God is the datum. The ne plus ultra. If you don't think there even is a "gold standard" then how can you do good works? Jesus wants us to understand that there is only One objectively true datum. (If there were many - if we can all decide for ourselves what is 'good' according to our own post modernism - then the word good becomes meaningless.)
BTW - Jesus tells us that He is the way. The way to get somewhere? (Direction) The way to do something? (How)
Both interpretations imply the need for an ontological 'destination' to actually exist. And an optimum way to efficiently get there.
I have faith that God really is The True North.
But I have no doubt that True North actually exists
That is certainly one interpretation of the text, but it is contradicted by the view of most believers that God himself is "good".
Contradicted?
The problem then becomes that God cannot actually be judged "good" unless there is a metascale of goodness that exists independently of God.
Why must goodness be
independent of God if His goodness is intrinsic and is the very reason people see Him as the 'gold standard'. You're arguing that True North must exist independently of True North so that people can judge where True North really is.
IOW, Jesus cannot logically be claiming that God is good without vitiating the argument that God alone defines what is good.
WUT?
If Jesus only ever tells the truth, what else
would He say about God?
If God himself is located on the scale of goodness, then the concept of goodness just spins around in meaningless circularity.
On the scale of Good, Better, Best... where would God be located and in what way is is that
circularity? Can there BE anything better than the best?
Anselm's ontological argument says no. There is nothing circular about using a superlative scale of goodness where God is the
ne plus ultra.
So God can command soldiers to slaughter babies and call that act "good", even though modern social convention treats such behavior as inherently bad.
Social convention has no difficulty with the concept of the end justifying the means.
Is it 'inherently bad' to deliberately inflict pain on an innocent person?
You can't answer can you? Because maybe it's a dentist inflicting the pain.
How many babies were slaughtered at Hiroshima?
I think that the Biblical passage reflects historical reasoning that held Jesus to be elevated to divine status only after his scapegoat-inspired martyrdom. That is why he asked John the Baptist to baptize him. What would be the sense of that unless Jesus had sins to be cleansed of?
You need to go back and read the text. Jesus agreed with John's reasoning that He (Jesus) didn't need to repent, didn't need to be baptised - to have sins washed away. Jesus explained the real reason. "But Jesus answered him, “Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he [John the Baptist] consented."