It isn't. Labor obeys the laws of supply and demand just like anything else. Welcome to reality-based economics.
So... why are you treating putting up the cost of labour as a market distortion, but not the putting up of a product price? Or is it just a market distortion when it doesn't fit your model?
I think you missed my point - why are you treating the minimum wage as different from any other form of price setting?
No, I understand what's going on just fine.
I think you got the point, and dismal missed it.
I'm not sure that really makes sense. The underlying demand is there, but suppressed by higher prices triggered by lack of competition. In other words, firms are reaping extra profit by raising prices. But a scenario where profits are high, competition is low, demand is captive, and there is a large pool of ready-trained employees, is ripe for new entrants into the market. It doesn't sound like a new equilibrium at all.
But, remember, the profit isn't extra because they are paying higher labor costs.
But that isn't, under your account, what drives up the price. What drives up the price is the number of firms that go out of business. That reduces completion, which increases the price. The price increase in your account is entirely dependent on market exit, and not connected in any way to an increased wage bill.
[What we are seeing is a return to a similar average profit, but with fewer firms left in the market.
Can't be - there's nothing to drive that equivalence. You want to say that the increased profit you described only serves to balance out the increase in the wages paid, but as the two aren't in any way connected, there's no justification for that.
The only way to restore a market equilibrium is to balance out the loss of competition with more competition (market entry), or reduced profits. You're leaving a gap in the market - either that gets filled, or competition between existing market participants gets fiercer to close the gap, which means lowering profits to compete on price.
What your scenario of the market settling down with higher average price and fewer participant relies on is nothing to do with completion, or indeed much to do with economics. It's an unsubstantiated claim that a minimum wage hike will be of a sufficiently large reduction in the profitability of the industry sector, that it will reduce the number of participants by making the market less attractive. It's nothing to do with relationships between the variables, and everything to do with an assumption of the scale of the impact. After all, the people you're arguing with agree with you that profitability will go down. All you're arguing is that lowering profitability and higher wages is a bad thing.
What I don't understand is that, in your analysis, you're portraying increased automation and the closure of loss-making companies as bad outcomes. Doesn't that actually improve the economy overall?
It's bad for the employees who are out a job or have had their hours reduced to part-time.
Sure. But people in marginally profitable and less able companies losing their jobs is a basic feature of capitalism. The capital gets redeployed and in the long it's better for everyone. Either you are for this process, or your are not.
Also, the overall effect on the economy is negative (since there will be less output as a result of the higher costs)
Sorry, can you show your working? How are you calculating that the positive effects of the wage increase are less than the negative effects of reduced profitability? Because that's just an ideological position, no?