No. Your "answer" is extirpation of the Jews in Israel as by the Palestinian standards it's Israel that's the occupied territory.
Most Palestinians have agreed to 1967 borders, and in any case, my opinion or the world opinion is not the same as Palestinian opinion. Whether some Palestinian militants think the whole of Israel is occupied territory is as irrelevant as ISIS thinking that Spain is Dar-al-Islam. The speculative accusation that Palestinians might have unjustifiable territorial ambitions of their own in no way negates Israel's unjustifiable territorial ambitions,
especially because Israel is actually engaged in annexing and settling the land, whereas all Palestinian nationalists might have are pipe dreams.
1) Most have
not agreed to the 67 borders. 67 borders are seen as a stepping stone to a final victory, not as an end.
2) It does matter what they think is occupied because that's the motivation for the violence. World opinion doesn't really matter on this, only the opinion of the Arabs backing the continuing conflict. They're already whining about what's going to happen with the Arabs cracking down on Qatar.
As for Palestinian residents--why would you expect there to be any? The settlements were on either vacant land or on land they bought from it's owners.
"Vacant land" excuse is bullshit. If some Palestinian were to find vacant land on Israeli side of the border, he could hardly claim and annex it to the Palestinian state. Borders are legal agreements, and there is practically no "vacant land" anywhere on Earth at this time in history.
Reality check time:
1) There's lots of vacant land in the world. I live in the western US--
most of what is around here is vacant land.
2) You continue to bring up borders--forgetting that at the time in question Israel had conquered the land. Not only that, but at that point their ownership was
uncontested. (The Palestinians had
refused to try to make a nation (they backed the horse of conquest and lost) and thus could not make a claim.)
3) I pointed out the difference in the property ownership laws of the two systems.
It is irrelevant whether the land is "private" or "public" under Israeli law, becasue international law (as well as ethics) trumps Israeli law. It is nevertheless occupied territory, and whatever labels the occupier uses to label that land is irrelevant. Even if Israeli government were to buy some land from Palestinians, it would be illegal for Israel to use it to house settlers. At best they could use the land or buildings for military purposes to keep the peace in the occupied territory.
If the Israeli
government were to do so you are right, it would be illegal under Geneva. However, that does not prohibit private individuals from buying land and moving to it.
This is why Israel's taking the land can be considered "stealing". It first cleanses some area from Palestinians, and designates the land as "public". Then it gives the land to private settlements and annexes it to Israel. It is ridiculous to claim that there is any difference with this two-step process from public to private, and simply stealing the land in one step. The end result is still the same: land that belongs to occupied Palestine is ethnically cleansed and annexed to Israel.
You still need to support your claim of cleansing.
And note that the lawful owner of a property can expel unwanted individuals on it without it being ethnic cleansing. If the landlord sold the land to the Jews the tenants have to leave when their lease is up if that's what the new owners want.
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"Being liable to attack" does not mean an city or a neighbourhood is outside government control. That kind of neighbourhoods where it is dangerous to move outside exist in all major cities, and plenty of smaller ones too. There is absolutely no analogy between even the worst "no-go zones" of Paris, and actually being under a military occupation of a foreign power.
And where in any other civilized country is it extremely dangerous to simply drive down the street if you're of the wrong group?