In real-world examples, FREE TRADE makes everyone better off, while FAIR TRADE makes them worse off.
lower cost of production = lower price (for the same production) -> consumers / everyone made better off
Lumpen is not really a "free trader" - Lumpen is "the lowest price to consumers for a given level of quality is best" trader.
in other words, "pro-competition" trader. Same thing.
That's what everyone is, unless they're against antitrust law. Antitrust law is based on the premise that companies should compete in order to bring the price down to the lowest level possible, while still insuring that the companies have incentive to produce at the highest possible level (including higher quality) for consumers. I.e., more competition -> increased production and lower price. Or "the lowest price to consumers for a given level of quality is best" = Economics 1A.
His/her argument ignores that "fair trade" may, in fact, be a mutually agreed-upon legal agreement between buyers and seller - the very definition of free trade.
But that's not generally what "fair trade" means. Our topic is about cases where "fair" and "free" are NOT the same but are contrary, and the question which one is better. And the answer is that free is better because it allows any seller, including wage-earner, to try to undercut the other sellers, or compete with them, in order to attract a buyer, or get hired, which is always better for the economy, because more competition (absent crimes being committed) is always better, and you can't name any case where it's not better.
Our topic is about cases of free trade which are NOT "fair" -- such as Trump's complaint that China and other countries are not "fair" and so it's necessary to intervene to stop them from cheating and stealing jobs from red-blooded American workers. It's also about pressuring companies not to sell products made in sweatshops (which are not "fair"), and even trying to get laws passed to prohibit such production, or impose conditions onto those producers which would make the production more expensive, or to restrict or shut down those companies. In other words, it's about reducing the competition -> higher prices = contrary to the principles of economics upon which antitrust law is based.
For all examples where "fair" and "free" trade are contrary, it's "free" trade which is better, as in the above examples, because more competition is always better, and you can't give any example where less competition is better, or where "fair" trade is better than "free" trade. If you can't give any examples, it proves you're wrong. You have to give examples in the real world rather than just give abstractions.
In fact, if one actually thought about it (which may preclude Lumpen), laws constrain the scope of trade and treatment of labor, which may, in Lumpen's terminology, make some wages "artificially high".
Of course. Just as wages were made ARTIFICIALLY LOW centuries ago by laws which imposed
maximum wage laws onto employers, making it illegal to pay workers above a certain level. That's not ARTIFICIALLY-LOW wages? How was it not "artificially-low" wages when they punished employers who tried to increase wages in order to attract needed workers? The result was that companies were unable to hire all the workers they needed and some of the production did not get done, so that with less production there was a lower standard of living and the whole society was poorer. That was ARTIFICIALLY-LOW wages, was it not? And it was wrong, just as ARTIFICIALLY-HIGH wages are wrong for the same reason -- because they prevent needed work from getting done -> less production -> lower standard of living.
Just as stupid back then, and bad for the economy, as artificially-high wages today, which also cause lower production as a result.
Again, abstractions not related to the real world don't prove anything. Give a real example where artificially-high or artificially-low wages produce any benefit for society. You can't give any real example. You can't give any case where a net benefit is gained by forcing up the wage level or forcing it down, from the level mutually agreed to by the individual employer and worker.
Narrowly viewed, "the lowest price to consumers for a given level of quality is best for consumers" is true when one focuses solely on people as consumers.
No, not "on people as consumers" -- Rather, "the lowest price . . . is best . . ." is true when one focuses on what companies are supposed to do, or what their function is, or their role in society. And what they're supposed to do is serve consumers. The lowest price for the same quality is correct, and this must be the focus for policing business.
Which is what antitrust laws are about. What are companies supposed to do if not serve consumers? Why should companies ever charge consumers a price higher than that determined by competition, or supply-and-demand? What other function of business is there except to serve consumers? What is the point of the business, its product or service, other than to serve consumers? the customers? And what matters other than to make the business do this function better, or to improve its performance of this function?
What is the function of business if not to serve consumers?
What does
"when one focuses solely on people as consumers" mean?
One way or another, this phrase ends up meaning "jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs!" or Trump's crusade to "bring back the factories" or "bring back the jobs from China" and other babble nonsense. No, "jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs!" is not the function of business. Not even Bolshevik Bernie's "good-paying jobs! good-paying jobs!" chant.
On the contrary, sometimes business has to
eliminate jobs because the function is done better, cheaper, by robots or computers. And also it has to sometimes
reduce wages because of the excess supply of workers, making them less valuable and thus the work could get done at lower cost. It's good for the business to do this -- eliminate jobs or reduce wages (when dictated by supply-and-demand) -- and you can't name any case where this is not good, because the whole society benefits, i.e., ALL CONSUMERS benefit, and benefiting all society overrides the benefit of artificially-higher wages to a small number of uncompetitive workers whose market value is decreasing.
If the consumers are also workers whose wages are so low so that the lowest prices means they live in poverty or starvation, then it . . .
But "the lowest prices" cannot mean someone lives in poverty or starvation. Whoever is in poverty or starvation is not there because of any low prices.
The phrase "that the lowest prices means they live in poverty or starvation" is self-contradictory. There's no way that low prices can mean someone lives in poverty or starvation -- or, there's no way the low prices can cause poverty or starvation. And increasing the prices can only mean increasing the poverty and starvation, never decreasing it. Making the impoverished pay higher prices can only increase their impoverishment. Even if you assume certain workers get paid more in the process (for the same work, or same performance), the higher prices can only mean a net increase in poverty and starvation overall, because the higher prices hit ALL consumers, all the poor. Just because you make certain select workers better off does not change the fact that you're making most people worse off by increasing the prices (without any increase in production, or in performance).
If you imagine you can increase ALL wages, of everyone, that's utopian and delusional and has never happened, and could never happen. But if somehow you could make it happen, it would be only by increasing all the prices so much, and decreasing production so much that you'd still cause an overall increase in poverty and starvation, despite many receiving nominally higher wages. Others would be laid off, because business couldn't afford such an increase in labor cost, and the overall result -- from inflation and shut-down of production -- would be an increase in total poverty.
The only way to reduce the poverty and starvation is to
produce more stuff, or
produce it better. There has to be an IMPROVEMENT IN PERFORMANCE of workers in order to make society better, not just increasing someone's wages above what their market value is.
So the phrase "that the lowest prices means they live in poverty or starvation" is meaningless and incoherent.
How is a starving person made better off having to pay even higher prices? If they're starving at the low prices, they will starve even more if the prices are made higher. The lower price can only reduce their starvation, not increase it. Increasing the price to them does not make them better able to buy food, but less able.
If the consumers are also workers whose wages are so low so that the lowest prices means they live in poverty or starvation, then it is not obvious that Lumpen's view is true.
That "the lowest prices means they live in poverty or starvation" can never be true or make any sense. It can mean only less poverty or starvation, never more. The consumers being served by this or that production are always a vastly greater number than the workers doing the production. Remember that in some cases,
the workers are VOLUNTEERS! paid ZERO!, and even then the total poverty and starvation is reduced because of the production, or the work done. The wages can't be lower than ZERO, can they? And yet even at that "lower" wage level the total poverty and starvation is REDUCED (by the increased production), not increased.
And there are many real examples of workers paid ZERO, volunteers, doing work which promotes survival of consumers, just as legitimate as paid workers, and these unpaid workers
are not slaves! because they're free to quit.
So it's only getting the work done which can produce benefit, not paying higher wages to the worker (unless this is necessary in order to get the work done).
If one expands the view to overall well-being instead of well-being from the consumption of goods and services, it is even less true. For example, free trade with a country or company that uses forced labor may result in . . .
But there is no such country or company today. "forced labor" is not about the real world, and so is hypothetical only. It's OK to theorize possibilities which don't really exist, but this doesn't address any practical issue today, such as "fair trade" vs. "free trade" or anything in today's global economy.
But we can suppose a slavery scenario as a hypothetical possibility today. Other than some criminal examples, such as in the underground economy, we can take the worst-case scenario, perhaps N. Korea, which might be accused of practicing slavery. This has nothing to do with free trade or "fair trade," but rather is about nations deciding whether to take action against an outlaw nation, which can happen at least in theory.
When Apartheid was practiced in South Africa, the world community united to condemn it and take common action to boycott that nation. Nothing prevents a similar action being taken today against any other form of criminal behavior by an outlaw nation, whatever the crime is.
So if the world community decides to condemn N. Korea or China or any other nation, and to impose sanctions or embargoes or boycotts against that nation for slavery or other crimes, then it's appropriate for every nation to cooperate in the action to punish that criminal behavior. This has nothing to do with the question of free trade vs. fair trade. The "fair trade" crusade is not about punishing criminal behavior, but is about condemning global competition which drives down wage levels. It condemns the low wages resulting from wage competition, just as all competition between producers leads to lower production cost and thus lower price to consumers. This has nothing to do with slavery or other crimes. Low wages can never be equated to slavery, as long as the workers make a free choice not coerced by the employers, because
even if the wage is ZERO, it's still not slavery.
. . . free trade with a country or company that uses forced labor may result in the lowest prices for consumers, but consumers may feel worse off knowing that those goods are produced by slave labor.
If there were any such slave labor today, there might be some practical point here, but this is totally hypothetical.
If the production continues on taking place anyway, in the hypothetical scenario, so there's no legal action or policing to stop it, then it's dubious whether the consumers who buy the product are made worse off, or whether they make anyone worse off by buying the product, even if they know of the slavery. Those who choose to boycott the product are not necessarily doing a favor for the slaves producing it. It could be that everyone is better off anyway, continuing to buy the product made by the slaves, given that the slavery will continue no matter what. At most, all that is accomplished by boycotting the product is that the production decreases, or comes to an end, at which point the mistreatment of the slaves is just as likely to get even worse.
In addition, Lumpen's claim that more competition = everyone is better off is false. More competition may make some consumers and business better off. It is theoretically possible that more competition makes everyone better off. However, in the case of economies of scale or scope, more competition may make many people (possibly everyone) [worse off] by preventing producers from reaching the maximum economies of scale or scope (i.e. the lowest price).
There's no example of producers prevented from reaching the maximum economies of scale, other than RESTRICTING trade and restricting competition. It's allowing full competition which more likely leads to the maximum economies of scale, rather than restricting competition.
The idea that a company could be made to achieve the maximum efficiency of production and minimum cost by means of giving it some kind of uncompetitive advantage, or monopoly -- restricting competition -- is fantasy, unless this refers to something like public utilities, or natural monopolies, where it is recognized that there has to be a franchise to one company, or the production has to be state-owned. Other than that, there can be no advantage or improved performance by means of restricting competition, including greater economies of scale.
"All in all" Free Trade vs. Fair Trade -- summation
All in all, Lumpen's argument has is shallow in logic, economics and human deceny, and deep in anti-worker bias.
That says it all!
"Everything in the world you could ever want to know" about free trade vs fair trade is right there in that clear succinct precise "has is shallow in logic, economics and human deceny" synopsis. Straight to the point!
Ziprhead says that the more succinct statement is the truth, while "Walls of Text" have to be wrong. So "fair trade" wins, because the "FREE TRADE" argument is too long:
FREE TRADE case:
more competition = prices/wages are set by supply-and-demand only = lower prices to all = lower cost of living = higher living standard or greatest good for the greatest number (even if some uncompetitive producers -- a minority -- are made worse off in the short term).
While the "FAIR TRADE" case is summed up in fewer words, and is therefore the truth:
FAIR TRADE case:
Lumpen is shallow and indecent and biased.
Those are the arguments in a nutshell. And according to Head Umpire Zipr, the latter wins because it's fewer words.