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Happiness inequality in the united states is declining - down substantially from the 70's

Axulus

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This paper examines how the level and dispersion of self-reported happiness has evolved over
the period 1972–2006. While there has been no increase in aggregate happiness, inequality
in happiness has fallen substantially since the 1970s.
There have been large changes in the
level of happiness across groups: two-thirds of the black-white happiness gap has been eroded,
and the gender happiness gap has disappeared entirely. Paralleling changes in the income
distribution, differences in happiness by education have widened substantially. We develop
an integrated approach to measuring inequality and decomposing changes in the distribution
of happiness, finding a pervasive decline in within-group inequality during the 1970s and
1980s that was experienced by even narrowly defined demographic groups. Around one-third
of this decline has subsequently been unwound. Juxtaposing these changes with large increases
in income inequality suggests an important role for nonpecuniary factors in shaping the wellbeing
distribution.

http://users.nber.org/~jwolfers/papers/HappinessInequality.pdf

Is happiness inequality more important to address than income inequality? If most people view happiness and happiness inequality as more important, could the decline of such inequality and the relative lack of focus on it by the left be why their moral arguments tend to fall on deaf ears?
 
It seems a bit disingenuous to focus on the 1970-2006 period, and not take into account the post 2006 period when one's trying to imply income inequality isn't as big of a deal. After all, there's been a sharp increase in poverty since then. Income inequality isn't going to have as much of an effect on a population's happiness if most people go up in wealth but a few go up way more. It DOES become a problem when a few go way up in wealth, and the rest don't or start losing wealth; as has been the case more recently.
 
Is happiness inequality more important to address than income inequality? If most people view happiness and happiness inequality as more important, could the decline of such inequality and the relative lack of focus on it by the left be why their moral arguments tend to fall on deaf ears?
... do you even realize that the link you provided basically shows that 'happiness inequality' is declining because more and more people are unhappy while fewer and fewer people are happy?
inequality is decreasing because unhappiness is becoming more uniform - what in the shit kind of argument are you even trying to base off of that?

also: the left's moral arguments fall on deaf ears because they are arguing against people without morals.
 
Is happiness inequality more important to address than income inequality? If most people view happiness and happiness inequality as more important, could the decline of such inequality and the relative lack of focus on it by the left be why their moral arguments tend to fall on deaf ears?
... do you even realize that the link you provided basically shows that 'happiness inequality' is declining because more and more people are unhappy while fewer and fewer people are happy?
inequality is decreasing because unhappiness is becoming more uniform - what in the shit kind of argument are you even trying to base off of that?

Be careful what you wish for when you ask the equality fairy for more equality.
 
Is happiness inequality more important to address than income inequality? If most people view happiness and happiness inequality as more important, could the decline of such inequality and the relative lack of focus on it by the left be why their moral arguments tend to fall on deaf ears?
... do you even realize that the link you provided basically shows that 'happiness inequality' is declining because more and more people are unhappy while fewer and fewer people are happy?
inequality is decreasing because unhappiness is becoming more uniform - what in the shit kind of argument are you even trying to base off of that?

also: the left's moral arguments fall on deaf ears because they are arguing against people without morals.

Where are you getting that from?

All the data I saw when I scanned the article shows "Not too happy" and "Very happy" both down while "Pretty happy" - the middle condition, up quite a bit.
 
It seems a bit disingenuous to focus on the 1970-2006 period, and not take into account the post 2006 period when one's trying to imply income inequality isn't as big of a deal. After all, there's been a sharp increase in poverty since then. Income inequality isn't going to have as much of an effect on a population's happiness if most people go up in wealth but a few go up way more. It DOES become a problem when a few go way up in wealth, and the rest don't or start losing wealth; as has been the case more recently.

This paper is a little old, released in 2008 - I'll check if there have been any updates since then.
 
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