George S
Veteran Member
(bold added)So anyone who has defined infinite can establish it's possibility if it is consistent with his logically consistent construction. It matters not whether it is consistent with Classical propositional logic.
So to prove untermenche wrong it is necessary to understand both which logical system he uses and whether his claims are consistent within that construction.[Classical (or "bivalent") truth-functional propositional logic is that branch of truth-functional propositional logic that assumes that there are are only two possible truth-values a statement (whether simple or complex) can have: (1) truth, and (2) falsity, and that every statement is either true or false but not both
So my first question to untermenche: Is, or, is not your logical system is consistent with classical propositional logic, preferably with an example of how this is so.
This is a thread about logical possibilities.
There are no opinions with any special authority here.
Your appeals to some mystical authority are not something that counts as an argument.
Like you wrote this thread is about logical possibilities. It is not about opined possibilities. Ergo, since logical you need to have a framework through which you work your logic. If it is not propositional logic you need to either explain what is you logic or provide an example of it in your argument. if not you are just opining.
FDI
You are allowed to make any argument in any way you choose. It merely has to be valid. You can't say that infinite time has already passed for example. That is a violation of the definition. Infinite time is time that never finishes. It can't have passed. It can't be in the past.
There is NO authority here.
None exist.
You can't talk your way into becoming one.
Is the following brief argument valid?
All gods are mortal.
Zeus is a god.
___
Zeus is mortal.