I asked you this is that other thread:
Anyway, aside from the extra tax levied on non-muslims (which I agree was unfair), what exactly is your objection to the way things were before Zionism roiled the status quo in Palestine? People were free to worship openly, to own property, to participate in their government, to marry outside of their faith group, etc. There were no pogroms, no throwing rocks at schoolkids, no hostile takeovers of neighborhoods, no firebombing houses where people slept, no throat slitting in the middle of the night to terrorize a community. I can think of a few things they didn't have that would be good improvements, like having the right of free speech recognized as inalienable, but what exactly is your objection? Please be specific.
Free to marry outside of their faith group? That might perhaps be historically correct for the territory in question, but it sounds strange, as Muslim women often aren't supposed to marry outside of the religion.
Also, quoting Wikipedia:
The Tanzimât (Ottoman Turkish: تنظيمات, Tanẓīmāt), literally meaning reorganization of the Ottoman Empire, was a period of reformation that began in 1839 and ended with the First Constitutional Era in 1876.[1]
It was characterised by various attempts to modernise the Ottoman Empire and to secure its territorial integrity against internal nationalist movements and external aggressive powers. The reforms encouraged Ottomanism among the diverse ethnic groups of the Empire and attempted to stem the tide of nationalist movements within the Ottoman Empire.
The reforms sought to emancipate the empire's non-Muslim subjects and more thoroughly integrate non-Turks into Ottoman society by enhancing their civil liberties and granting them equality throughout the empire.
Many changes were made to improve civil liberties, but many Muslims saw them as foreign influence on the world of Islam. That perception complicated reformist efforts made by the state.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tanzimat
"The reforms sought to emancipate the empire's non-Muslim subjects"?
Why would that be needed if they were being treated fairly in the first place? It's also not clear how much credit to give the Ottoman Empire for such reforms, if they were basically Western standards taking over from Islamic standards, under pressure from the Western world?