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Income inequality and economic stagnation, competing stories

SimpleDon

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Income inequality and economic stagnation, competing stories

Based on Inequality, the financial crisis stagnation, competing stories and why they matter, by Tom Palley, available now for subscribers to the Real World Economics Review, here, http://www.paecon.net/PAEReview, subscriptions are free. Will be available to non-subscribers in a month. I will summarize the paper, adding my own take, in italics, usually.

This maybe a link to the paper that might work for non-subscribers. I am a subscriber and it works for me. Of course, I discovered it after I had completely summarized the paper below. The link will download a pdf file.

http://p.feedblitz.com/t3.asp?/9738...www.paecon.net/PAEReview/issue74/Palley74.pdf

Abstract: This paper examines several mainstream explanations of the financial crisis and stagnation and the role they attribute to income inequality. Those explanations are contrasted with a structural Keynesian explanation. The role of income inequality differs substantially, giving rise to different policy recommendations. That highlights the critical importance of economic theory. Theory shapes the way we understand the world, thereby shaping how we respond to it. The theoretical narrative we adopt therefore implicitly shapes policy. That observation applies forcefully to the issue of income inequality, the financial crisis and stagnation, making it critical we get the story right.

In my thread on my poor understanding of basic economics, someone told me that the neoclassical synthesis economics that is the current mainstream orthodoxy of economics is not so much a single economic philosophy as it is a toolbox by which economics can be explained and understood. Implying that many different economic philosophies can be explained and understood with the tools provided by the synthesis toolbox. I agree with that, but only up to a point.

There are some tools missing.[/analogy] There are lines that can't be crossed in the synthesis. Schools of economics that are considered to be heterodoxical schools of economics whose economists can't be published in the mainstream journals. There are subjects that mainstream economists can't get published. There are conclusions that can't be made.

This paper is an example of this. It is being published in an non-mainstream on-line economics journal. It was started by post Keynesians but accepts papers from a broad range of economists.

=============================

1. Rajan's it's the government's fault explanation

The first story is from Fault Lines: How hidden fractures still threaten the world economy,, a book by R.G. Rajan. He is an University of Chicago trained economist, currently a professor there and is considered to be every bit of the hard line neoliberal neoclassical that that University stands for. He was the chief economist at the IMF when the crisis occurred and is one of the handful of economists who predicted the financial crisis and the cause of it, the popping of the housing bubble. (No, Ron Paul didn't predict the crisis and the cause of it, more accurately he incorrectly predicted a housing crisis next year for more than twenty years before 2008, and never predicted the proper cause.)

In summary,

  • He believes that the financial crisis was caused by income inequality because of the government's intervention as a reaction to the inequality.
  • That income inequity is caused by the economy increasing the rewards for the most skilled and decreasing the rewards for the least skilled.
  • He asserts that the labor market was working correctly and that the income and wealth inequality isn't an economic problem.
  • That the solution to the inequality is better education and training.
  • That the American government, as a sop to the less skilled who were being left behind, promoted cheap credit as a way to get them what they wanted, most notably homeownership.
  • That the main evidence was in the Community Redevelopment Act, the CRA, and the behavior of the Federal National Mortgage Association, FNMA or Fannie Mae.
  • He didn't address the stagnation in this book but he has more recently attributed it to the long recovery times from recessions caused by financial crises and the remaining high private debt load.

This is the response to the problems from the neoclassical/neoliberal right and the preferred explanation for political right. It boils down to the government did it. But this explanation has been repeatedly refuted.

The government interventions had been in place for a long time without causing any problems, the CRA since 1977 and FNMA since 1938. Fannie Mae didn't trade in sub-prime mortgage securities until late in the bubble build up and then only reluctantly under pressure from their stockholders. Stockholders, who would stabilize the previously government owned entity and shield the government from a massive failure, the Republicans insisted when they forced the partial privatization of Fannie Mae.

Finally only one Republican on the House investigating subcommittee voted to submit this explanation as the majority report.


The explanation of the cause of the income inequality is also popular with the right, it says that the inequality was and is unavoidable. Just an unfortunate result of the economy working correctly, unfortunate unless you are wealthy that is. But this explanation runs into a lot of problems, especially for the neoliberals, the supply siders:

  • In 1980 the supply siders were arguing that government policies largely determine the income distribution, now they are denying this.
  • The main beneficiaries of the income inequality haven't been the innovators, highly skilled and schooled, it has been the rentiers; the passive investors, the coupon clippers, the bankers and Wall Street.
  • Our current economic policies are essentially the same supply side economic policies imposed starting in the 1980's. Even if other factors caused the inequality there is no reason to continue with policies designed specifically to produce inequality.

The idea that the stagnation is the result of a slow recovery from a recession caused by a financial crisis, as is often seen with these kinds of recessions, has been taken on by a NBER working paper New Evidence on the Impact of Financial Crises in Advanced Countries, by C. and D. Romer, 2015. They found that the recoveries from financial crisis triggered recessions vary all over the place but that they average out to moderate lengths of time.

The theory behind these positions is covered below.

=============================

2. Kumhof and Rancière, the reduction in workers' bargaining power and private debt explanation

From the neoclassical center we have a second explanation from Inequality, leverage and crises, by Kumhof and Rancière, 2010. This is the synthesis made real, a combination of Keynesian and neoclassical economics.

  • That the income inequality was caused by the lessening of union bargaining power.
  • That the income inequality lead to the financial crisis because of the increase in private debt.
  • The inequality led to persistent borrowing from workers as they tried to maintain their standard of living.
  • That the private debt load left the economy fragile and vulnerable to another shock to worker's bargaining power that further lowered workers' incomes so that the loans couldn't be paid back triggering the financial crisis.
  • That the stagnation is caused by an assumed 10% reduction in the capital stock due to the financial crisis.

This is less Keynesian and more neoclassical than it appears.

The economy was at full employment before and and after the financial crisis, so that the inequality doesn't impact employment.

Certainly the erosion of the unions and of the workers' bargaining power that resulted was one of the causes of the inequality, but it wasn't the only reason.

Excessive lending is a financial market failure that increased the fragility of the economy. Underwriting is the obligation of the banks and the financial sector. Denial of market failures is a feature of neoclassical not Keynesian economics.

There is no evidence of a further shock to workers' bargaining power in 2007 or 2008. In fact, wages were increasing.

This model has difficulty explaining the size of the output reduction caused by the financial crisis and the onset of stagnation after the Great Recession. The claim of a 10% reduction in the capital stock is implausible.

=============================

3. Eggertsson-Krugman's ZLB, liquidity trap, and deleveraging explanation

The third paper is Debt, deleveraging, and the liquidity trap, by Eggertsson and Krugman, 2012, an explanation from the neoclassical left. Krugman is well known for his largely political New York Times op-ed column and his largely economic theory blog on the same paper's web site.

This article is about the stagnation and only touched on the financial crisis and had nothing about the income inequality. Their attitude about the income inequality was pulled from other blog entries.

Things that are understood by Palley's audience that might need some further explanation here.


Eggertsson and Krugman are New Keynesians and depend on Hicks' IS-LM model of Keynes' effective demand. The IS-LM model shows the relationship between interest rate and the real output. It is similar to Marshall's "X" of supply and demand determining price and output in aggregate, that there is an "X" of the investment-savings, IS, curve and the liquidity preference-money supply, LM, curve. The intersection of these curves determines the real output from the interest rate.

240px-Islm.jpg

The IS curve is the downward sloping curve, the independent variable, the interest rate, in economics' backwards fashion, is on the Y-axis, the dependent variable, national output, GDP, is on the X-axis. The LM curve is upward sloping.

Liquidity preference is Keynes' broader explanation of what you might know as the velocity of money in the economy, the answer to the question, are consumers as a whole spending and borrowing or are they saving and paying down debt? The LM curve is, as I understand it, a measure of how much of the money supply is actively circulating in the economy.

I have never found this to be overly perversive as either an explanation of Keynes' effective demand or as an explanation of the role of demand in the economy. Even Hicks agreed later in his career. It is an explanation in neoclassical terms, like loanable funds and the so-called natural interest rate, of the idea of effective demand presented in Keynes' General Theory ... , marginally reasonable in 1936 but much less reasonable today, 80 years later.


Eggertsson and Krugman's arguments,

  1. The income inequality had no part in either the financial crisis or the stagnation.
  2. The precursor to stagnation is that a financial bubble drove more borrowing and leverage in the economy.
  3. When the bubble burst in 2007/8 the economy experienced a financial crisis and a deep recession.
  4. The bubble bursting started a wave of deleveraging in the economy.
  5. The deleveraging increased savings that the economy was unable to absorb in the economy because of the ZLB.
  6. That there exists an interest rate that balances full employment savings with full employment investment.
  7. That the loanable funds market determines the full employment interest rate based on the supply of savings and investment.
  8. That the deleveraging, paying down debt, causes the upward sloping LM curve to shift to the right, so far that to balance with the full employment savings rate would require a negative real interest rate.
  9. The lowest the nominal interest rate can go is zero, the interest rate is zero limit bound, ZLB.
  10. This is the liquidity trap.
  11. The policy to to recover from the stagnation is two part.
    • Run a large budget deficit to soak up the excess private savings.
    • Ramp up inflation expectations, the only way to have a effectively negative real inflation rate is to have a higher inflation rate than an interest rate.
  12. Krugman has persistently contested the significance of the inequality as a cause of the stagnation, citing the declining savings rate after 1980 as proof that inequality doesn't reduce demand.
  13. To Krugman the main impact of the inequality hasn't been economic but political, as the rich have used their increased wealth to prevent the use of fiscal policies to offset the problems caused by deleveraging, as evidenced by the repeated calls for austerity, for cuts in the safety net and for cuts in the so-called entitlements, Social Security, etc., for example.

There are many problems with this explanation of the stagnation and Krugman's stance on the inequality.

  • The originator of the IS-LM diagram, John Hicks, later called it a "classroom gadget" and not a tool for economic investigations.
  • The ZLB story rests on a loanable funds theory of interest rates in which the full employment interest rate is determined by the supply of savings and the demand for investment. This theory was discredited by Keynes in The General Theory....
  • The ZLB story of stagnation puts too much significance on interest rates as both the source of the problem and as the solution to it.
  • Real interest rates were negative in the 1970's and it did nothing to solve the stagnation and employment problems then.
  • A negative 3% real interest rate, called for by Krugman et al, would likely trigger a renewed financial bubble that would crash even harder when real interest rates started up.
  • The deleveraging story of excess savings and reduced demand is unconvincing, private savings has been increasing since the Great Recession and a significant portion of the deleveraging during the recession was from defaults and debt write offs, which increase aggregate demand and reduces savings.
  • The Krugman et al explanation of stagnation assigns no role to income inequality, an obvious omission if you only consider the higher income households greater propensity to save and its identical effects to deleveraging.
  • The inequality doesn't increase savings and decrease demand argument ignores the realities of the neoliberal policies, the asset price inflation (increased capital gains, the "good" inflation), a thirty year long credit bubble which increased wealth, collateral, the quantity of credit, and the ease of access to credit all of which masked the neoliberal wage stagnation for the vast majority of Americans.
  • The credit bubble ended with the financial crisis, resulting in an increased savings rate to rebound, causing a demand shortage and it was this, not the deleveraging, that caused the stagnation.
  • This is shown in Inequality, the Great Recession and Slow Recovery, by Cynamon and Fazzari, 2012.
  • While Krugman's political economy argument, that inequality has provided the wealthy with greater political power with which to impose their will, is undoubtedly true, there is also no doubt at this point that Krugman and the other mainstream economists here must still be missing something.

=============================

Why the mainstream economists have missed the effects of income inequality and the causes of the stagnation

Rajan, Kumhof and Rancière, and Krugman are all leading mainstream economists. Their associations are the University of Chicago, the IMF and MIT.

Rajan is identified with the hardcore neoliberalism of the Chicago school which views the economy as approximating textbook perfect competition, presumably in the aggregate, with minimum market failures. Government interference always produces worse outcomes. Government failure is always more costly than market failures.

The others are identified with the softcore neoliberalism of MIT. They believe in the same benchmark competitive model as the hardcore neoliberals but to them, market failures are pervasive and large and that government intervention is an acceptable solution to them. But they all argue that there is nothing wrong with the structure of the economy. Policy is claimed to do a good job remedying their effects.

All of them share a common neoclassical, mainstream theoretical view of the economy. While they differ on the extent of market failures and the effectiveness of government interference, there is one point on which they will all agree on, that the structure of the economy is solid. That the problems from the Great Financial Crisis and Recession will be over in time, no matter what is or what isn't done. That no matter what the disruptions are, that the economy will always return to an equilibrium of full employment and full capacity utilization. Even if it requires them to redefine those two terms from time to time.

This idea of a full employment equilibrium is embodied in the Arrow-Debreu competitive general equilibrium model that remains as the analytic heart of mainstream theoretical economics. The model benchmarks an ideal economy and generates the two famous welfare theorems. The first states that perfectly competitive economies, with no market or informational failures, will be Pareto efficient, that no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off, and that this is independent of the income distribution.

The second welfare theorem says that in an ideal economy there is no way, except for a lump sum tax, to redistribute income without allocative and productive inefficiencies. And a lump sum tax, charging everyone the same amount, is impossible to implement in the real world.

These theorems only apply to an ideal economy, but they bias mainstream economists into thinking incorrectly about inequality in two ways, that inequality doesn't matter for economic efficiency and that it is impossible to redress the inequality without losing efficiency.

=============================

The Keynesian virtuous circle growth model

Palley is a proponent of what he calls a structural Keynesian approach. I had never heard of Structural Keynesian. As far as I can tell he is the only one who uses the term. Just from reading some of the posts on his web site he is close to being a post-Keynesian, a heterodoxical economics school, in opposition to the orthodoxy, the mainstream, neoclassical synthesis economics. There certainly isn't anything in this paper that would upset most post-Keynesians.

The above argument shows that income distribution does matter. But to show how requires a better macroeconomic story than offered by the ZLB proponents. That is a "structural Keynesian" account of the financial crisis and stagnation. Written long before the stagnation was recognized by mainstream economists like Larry Summers.

Until the late 1970's developed countries, including the US, could be described by a Keynes virtuous circle growth model in which wages were the engine of demand growth.

  1. Productivity growth leads to,
  2. Wage and demand growth which produces,
  3. Full employment which,
  4. Provides the incentive to invest which produces,
  5. Further productivity growth, which takes us back to 1.

Within this system, finance was constrained by New Deal type regulation limiting it to a public utility model where its role was to;

  • provide businesses with finance for investment
  • provide businesses and households with insurance
  • provide households with the means to save

After 1980 the virtuous Keynesian (demand side) growth model was replaced by a neoliberal (supply side) growth model. The two key changes in the real economy were;

  1. abandonment of the commitment to full employment and replacing it with a commitment to low inflation
  2. severing the link between wages and productivity growth

In addition regulation of the financial sector was eased resulting in the financialization of the economy in which the presence and power of finance in the economy. These changes created a new economic model. Before 1980 increases in wages drove economic growth. After 1980 debt and asset inflation drove economic growth.

This new economic model can be described as a "neoliberal policy box," that fences workers in and pressures them from all sides via;

  1. the corporate model of globalization
  2. the small government agenda that attacks regulation and public sector activity
  3. the labor market flexibility agenda that attacks unions, worker bargaining power and worker protections
  4. the replacement of full employment macroeconomic policy with low inflation targeting policies

Also the New Deal financial system public utility model was gutted by deregulation and new financial innovations were largely left unregulated.

The result was a new system characterized by ever growing financial instability, wage stagnation and increased income inequality. These wage and income developments created a growing structural demand shortage. The role assumed by finance was to fill this demand gap, with innovations, speculation and above all increased debt.

Having finance fill the demand gap was an unintended consequence of the neoliberal policies. Neoliberal economic policymakers didn't realize that they were creating a demand gap, but their laissez faire financial ideology unleashed developments that accidentally filled it. This process was inherently unstable and was always destined to implode. There are limits to both private borrowing and to asset price inflation. These processes were of long duration, therefore the collapse was far deeper when it happened.

=============================

4. The structural Keynesian view of income inequality and its role in the financial crisis and the stagnation

The structural Keynesian view of the role of inequality in the crisis and the stagnation is,

  1. The inequality didn't cause the financial crisis.
  2. The crisis was caused by the implosion of the asset price and credit bubbles.
  3. However, once the crisis happened the financial markets ceased filling the demand gap caused by the inequality.
  4. Bringing the effects of the demand gap to the fore.
  5. The stagnation resulted, the joint product of the credit bubble, the financial crisis and the income inequality.
  6. The credit bubble left behind a huge debt overhang, the financial crisis destroyed the credit worthiness of millions and income inequality created a structural demand shortage, removing incentives to produce and to invest.

The above diagnosis makes clear why the middle term outlook is for continued stagnation.

  1. The US still has a structural "demand gap" caused by a deteriorated income distribution and the income distribution has actually worsened since 2008.
  2. The credit bubble is over and borrowing can no longer fill the "demand gap," the financial sector reforms have tightened credit.
  3. The import and investment leakages associated with globalization remain unrepaired, while needed fiscal stimulus has turned into austerity.

Consequently, despite the Federal Reserve's zero interest rate and quantitative easing policies, the economy is beset by slower growth and overall labor market slack that threatens to become permanent. Further having re-inflated the asset prices the QE experiment will backfire in the form of renewed financial market turmoil.

=============================

The story we accept matters

Which of the above four stories we accept matters enormously because the way that we explain the world affects how we understand it, which in turn has major political and policy consequences.

If Rajan's story is accepted then income inequality is reduced to an issue of political and ethical concern, but not an economic concern. Since labor markets are working as they are suppose to, there is no justification for interventions into the labor market to increase wage share of GDP or to improve workers bargaining power. Rather than focusing on income inequality we should be moving to repeal government interventions in the home mortgage markets and to return to more orthodox monetary policy to prevent asset price bubbles.

If Kumhof and Ranciére story is accepted, the cause of the crisis was financial market failure that allowed workers whose income prospects had diminished to borrow excessively. The policy response should be to tighten financial market regulation prevent a repeat of the lending bubble. Once again, the labor markets were working well and the case for increasing the wage share is again purely ethical and political.

If the Eggertsson-Krugman, ZLB, deleveraging story is accepted income distribution is again reduced to a non-economic issue. Instead the cause of the stagnation is deleveraging which just a process that has to be worked through. However, during this period there is the case for large budget deficits to offset the private savings caused by the deleveraging and avoiding the decreased output and increased unemployment that would result. As above the inequality is a purely ethical and political question, not an economic one.

If the "structural Keynesian" story is accepted, then the income distribution is a central problem and the principle factor explaining the demand shortage that is the cause of the stagnation. The solution is to replace the neoliberal policy framework with a “structural Keynesianism” framework. Metaphorically speaking, policymakers needs to repack the box, take workers out, and put
corporations and financial markets in. That requires replacing corporate globalization with managed globalization; restoring macroeconomic policy commitment to full employment; replacing the anti-government agenda with a social democratic agenda that supports and funds public investment, provision of public services and regulation (including financial markets); and replacing neoliberal labor market flexibility with solidarity based labor markets in which workers have greater bargaining power and receive an increased wage share.

=============================

End of the summary, the remainder is mine

Palley goes on to elaborate the meaning of accepting the structural Keynesian explanation and the political problems with trying to implement it, which are huge, considering that the dominate movement conservatism's policies and those of the Republican party are exactly the neoliberal policy framework, policies that they will defend to the death. Palley's take is interesting and I urge you to read it but it doesn't impact our discussion.

In separate threads recently I have stated the position that the neoclassical synthesis economics' failures are primarily due to its components from Marshall's neoclassical economics like a general, full employment equilibrium, loanable funds, welfare theorems, a non-monetary economy, etc. and especially from its morph into neoliberal economics, which I characterized as rich men's economics because its main purpose seem to be to boost the incomes and wealth of the already rich at the cost of the incomes of everyone else and in spite of its impact on the economy.

I offer this paper as support for the above. The tools provided by neoclassical synthesis economies seem to be capable of being used to develop any analysis except for the most reasonable Keynesian structural one.

Keynes realized that the modern industrial economy is no longer a supply lead economy, as modern neoclassical and neoliberal economics assumes. That the modern economy is now demand lead, that the growth in the economy depends on the amount of demand in the economy.

So which explanation do you believe is closest to the correct one? And why?

Can you provide any additional arguments for or against any of the four explanations?
 
Or you have an issue where you have 2 problems that aren't related and try and mesh them together. The financial crisis wasn't caused by the income inequality issue. It was caused from a reaction to a combination of forces trying to prop up the economy and it landed in one area that caused an asset bubble. It burst.
 
A few comments in addition to SimpleDon's :



1. Rajan's it's the government's fault explanation

The CRA-did-it story had been comprehensively debunked before Rajan's book and since. Plus we had the same housing bubble, NINJA mortgages and crash in Britain (and elsewhere) with no CRA. Indeed gov't had been trying for years to quell the housing bubble with interest rates etc until Gordon Brown basically gave up.

Rajan no doubt believes training and education to be the answer because profits are maximised by paying workers their marginal product. Problem is, that assumes so-called perfect competition. Otherwise profits are maximised by paying them less wherever the labour market allows - as folks outwith ivory towers could tell him.



=============================

2. Kumhof and Rancière, the reduction in workers' bargaining power and private debt explanation


  • That the income inequality was caused by the lessening of union bargaining power.
Along with deregulation, outsourcing, subcontracting, casualisation and -not least- the ascendancy of neoclassical theory in policy formulation.

  • That the income inequality lead to the financial crisis because of the increase in private debt.
  • The inequality led to persistent borrowing from workers as they tried to maintain their standard of living.
  • That the private debt load left the economy fragile and vulnerable to another shock to worker's bargaining power that further lowered workers' incomes so that the loans couldn't be paid back triggering the financial crisis.
Yep, yep, yep

  • That the stagnation is caused by an assumed 10% reduction in the capital stock due to the financial crisis.
Highly implausible given chronic capacity underutilisation. Seems no matter what evidence you put under an economist's nose, he'll see a supply-constrained model


=============================

3. Eggertsson-Krugman's ZLB, liquidity trap, and deleveraging explanation


Perhaps this one's difficult to summarise (and I don't know the fine detail) but it seems the least coherent argument. The ZLB demarcates the limit of remedial policy. It isn't the problem itself or its cause. They need to account for the bubbles, debt etc, and nothing here seens incompatible with accounts in which they came along with growing inequality.

Plus, the problem Krugman calls political rather than economic is every bit as economic as it is political. An incoherent fudge like the so-called "synthesis" from which it derives.

=============================

4. The structural Keynesian view of income inequality and its role in the financial crisis and the stagnation

  1. The inequality didn't cause the financial crisis.
  2. The crisis was caused by the implosion of the asset price and credit bubbles.
This, again, is like saying a car crash was caused by a collision of automobiles. The difference between a credit bubble and a boom has to do with qualified borrowers i.e. financially secure folks with adequate regular incomes. Lack of them meant money lenders bundling up good and bad mortgages in surrealist financial instruments. I mean what could possibly go wrong? Nothing, according to economists for whom money and finance are just veils over the barter economy. Who cares anyway once you've got your commissions and bonuses? Meanwhile the increasingly rich invest in ever more arcane paper assets rather than production because the real economy is demand-constrained.

  • However, once the crisis happened the financial markets ceased filling the demand gap caused by the inequality.
  • Bringing the effects of the demand gap to the fore.
  • The stagnation resulted, the joint product of the credit bubble, the financial crisis and the income inequality.
  • The credit bubble left behind a huge debt overhang, the financial crisis destroyed the credit worthiness of millions and income inequality created a structural demand shortage, removing incentives to produce and to invest.
OK.





SimpleDon said:
Why the mainstream economists have missed the effects of income inequality and the causes of the stagnation

Rajan, Kumhof and Rancière, and Krugman are all leading mainstream economists. Their associations are the University of Chicago, the IMF and MIT.

Rajan is identified with the hardcore neoliberalism of the Chicago school which views the economy as approximating textbook perfect competition, presumably in the aggregate, with minimum market failures. Government interference always produces worse outcomes. Government failure is always more costly than market failures.

The others are identified with the softcore neoliberalism of MIT. They believe in the same benchmark competitive model as the hardcore neoliberals but to them, market failures are pervasive and large and that government intervention is an acceptable solution to them. But they all argue that there is nothing wrong with the structure of the economy. Policy is claimed to do a good job remedying their effects.

All of them share a common neoclassical, mainstream theoretical view of the economy. While they differ on the extent of market failures and the effectiveness of government interference, there is one point on which they will all agree on, that the structure of the economy is solid. That the problems from the Great Financial Crisis and Recession will be over in time, no matter what is or what isn't done. That no matter what the disruptions are, that the economy will always return to an equilibrium of full employment and full capacity utilization. Even if it requires them to redefine those two terms from time to time.

This idea of a full employment equilibrium is embodied in the Arrow-Debreu competitive general equilibrium model that remains as the analytic heart of mainstream theoretical economics. The model benchmarks an ideal economy and generates the two famous welfare theorems. The first states that perfectly competitive economies, with no market or informational failures, will be Pareto efficient, that no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off, and that this is independent of the income distribution.

The second welfare theorem says that in an ideal economy there is no way, except for a lump sum tax, to redistribute income without allocative and productive inefficiencies. And a lump sum tax, charging everyone the same amount, is impossible to implement in the real world.

These theorems only apply to an ideal economy, but they bias mainstream economists into thinking incorrectly about inequality in two ways, that inequality doesn't matter for economic efficiency and that it is impossible to redress the inequality without losing efficiency.

Absolutely.

In fact every unrealistic assumption and dictionary re-definition (with which mainstream theory is replete) has the same ideological slant. It's really hard to imagine that this is just coincidence or to do with constructing tractable models.
 
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Bubble economies helped sink Spain, Ireland and Iceland, among others. In a sense, it seems to me, we are moving back to a sort of era in the 1800's where panics happened regularly. I have seen critiques that claim we are in an era of bubbles driving things as much as more responsible economics. Classic Keynesian economics doesn't deal with bubble economies well. Managing bubbles is not something we see much about.
 
Probably because bubble management isn't the best way to run an economy.
 
Probably because bubble management isn't the best way to run an economy.

We agree. We disagree on the means because the philosophy of the 90s and 2000s was to increase demand through a weak dollar and inflation.
 
Or you have an issue where you have 2 problems that aren't related and try and mesh them together. The financial crisis wasn't caused by the income inequality issue. It was caused from a reaction to a combination of forces trying to prop up the economy and it landed in one area that caused an asset bubble. It burst.

But wasn't income inequality how the supply siders were going to increase investments?

Which they promised would increase business investment, increasing the number of jobs and the number of the employed, creating previously not reached levels of prosperity throughout society, raising all boats?

By increasing the incomes of the rich and decreasing the incomes of everyone else, i.e. increasing income inequality, they were putting more money in the hands of the rich, who have a greater propensity to save rather than to consume.

This is what happened. Income inequality increased, the incomes of the rich increased and the incomes of everyone else decreased. The rich saved the majority of the new income diverted from the incomes of the non-rich. So far, so good for the supply siders and their theories.

But business investment didn't increase, in fact it decreased. The savings of the rich didn't go toward business investment, rather it went into a series of progressively larger asset bubbles in stocks, bonds, commodities, gold, oil, real estate, even classic cars, coins, stamps, impressionist paintings, etc. and finally in the penultimate asset bubble in subprime mortgage derivatives. All of the asset bubbles were created by the same thing, the rich trying to earn returns on their ever growing, supply side economics fueled incomes.
 
A few comments in addition to SimpleDon's :



1. Rajan's it's the government's fault explanation

The CRA-did-it story had been comprehensively debunked before Rajan's book and since. Plus we had the same housing bubble, NINJA mortgages and crash in Britain (and elsewhere) with no CRA. Indeed gov't had been trying for years to quell the housing bubble with interest rates etc until Gordon Brown basically gave up.

Rajan no doubt believes training and education to be the answer because profits are maximised by paying workers their marginal product. Problem is, that assumes so-called perfect competition. Otherwise profits are maximised by paying them less wherever the labour market allows - as folks outwith ivory towers could tell him.



=============================

2. Kumhof and Rancière, the reduction in workers' bargaining power and private debt explanation


[/list]Along with deregulation, outsourcing, subcontracting, casualisation and -not least- the ascendancy of neoclassical theory in policy formulation.

  • That the income inequality lead to the financial crisis because of the increase in private debt.
  • The inequality led to persistent borrowing from workers as they tried to maintain their standard of living.
  • That the private debt load left the economy fragile and vulnerable to another shock to worker's bargaining power that further lowered workers' incomes so that the loans couldn't be paid back triggering the financial crisis.
Yep, yep, yep

  • That the stagnation is caused by an assumed 10% reduction in the capital stock due to the financial crisis.
Highly implausible given chronic capacity underutilisation. Seems no matter what evidence you put under an economist's nose, he'll see a supply-constrained model


=============================

3. Eggertsson-Krugman's ZLB, liquidity trap, and deleveraging explanation


Perhaps this one's difficult to summarise (and I don't know the fine detail) but it seems the least coherent argument. The ZLB demarcates the limit of remedial policy. It isn't the problem itself or its cause. They need to account for the bubbles, debt etc, and nothing here seens incompatible with accounts in which they came along with growing inequality.

Plus, the problem Krugman calls political rather than economic is every bit as economic as it is political. An incoherent fudge like the so-called "synthesis" from which it derives.

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4. The structural Keynesian view of income inequality and its role in the financial crisis and the stagnation

  1. The inequality didn't cause the financial crisis.
  2. The crisis was caused by the implosion of the asset price and credit bubbles.
This, again, is like saying a car crash was caused by a collision of automobiles. The difference between a credit bubble and a boom has to do with qualified borrowers i.e. financially secure folks with adequate regular incomes. Lack of them meant money lenders bundling up good and bad mortgages in surrealist financial instruments. I mean what could possibly go wrong? Nothing, according to economists for whom money and finance are just veils over the barter economy. Who cares anyway once you've got your commissions and bonuses? Meanwhile the increasingly rich invest in ever more arcane paper assets rather than production because the real economy is demand-constrained.

  • However, once the crisis happened the financial markets ceased filling the demand gap caused by the inequality.
  • Bringing the effects of the demand gap to the fore.
  • The stagnation resulted, the joint product of the credit bubble, the financial crisis and the income inequality.
  • The credit bubble left behind a huge debt overhang, the financial crisis destroyed the credit worthiness of millions and income inequality created a structural demand shortage, removing incentives to produce and to invest.
OK.





SimpleDon said:
Why the mainstream economists have missed the effects of income inequality and the causes of the stagnation

Rajan, Kumhof and Rancière, and Krugman are all leading mainstream economists. Their associations are the University of Chicago, the IMF and MIT.

Rajan is identified with the hardcore neoliberalism of the Chicago school which views the economy as approximating textbook perfect competition, presumably in the aggregate, with minimum market failures. Government interference always produces worse outcomes. Government failure is always more costly than market failures.

The others are identified with the softcore neoliberalism of MIT. They believe in the same benchmark competitive model as the hardcore neoliberals but to them, market failures are pervasive and large and that government intervention is an acceptable solution to them. But they all argue that there is nothing wrong with the structure of the economy. Policy is claimed to do a good job remedying their effects.

All of them share a common neoclassical, mainstream theoretical view of the economy. While they differ on the extent of market failures and the effectiveness of government interference, there is one point on which they will all agree on, that the structure of the economy is solid. That the problems from the Great Financial Crisis and Recession will be over in time, no matter what is or what isn't done. That no matter what the disruptions are, that the economy will always return to an equilibrium of full employment and full capacity utilization. Even if it requires them to redefine those two terms from time to time.

This idea of a full employment equilibrium is embodied in the Arrow-Debreu competitive general equilibrium model that remains as the analytic heart of mainstream theoretical economics. The model benchmarks an ideal economy and generates the two famous welfare theorems. The first states that perfectly competitive economies, with no market or informational failures, will be Pareto efficient, that no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off, and that this is independent of the income distribution.

The second welfare theorem says that in an ideal economy there is no way, except for a lump sum tax, to redistribute income without allocative and productive inefficiencies. And a lump sum tax, charging everyone the same amount, is impossible to implement in the real world.

These theorems only apply to an ideal economy, but they bias mainstream economists into thinking incorrectly about inequality in two ways, that inequality doesn't matter for economic efficiency and that it is impossible to redress the inequality without losing efficiency.

Absolutely.

In fact every unrealistic assumption and dictionary re-definition (with which mainstream theory is replete) has the same ideological slant. It's really hard to imagine that this is just coincidence or to do with constructing tractable models.

All good points. I did the response to the "GSEs and the CRA did it" from memory. I was afraid that I was going to miss some. The fact that the UK didn't have a CRA is a very good point that was new to me. US centralism I suppose.

Of course it is not a coincidence that every assumption and theory of mainstream economic leads to the wealth flattering conclusion that the economy is constrained by supply, capital, and by inference that the holders of financial capital are the most important people in the economy. The wealthy fund the economic research, the chairs of economics in the Universities and who hire the vast majority of the graduates from the Universities.

It was Kalecki who first explained that running the economy based on his and Keynes' demand enhancing principles would eventually be replaced by the supply side policies because the rich would use their money to co-op the political economy. But even he didn't see that the rich would be so successful at corrupting the economics itself.

There can be no better proof of the ideological slant in the teaching of economics in US's Universities than the existence of the departments of economics dominated by Austrian economics. Why would any company hire an Austrian macroeconomist? Their advice could be printed on a calling card, that says "you can't predict what will happen in the economy, especially as long as statist intervention and planning are present." On the other side they could say "you know all that you need to know about the economy yourself."

The Austrian economics departments are supported for one reason only. It lends whatever academic credence that Austrian economics has to the idea that a self-regulating free market can exist.

I have a personal theory that the reason that so many of the wealthy thought that it was reasonable to debunk climate change based on the laughable proposition that 98% of all of the climate scientists in the world have colluded to enrich themselves by pushing junk science because the wealthy so easily corrupted 98% of all of the economists in the world to push junk economics.

The New Keynesians like Krugman are especially confused. On one hand they profess to accept Keynes' ideas about the economy. But they can't seem to let go of the neoclassical roots that Keynes and the people who came after Keynes disproved. They claim to embrace Keynes' central idea of effective demand but they apply it in Hick's IS-LM model which depends on loanable funds and a natural rate of interest. They accept the idea that the economy is always returning to the full employment general equilibrium.

They probably have to keep their beds in the center of the room so that they can get out of it on different sides on different days.
 
Probably because bubble management isn't the best way to run an economy.

We agree. We disagree on the means because the philosophy of the 90s and 2000s was to increase demand through a weak dollar and inflation.

The overarching economics philosophy of the 1990's and the 2000's and up to today is still the supply side, neoliberal economics of the 1980's. Intentionally increasing the incomes of the wealthy and suppressing those of everyone else to generate financial capital to drive investments, utilizing Say's law to increase demand by first increasing supply.

It has become so institutional and ubiquitous that its basic philosophy isn't even questioned even when it produces an obvious disaster like Brownback's tax cuts in Kansas did .

Neoliberal economic policies produce an economy where traditional inflation isn't a very big problem. This is because it doesn't produce the increased aggregate demand that it is suppose to from the additional financial capital available for investment that it creates. In other words it doesn't tend to produce much inflation because it doesn't produce much growth.

What these neoliberal policies do produce are massive asset bubbles, that up until the housing bubble didn't have much impact on the economy, at least until they burst. The housing bubble damaged the economy even before it burst, driving up rents in the economy and driving up housing values to unsustainable levels, and encouraging unsustainable levels of private debt, mortgages and home equity loans, that when the bubble burst magnified the damage and prolonged the resulting recession.


The attempts to reduce the value of the US dollar obviously haven't succeeded. It would help to decrease our trade deficit by making our products more competitive in the world's markets and to take some of the pressure off of our wages (and our salaries [/for Loren].) But we don't seem to be able to do it. Even in spite of the huge trade deficit that should push the dollar down by its weight alone.

I don't understand trade economics very well. I have the strong suspicion that no one does. But this failure to be able to push the value of the dollar down probably has to do some combination of the facts that the majority of trade accounts clearing is in dollars, that the dollar is seen as a safe haven and that the US's financial instruments are very desirable to the world's wealthy, who because of the spread of neoliberal economic policies are awash in cash, just like the wealthy in the US.
 
We agree. We disagree on the means because the philosophy of the 90s and 2000s was to increase demand through a weak dollar and inflation.

The overarching economics philosophy of the 1990's and the 2000's and up to today is still the supply side, neoliberal economics of the 1980's. Intentionally increasing the incomes of the wealthy and suppressing those of everyone else to generate financial capital to drive investments, utilizing Say's law to increase demand by first increasing supply.

It has become so institutional and ubiquitous that its basic philosophy isn't even questioned even when it produces an obvious disaster like Brownback's tax cuts in Kansas did .

Neoliberal economic policies produce an economy where traditional inflation isn't a very big problem. This is because it doesn't produce the increased aggregate demand that it is suppose to from the additional financial capital available for investment that it creates. In other words it doesn't tend to produce much inflation because it doesn't produce much growth.

What these neoliberal policies do produce are massive asset bubbles, that up until the housing bubble didn't have much impact on the economy, at least until they burst. The housing bubble damaged the economy even before it burst, driving up rents in the economy and driving up housing values to unsustainable levels, and encouraging unsustainable levels of private debt, mortgages and home equity loans, that when the bubble burst magnified the damage and prolonged the resulting recession.


The attempts to reduce the value of the US dollar obviously haven't succeeded. It would help to decrease our trade deficit by making our products more competitive in the world's markets and to take some of the pressure off of our wages (and our salaries [/for Loren].) But we don't seem to be able to do it. Even in spite of the huge trade deficit that should push the dollar down by its weight alone.

I don't understand trade economics very well. I have the strong suspicion that no one does. But this failure to be able to push the value of the dollar down probably has to do some combination of the facts that the majority of trade accounts clearing is in dollars, that the dollar is seen as a safe haven and that the US's financial instruments are very desirable to the world's wealthy, who because of the spread of neoliberal economic policies are awash in cash, just like the wealthy in the US.


Reagan from the 80s had a different philosophy. The first thing they did was jack up interest rates to prevent easy money and strengthen the dollar. He cut the higher marginal rates. Bush Jr's tax cuts and policy were demand driven policies, not supply policies. They framed the tax cuts as increasing pay and they were given back as a one time check for people to go spend the money. While lowering interest rates may help supply side, they are also demand driven because they want people to go out and spend using the lower interest rates. It was also the case with all the different housing policies, they wanted people to buy more and different housing. The bubble of 2007 should be known as a demand bubble.
 
Bush Jr. tax cuts gave me $4 for the year. They really were just a give away to his cronies.
 
Bush Jr. tax cuts gave me $4 for the year. They really were just a give away to his cronies.

Yours was smaller, but it was touted during the time of giving several hundreds of dollars to families and people. So it certainly was defined in terms of getting people to spend. The last major tax push that could be considered strictly supply side was the capital gains tax cuts of Clinton.
 
As you might guess, I vote #4.

I don't think globalization is so much the problem as neoliberalism. If that's the same as managed globalization, fine.
 
I don't understand trade economics very well. I have the strong suspicion that no one does. But this failure to be able to push the value of the dollar down probably has to do some combination of the facts that the majority of trade accounts clearing is in dollars, that the dollar is seen as a safe haven and that the US's financial instruments are very desirable to the world's wealthy, who because of the spread of neoliberal economic policies are awash in cash, just like the wealthy in the US.

I coincidentally ran across this paper by the same guy Palley.

Very interesting stuff.

http://www.thomaspalley.com/docs/research/theory_of_global_imbalances.pdf
 
I posted that when I was tired; but I want to summarize it, best I can.

He says that the current trade situation isn't trade in the traditional sense. He divides the world into emerging expert economies, referred to as "EM"s in the south and advanced economies as the north. Because EMs are dominated by northern capital and management(over half Chinas industry is foreign owned,) we're not faced with trade in the traditional sense. He calls it a "barge" economy. Since corps can pull up stakes and move when needed, he likens them to barges containing factories.

Traditionally, EMs currencies are constrained by either a commodity such as gold or a peg. In either case, a reserve of gold or reserve currency must be maintained. If a EM runs trade deficits, their reserves will be drained, interest rates will climb, and financing will become hard to come by. So they suppress their imports by keeping wages low.

The way this would be expected to play out, the increased prosperity would boost local consumption, resulting in decreased dependence on exports. Which would be bad news for the US and it's trade deficit.

But now there's a new constraint in the form of the "barges" relocating to lower cost areas. EMs have to stay competitive.
All of which suggests that the US will be able to run trade deficits for some time.

Why dollars are desirable appears to be due to the market size and political stability of the US.

How ENS balance trade with their new prosperity remains to be seen. Seems to me it's being worked out, on both ends, by limiting the prosperity to as few as possible.
 
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