 (4): 489–514. doi:10.1353/earl.2012.0029.
Analysis of the evidence from the works of Origen, Eusebius, and Hegesippus concludes that the reference to “Christ” in Josephus, Jewish Antiquities 20.200 is probably an accidental interpolation or scribal emendation and that the passage was never originally about Christ or Christians. It referred not to James the brother of Jesus Christ, but probably to James the brother of the Jewish high priest Jesus ben Damneus.
See: Carrier (21 December 2012). "Jesus in Josephus". Richard Carrier Blogs.

PS:
Carrier (23 September 2016). “Three Things to Know about New Testament Manuscripts”. Richard Carrier Blogs.
[Per the Jewish Antiquities by Josephus] all extant manuscripts of the Antiquities are copies (of copies of copies of copies…) of the same singular manuscript owned and used by Eusebius at his own Christian library in Caesarea.

This means we cannot expect any versions of the text different from or predating that single manuscript to be available to us in any manuscript there is today. This means all variants prior to that (including the original form of the text as Josephus wrote it) are permanently lost and invisible to us. Every error and distortion and mistaken “correction” that got into the text in that one single Eusebian manuscript, from its own copying from an earlier manuscript in that same library (used by Origen), which said significantly different things, and every error and distortion and mistaken “correction” that got into the text in the long process of transmission down through numerous reproductions before Origen even acquired his copy, will never show in the surviving record. All manuscript evidence there would have been proving those variant readings, has been 100% lost. Probably forever.

That the entirety of all Josephan scholarship is only trying to reconstruct the text as it was in the single—centuries-late—manuscript held by Eusebius in the early 4th century, and cannot ever reconstruct any version of the text prior (down to and including the original text as known to Josephus in the late 1st century), is an extremely significant thing to realize.
  • Richard Carrier asserts that per the Jewish Antiquities: "No expert opinion on the authenticity of either [Jesus] passage is citeable, if it isn’t informed by" the respective "published research on it over the last ten years."
 
Last edited:

Hi Jarhyn. I have always had respect for you. I don't know if you consider yourself a "mythicist" or not, but I am still interested in an answer to my question.

Please start by just telling me if you understand the question (actually four closely related questions) that I posed above. And understand why dbz's "response" was ridiculous.

The question I am asking you now has NOTHING to do with Jesus or ancient documents. I am trying to understand if I use English the same as everyone else.
I see Paul as an original Chrestian, following the Chrestus cult, which would be primarily active some time in 60-100, with active Jewish detractors. It is entirely possible at that time that Paul met with someone who has direct interactions with them. Nobody denies Chrestus had an impact in the early years of the movement, and was probably the first "big name Jesus".

I don't deny the life of Jesus Chrestus, so Chrestus and his cult having someone involved named James claiming brotherhood is not something I deny happening.

This explains why in letters he didn't directly reference Chrestus, either.

The gospels didn't exist at all yet at that point and these letters are from when the cult was quite young, I expect.

Other Jesuses came later than the Pauline letters.

Nobody, again, denies that Chrestus lived some time around 0, and that folks were talking about him.

The question is whether the character written about in the gospels is actually him, to witch I say "absolutely not". The gospels were written over a hundred years later, after two more Jesuses had lived and died.

So when between 0 and 160, at least two more Jesuses lived and died and spawned followers and cults...

The existing cult just absorbed the followers and the beliefs and the biographies of each successive Jesus.

Then some time late 2nd century, someone dug into all those historical documents (of which there were more available to the contemporary interest), and amalgamated all the later ones onto the frame of the Chrestus legends, whole updating his name with the origin stories of later individuals.

All of the documents of Chrestians are documenting a proto-cult, and possibly just Chrestus. Which is to say "the first or one of the first progenitors of a cult".

I dismiss, like most, any clear later revisions. Rather I see that cult as having likely mostly fizzled down to something quiet and small by 100ce to be reawakened by Ben Ananus and Ben Stada, among others.

This secondary wave of Jesuses would be what we're amalgamated into the older cults and what allows the history to become enough of a general interest to leverage the Markian "gospel" into popularity.

Of course, with a slick presentation like the gospel, it is much like "reading it on the internet", as has been noted. Lies told closer to the truth grow longer legs.

All of this accounts and interacts well with the documents we have and the parts we understand not to be forgeries, even the Pauline letters (though they may be!).

I'll note that even as early as 60, the cults were clearly starting to schism and the truth becoming uncertain of Chrestus's life, with clear evidence of converting a historical person into a mytheme if the Pauline letters were to be believed as original.
 
Back
Top Bottom