bilby
Fair dinkum thinkum
- Joined
- Mar 6, 2007
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- 40,362
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- Strong Atheist
Because they could in principle exist independently.
The existence of deductions does not render two taxes one.
They could be independent. However, since they share the same deduction I see them as simply two facets of the same thing.
Since it's my original statement that the estate tax is the only tax that applies to the giver I think I get to decide if they are one or two by my meaning--you guys are trying to argue a total technicality.
Sure, if you redefine your terms until you are right, then you are right.
But that does mean you are also only able to effectively communicate with yourself; which seems rather futile.