He did not say light was not afferent. He said the eyes were not afferent. ... To the degree that light is our visual connection, it is 100% necessary for the biological vision process to occur because it allows the object and its reflection to be at our photo-receptors in real time, which the brain then uses to think, categorize, and integrate into a form that can be used to understand the world around us.
He needn't have bothered saying the eyes are not afferent, because the eyes are not inwardly traveling. That means the eyes are as afferent as are the ears. The issue with afferent vision regards the light and whether it travels inwardly to contribute to the process which results in vision. You admit that the light travels inwardly to contribute to the process which results in vision; you admit that the light is afferent, and you admit that it is necessary for light to be afferent in order for vision to occur. Therefore, you admit that vision is not (only) efferent.
Your "in real time" addendum contributes nothing to the understanding about how vision occurs - as will now be discussed.
The fact that light energy travels inwardly, the fact that light energy travels into the body, means that the identical light energy is not at the photo-receptors and at the brain for processing at the same time - if there is any distinction at all between the photo-receptors and the brain. Even if you regard the photo-receptors as part of the brain, it is not the photo-receptors which do the processing which produces thinking, categorizing, etc. The photo-receptor processing is prior to the processing which occurs deeper within the brain to produce the related thinking. This "prior to" fact means that there is some amount of delay associated with light afference. No reason has been provided for thinking that the delay necessarily associated with light traveling inside the body is absent with regards to light outside the body. Indeed, if light travels without delay, then it is in no way sensible to say that light travels at all. And we're right back to the presentism according to which nothing travels since there are no delays because time is necessary for there to be a delay and there supposedly is no time, there is only the present timeless-space.
All that being said, we have progressed with your admission that light traveling afferently is absolutely necessary for vision to occur.
Now the issue switches to the matter of there being a delay, what would be described as a time lapse, during the process which effects, among other products, vision. As is the case with all processes, that vision-producing process occurs non-instantly, but how can that be if there is no time? If light travels non-instantly within the body, what reason is there for thinking that light does not travel non-instantly to the body?
The brain uses what it sees, through the eyes, in real time ... the same way the brain would use what is reconstructed in delayed time.
That would indicate that seeing "in real time" and seeing non-instantly are indistinguishable - except for the fact that seeing non-instantly is far more explicable. This means that with regards to seeing, the "real time" version of seeing neither presents nor solves previously unrecognized problems with the non-instant understanding, nor is the "real time" version more complete than is the non-instant version. Consequently, the "real time" version does not present a reason for why the non-instant understanding should be either abandoned or modified to incorporate insight from the "real time" notion. Without providing such reason, the "real time" contention fails to be presented as possibly true. Such reason need not be proved to be actual in order to be considered possible, but, absent any such reason, the "real time" notion has not yet achieved the status of being possible. To be possible, it is not sufficient that a notion be a concept or a contention.
It is very much supported that these two models of sight --- afferent and efferent --- are defined in a way that makes them incompatible when it comes to rational thinking. ... In regard to his claim, it can't be both afferent and efferent. It has to be one or the other. We see in delayed time, or we don't.
If afferent and efferent are necessarily incompatible, even if only as a result of some asserted definition(s), then, when you agreed that afference is necessary for vision to occur, you concurrently denied that vision is a matter of efference. Since you also rightly associate vision as a matter of afference with delayed time, and since you hold that vision can be only afferent (delayed) or only efferent (non-delayed), you necessarily believe that a delay is associated with vision.