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Logic: empirical or abstract science?

Speakpigeon

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There is an important distinction to be made between two conceptions of logic as an empirical or an abstract science.

Mathematicians who worked on the conception of a method of logic in the 19th century, Frege in particular, were essentially and explicitly motivated by the idea that a proper method of formal logic would help improve the rigour of mathematical proofs, a particular concern at the time, between the two extremes of Abel and Weierstrass. This suggests a view of logic as essentially not arbitrary and therefore as essentially empirical.

And in effect, mathematicians working on a method of logic at the time had to rely on the only empirical evidence available to them, i.e. Aristotle's syllogistic theory, plus what other people since had said on the subject, including other mathematicians, as well as their own personal intuition, as to what formulas could be accepted as logical truths, this in order to work out a method of logical calculus they could use to improve rigour of proof.

Today, on the surface, we seem to have a very different perspective, whereby logic is more often understood as essentially a mathematical object, like the set of Real numbers is, so that logic is thought of as being the methods of logic themselves that mathematicians have contrived since Frege. In this perspective, logic is no longer seen as an essentially empirical science, but as the motley collection of theories, seen as arbitrary at least in principle, that mathematicians are working on as objects of study rather than as methods they could use to improve the rigour of proofs.

Meanwhile, mathematicians themselves still essentially use and effectively rely on their own, intuitive, sense of logic to prove theorems, producing what can be described in effect as semi-formal proofs.

The few examples of formal logic being used to prove theorems today all rely on some variation of Gentzen's "natural" method of proof (conceived between 1929 and 1935), which is essentially a modern generalisation of Aristotle, and a method which effectively relies on the crucial use of so-called rules of inference, which are formulas all essentially taken from the set of formulas long recognised as logical truths in the Aristotelian tradition, save a few exceptions.

So, in effect, all current practice of mathematical proof, be it intuitive or making use of theorem provers, like Isabel in Germany and Coq in France, still literally relies ultimately on the empirical evidence available to mathematicians that some logical truths are evidently true. Yet, the fundamentally empirical nature of the logic practised by mathematicians themselves, today as always since Euclid, is somewhat airbrushed out of the picture in favour of a more abstract notion of it.
EB
 
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Mathematical logic and mechanical reasoning have turned out to be largely irrelevant to the practice of mathematics, and to our philosophical understanding of the nature of that practice. (...)
it is by now clear that mathematical logic, together with its formalized, mechanistic proofs in which every step conforms to a recognized rule of that logic, is of no mathematical interest. Such proofs do not advance mathematical understanding; they are not more rigorous than the informal proofs that mathematicians actually produce; and very often they are simply unintelligible.

From, Reasoning In Mathematics and Machines: The Place of Mathematical Logic in Mathematical Understanding by Danielle Macbeth, Haverford, Philosophy Department

Well, this sounds like the situation is even worse than what I say here myself... :(

Mathematical logic, which, as Burgess points out, "was developed . . . as an extension of traditional logic mainly, if not solely, about proof procedures in mathematics"

Same.

Pretty much what I say here myself; perhaps less... scholarly. :sadyes:


Certainly it is true that having the ability to manipulate symbols according to rules, which is what machines can do and what is needed to do mathematical logic, is not to be able to do mathematics.

Same.

This says that mathematicians do something else than apply whatever they may know and understand of formal logic and its rules and procedures. And yet, mathematical proofs are fully logical. Thus, it is necessary to admit that mathematicians apply instead something like their logical intuition, something not magical but made possible by the inherent logical capabilities of the human brain.

We're getting there.

The same, talking about one reasoning, as reported by Euclid:
That is, we are simply to see, as it were with the mind's eye, that if each summand has a half part then the sum does as well. And this is, admittedly, very easy to see; but it is not by logic alone, or any antecedently specified step of mathematical reasoning, that we see this. It is an intuitively obvious step of reasoning but nevertheless one that is not justified by any rule.

Right. We're home. :cool:

It is an intuitively obvious step of reasoning but nevertheless one that is not justified by any rule.

Whoa. Spooky.

I can assure you, it's not me talking here, and it's the very first time I read her prose...
EB
 
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