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Millionaires who want to pay higher taxes

Rich people are often good at framing issues as if money grows on rich people.

Extremely top heavy income (or wealth) distributions tend to shrink the size of the economic pie. The 1% (or, more accurately, 0.1%) at current levels of inequality are an economic burden. Not white knights who will alleviate it with their tax-paying beneficence.

I wouldn't refer to the patriotic millionaires as necessarily beneficent, but they would certainly agree with the first two sentences of your post. That's the point of their movement. They actually asked Congress not to give them the Trump tax breaks. Their opinions certainly hold some weight, considering that they are the ones most impacted by these tax cuts, that they didn't even want.
 
There isn't any objective answer to this, based on the proper amount of saving, or spending. What would be the principle of economics proclaiming what is the proper level of spending or saving?
There is the  Golden_Rule_savings_rate if economic growth is the goal.

"Economic growth" -- e.g., more bridges to nowhere, wall-to-wall factories, etc. -- is not the goal. Some "growth" is good, other "growth" is waste. "The goal" has to be something good only, not waste.
Either you did not read the link or you have a severe reading comprehension deficit, because your response has nothing whatsoever to do with the Golden Rule of Saving in economic theory. In summary, the golden rule is the saving rate that maximizes sustainable per capita consumption.
 
Why should wages be propped up artificially high, rather than set by the law of supply-and-demand like all other prices?

. . . there is no logical theory why driving up the wage level should lead to anything but bad consequences. It contradicts the law of supply-and-demand which sets the prices/values at the point where the supply and demand curves intersect, at the lowest level at which workers will offer their labor and the highest level employers must pay in order to attract the needed labor.

Artificially boosting the price of anything, including wages, only leads to higher cost of production and thus higher prices consumers must pay. These higher prices then drive down the demand, thus offsetting any higher demand caused by higher wages.

If there is an inequality of wealth needing to be corrected, the correction is not to artificially drive up the wages, or the labor cost, which only hurts all consumers. Rather, the correction needed is some form of higher taxes on the wealthy and lower taxes on the middle- and lower-income levels.

Restricting competition in any form, including wage competition, can only make the overall economy worse, by the damage it inflicts onto the entire population = all consumers.

You failed to include another cost of production in your discussion and it makes all of the difference and explains the confusion that exists above. That cost of production is the profits that go to the owners of the business. In almost all businesses the profit is the residual left over after all of the other costs of production are accounted for. This means that when the costs go up the profit goes down, and . . .

No. Cost could go up in order to improve the production, and then this improvement causes the profit to go up even higher. So you have to explain which cost is going up and why, before you pronounce that any higher cost automatically means lower profit. It might in some cases, but it depends on why the cost went up.

. . . and if costs go down, profits go up.

Again, in many cases that happens. But not if the reason for the lower cost is that you lose an important supplier, so that cost disappears, while at the same time the production suffers from that loss and the revenue decreases more than that cost decrease. So you can't just say any cost decrease automatically means a profit increase.

This means that when wages go up, then profits go down.

No, if the wages went up in order to hire superior workers who improve the product and thus the profit, then the profit goes up with the higher wages.

When wages go down, profits go up.

Always? No, that's unintelligible. E.g., if it's true that higher wages always cause lower profit, then there would be zero wages always and businesses would never hire anyone, because any increase in wages always must result in lower profit, so that it's impossible for any business to hire anyone. No business does something which automatically reduces its profit.

So everything you're saying is incoherent. Figure out what point you're trying to make and then say it coherently. It is incoherent when you say that business always reduces its profit if it hires anyone or increases wages.


You must believe that businesses have control over the prices that they charge for their products and when they have costs that go up they are free to increase their prices.

It's not that they're "free to" do this -- they do it out of necessity, and also reduce their production, all else being equal. Those not able to make such adjustment go out of business. It is a "free choice" they make, but that doesn't mean there is nothing driving them to make that choice.


Most of the people here believe the opposite that businesses have no control over the prices of their products because the prices are set by competition in the market through the mechanism of supply and demand.

It's both -- the prices are set by competition, and the businesses do have "control" as they are forced to increase prices and reduce production, as a result of the higher cost, and they try to calculate how much to increase price or reduce production in order to maximize their profit (or minimize their loss). They are "free" to calculate and judge this, but if they make a mistake, they're not "free" to escape the negative consequences. If they come close to raising (or lowering) the price the right amount, then they probably still do OK and make some profit, but they do better as their calculation comes closer to the ideal correct price.

The mechanism of supply-and-demand forces ALL the producers to increase their prices and reduce their production in response to higher cost. I.e., if all else remains the same and the only variable is an increasing cost, then the producers must increase their price and reduce their output. Some of the least competitive are driven out of business by the higher cost. That higher cost causes higher price does not mean that there is no competition also setting the prices. That the businesses have "control" does not mean there are no forces on them driving them to increase or lower the price.


This is a precondition for the belief in the fantasy of the self-regulating free market.

No, it's your misstatement of the belief. That "prices are set by competition in the market" does not mean the seller has no choice or control. It means that the seller's decision on price is based on the supply-and-demand conditions of the market, which the business tries to identify, or measure, and from this the decisions are made. When they miscalculate these market conditions and make a bad decision, this can be costly or disastrous for the business.


Like so many things, in reality, not as straightforward as either of these two choices.

Then stop misstating them. The market conditions are what the seller uses for guidance in setting the prices. The decisions are made, but these decisions are dictated by the market conditions, so the business is not "free" to make mistakes without suffering bad consequences.


The vast majority, 75 to 80%, of businesses do set their prices based on their costs, called cost-plus, markup or . . .

They set them based also on the demand. If the demand goes higher, they raise the price, even at the same cost level.

. . . markup or administered pricing, and they aren't set by the market and supply and demand, especially for . . .

You're contradicting yourself. If they set price according to "costs, called cost-plus, markup or administered pricing," that's all based on market supply-and-demand which dictates this pricing. There's no basis for any "cost-plus" or "administered pricing" etc. other than according to supply-and-demand. You are twisting yourself into word puzzles with this rhetoric.

. . . especially for reproducible products, i.e., manufactured goods.

The supply-and-demand mechanism applies to everything which is bought or sold. It is Wackadoodle Economics to preach that manufactured goods or anything else are immune to supply-and-demand. There's nothing in published economics saying that manufactured goods are exempt from the law of supply-and-demand. You are creating your own warped laws of economics by suggesting that supply-and-demand does not apply to certain kinds of production.

It's OK to come up with your own personal theories of economics, but if you can't give any reasoning for it, but just pontificate it with incoherent word-puzzle rhetoric, don't expect anyone to accept it, on your authority. You can't cite any source for these wacko theories. Just your own pronouncements, for which you're not giving any reasons.


Reproducible goods are characterized by constant or even diminishing marginal variable costs resulting in lower per-unit costs or to put it another way, a lower average cost of production.

And resulting in lower price (for the more efficient producer achieving that higher volume at reduced unit cost). Whatever causes a lower cost always results in lower price (all else being equal), because of supply-and-demand. The "economies of scale" or cost-savings > lower price is consistent with the point that prices are determined by supply-and-demand.

Supply-and-demand does not mean that all producers charge the same price. Some less efficient ones charge higher price in order to make a profit, and some of them are driven out by the competition. Just because the market favors the more efficient producers does not mean that all the inefficient producers must disappear. Some of them keep going as long as there is sufficient demand. The penalty they suffer is that their profit goes lower, not necessarily that they get extinguished.


For this reason, most businesses set their prices at a point that keeps their production filled and their production facilities working to generate the return on the investment that they made.

That's just alternative verbiage for saying that the prices are based on supply-and-demand, assuming your sentence is not jibberish.

If you're saying most businesses have excess facilities and just crank these up to maximum output, regardless of any demand, you're deluded. They are forced to liquidate facilities which are unprofitable or too costly.


If the price for their products is too high, they will make a higher profit on each that they sell, but they could lose money over the whole year because they didn't sell enough products to cover their fixed costs. If they set their prices too low, they will fill up their factories, but they could be losing money on each one that they sell. What this means is there is an obsession with the sales figures. They always want to increase sales and to maintain the prices that they set.

No, not if that means lower profit, which is sometimes the case.

What "they always want" is to maximize their profit, which sometimes means lowering the price, due to low demand or to increased supply. You can't name a case where they maintain a price at a high level while the demand decreases or supply increases, because this would lower their profit, which they never want to do.


Supply and demand don't set the prices, but the business is still constrained in the price that they set because of their need to provide profits to the owners corresponding to the investment made.

Your phrase "Supply and demand don't set the prices" contradicts your next phrase "the business is still constrained . . ." because the only way to "provide profits" is to adjust the price according to the supply-and-demand. If the demand decreases (or supply increases), the way they "provide profits" is by decreasing the price. You're giving nothing here to show that supply-and-demand is not setting the price. You need to stop just making pronouncements that supply-and-demand doesn't set the price, and give a reason that it doesn't, or say how you know it doesn't. Just pronouncing this over and over doesn't make it so.


If you are a neoclassical economist you would have been taught that there are indifference curves were consumers faced with higher prices for products that they regularly buy will switch to buying entirely different products that give them the same utility as the switched-from product did at the old price but doesn't give at the new higher price. If you think that this is questionable then you value reality over theory and ideology.

There's a point in there somewhere, but it's unrelated to our question: Are there any prices (e.g. the price for labor) in the market economy which are not (or should not be) set by supply-and-demand? You claim there are, or that supply-and-demand does not apply to some things bought and sold (like labor?), but your attempt to show examples of this are based on incoherent Wackadoodle Economics only.


Yes, increasing wages does increase effective demand in the economy.

When that's true it also causes higher prices. Unless the higher wage is due to higher performance by only the select workers who got this increased wage.

But if you just mean increasing wages to ALL workers as a class, then it also means higher prices, which then leads to decreased demand as the real value of the money decreases. As the money is inflated higher and higher, the real income goes back down, and the demand decreases, despite the higher nominal wage.


The more money that spent into the economy, the more growth there will be in the economy.

E.g., more bridges to nowhere = more spending = more "growth" in the economy.

What is this supposed to prove? If the premise is that "growth" is always desirable, then it means more bridges to nowhere and other waste is desirable, because all wasteful spending is more "growth."

No, you have to find something more basic as your premise than simply the "growth" slogan. "Growth" only means increased money spent, more dollars, which includes waste. You still have to distinguish between good spending and wasteful spending. E.g., much of China's spectacular "growth" is waste, to the point of building entire cities which remain unpopulated.


Higher wages will provide this increase in economic activity because . . .

Presumably you mean desirable "economic activity" as opposed to bridges to nowhere. Such improved output happens only if the higher wages are paid in return for improved performance and better output. Whereas increasing wages to all workers as a class does not result in any improvement in the economy or increased "economic activity."

. . . because the alternative to higher wages is higher profits, not lower prices.

Again, your platitude that lower wage means higher profit would mean that every company should eliminate all its workers, in order to reduce its labor cost to zero. Because any lowering the wage always results in still higher profit. So the optimum wage level is zero, to maximize profit.

In addition to that incoherent babble, it is Nutball Economics to say that higher labor cost does not lead to higher price. EVERY cost of production leads to higher price, all else being equal.

Rather than your kookoo platitude that any wage increase is a profit decrease, the truth is that some wage increases are also beneficial to the company by causing an improvement in its production and thus higher profit, and the capitalists know when a wage increase is beneficial to production and when it is not.

A company might increase wages to some workers who are more valuable, and as a result it will get better performance, or at least retain those superior workers, in order to increase profit or maintain it at a desired high level. So sometimes higher wage > higher profit, in the case of superior workers who produce more value. But not just to increase wages to ALL the workers as a class. That's Crybaby Economics 1A, which is your specialty.


(this Wall of Text to be continued)
 
What I find rather disappointing are those who don't think that millionaires have the right to influence their peers to pay higher taxes.
Who are you talking about? Who the heck indicated that millionaires don't have the right to influence their peers to pay higher taxes? We have free speech in this country. Even PyramidHead has the right to try to influence people to kick out the capitalists, even though he knows perfectly well that every time a society did this it was a disaster for the people who remained; Warren Buffett certainly has the right to argue for higher taxes on the rich. Are you perhaps mistaking people saying Buffett is wrong for people denying his right to influence his peers? Do you feel his right to speak his mind is incompatible with other people's right to speak theirs?

There will always be some very greedy people
So if a person wants his own money to be used to pay for the things he cares about, that means he's greedy? But if he wants other people's money to be used to pay for the things he cares about, that means he's not greedy? Or is greed for other people's earnings the good kind of greed while greed for your own earnings is the bad kind of greed?

who don't feel they should contribute more to the country that has enabled their success,
But even without a tax hike, they have already contributed more to the country that has enabled their success, three times over. Once, by providing more goods and services to others -- the goods and services that caused us others to decide to pay them more. A second time, by being taxed more on their higher incomes, even though the fire trucks take as long to get to their houses and the public school teachers don't spend extra time on their kids. And a third time, by being taxed at a discriminatory higher rate on their incomes, so they have to spend more of their lives serving the government than the rest of us have to. Why do feel you and your ingroup are still owed a fourth "contribute more"? You've already indicated that you don't want all of their earnings to be taken. So how much will be enough to satisfy your nongreed?
 
Why should wages be propped up artificially high, rather than set by the law of supply-and-demand like all other prices?

(continued from previous Wall of Text)


And profits go to already-rich who save a much larger percentage of their income.

It's irrelevant if someone saves more/spends less or saves less/spends more. There is no reason to give any kind of preference to those who spend more, as if they are doing the economy a favor by spending their money rather than saving it. They are not doing any social benefit by spending their money rather than saving it.

There is no economic benefit served by promoting more spending in preference to saving. There is no benefit from redistributing money away from those who save it to those who spend it. The theory that this is beneficial is Left-wing Quackanomics only. It's true that professional Left-wing economists promote this theory, and that it's popular among the idiot masses. So it's not basic economics, supported by any kind of reasoning or data, and at best it can go in the "Pop Economics" category.

There is no harm to the economy if some (or many) put their money into their mattress and just leave it there. The idea that this hurts the economy is delusion and even borderline mental retardation on the part of those believing it. It does not matter whether a person with money spends it or saves it or stuffs it into a mattress. Even if vast numbers of people do the latter, the only result is that the money in circulation might decrease, and so there would be some deflation, and perhaps a need to increase the money in circulation, "print money," etc.


As always you offer a unique view of economics with no arguments support it.

Samuelson's Economics shows the basic supply-and-demand curve, which is the basis for everything I'm saying. It says there is a maximum desired point at which the price for anything becomes too high. The proper price is where the supply and demand curves intersect. This applies to labor or anything else that is bought or sold. Of course many economists suggest that wage-earners could be made an exception and be paid a little higher than at this point on the graph. So I'm rejecting them and asking why wages should be made an exception to the rule. This rule applies to EVERYthing bought and sold, and so why not also to wages/labor? And you are not giving any answer to this, nor citing any economist who gives a good answer.

Economists who suggest paying wage-earners higher than the supply-and-demand market level advocate this only to win applause from the idiot masses.


You are arguing that the economy is a zero-sum game, incapable of growth and it isn't.

Of course it's capable of more "growth" -- more bridges to nowhere would be more "growth" in the economy. There are millions of ways to waste resources, like "bringing back the factories" and other delusions to promote "jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs!" and get demagogues elected to preach meaningless slogans to the idiot masses. I've never argued that the economy is incapable of wasting resources which can be called "growth."


The normal complaint that I hear from people when I advocate for higher wages to reduce profits is that it will increase inflation. This is the exact opposite of what you believe will happen. Inflation will only happen if increased wages increase demand and economic activity and . . .

No, the "economic activity" will not increase as a result of increased wages. What will happen is that the artificially-increased wages will cause higher demand and thus higher prices, before any new economic activity. The higher prices, inflation, will drive the demand back down, and so there is nothing to cause increased economic activity or increased production as a result of higher wages throughout the economy. The real benefit of higher wages in certain cases when it's appropriate is improved production because the particular workers receiving the higher wage are superior workers who have more value or whose value has increased.

. . . only happen if increased wages increase demand and economic activity and it will only be a bigger problem for our economy if this increase in demand and economic activity from increased wages is greater . . .

No, there will be no increase in "economic activity" from increased wages -- stop saying this. The higher wages cause only increased demand and thus higher prices, not any increase in "economic activity."

. . . is greater than the economic activity generated by the profits that are lost to higher wages.

Again you're repeating the wacky notion that lower wages produce higher profit, and so reducing wages to zero would produce the most profit, which means every company should eliminate all its workers in order to maximize its profit. You don't really believe this, but this is what you're saying, because you're not forming coherent sentences to express what you really think, or maybe what you're thinking is delusional. It's delusional to pronounce that higher wages must cause lower profit and lower wages must cause higher profit. You first have to clean that up and state a coherent rule about when wages should increase and when they should decrease, or when raising them causes higher profit and when it causes lower profit.

As long as you're limited to the crybaby dogma that wages always have to increase because employers must stop being so selfish, then it's all just employer-bashing demagoguery to win applause from the idiot masses.


But you are also arguing that higher wages will increase costs over what we see now.

If you mean ALL wages being increased, not based on better performance by workers but just out of pity for ALL workers as a class -- yes, that would mean higher production cost and higher prices in order to pay for it. The prices must be high enough to cover all the production costs. Higher labor cost with no improvement in performance or production necessarily causes higher prices to all, plus reduced production, and thus lower standard of living.


This increase in prices is the very definition of inflation. So you are arguing that higher wages won't create higher demand, . . .

You mean higher wages to ALL workers as a class, not based on improved performance of workers? like minimum wage increase?

That will create higher demand, immediately, driving up prices, before any new production, causing nothing but inflation.

. . . but increased wages will create inflation. These two are incapable of each other. Please explain.

The higher wages increase the demand by those to be paid the higher wages, because they gain more spending power. This new market demand then leads to higher prices. You don't understand that higher demand > higher prices?

Also higher labor cost is a cost of production, which must be paid for, and the only way to pay for a higher cost which produces no improvement in the production is to increase the price for the product. You're supposing a higher production cost which is done not to improve the production but just for the higher wage as an end in itself, to win applause from the mass of wage-earners. So the same production as before is made more expensive by your artificial increase in labor cost, leading to higher prices to pay this cost. It's the higher demand which then causes the higher prices, i.e., inflation. The two go together.

So the inflation is caused both by the higher demand from those workers paid the higher wages, and also by the higher cost of production caused by the higher wages, which has to be paid for by the companies employing them. And this increased cost to producers-employers is passed on (at least partly) to consumers in the form of higher prices


Yes, if we raise wages, we have the risk of higher inflation because higher wages increase demand and economic activity and . . .

No, stop repeating that -- they do NOT increase "economic activity" because the higher prices then drive the demand back down, before any new production. Higher prices = lower real income = lower demand.

. . . economic activity and growth compared to the same amount of money going to profits. But if we raise wages in a year less than growth and productivity improvements, the same, then we will avoid increasing inflation.

Even if there's the "growth and productivity improvements" to drive profit higher, it is still the case that indiscriminate higher wages to all the workers as a class drives up the prices higher than they would be otherwise. There are always other factors which could drive the prices downward, while the artificially-higher wages drive them higher. Regardless of the other factors pressuring wages up or down, the artificially-higher wages push the prices up. I.e., up higher than they would have been without that unnecessary higher labor cost.

The current strategy of increasing profits has killed gains in productivity.

There's nothing "current" about the strategy of increasing profits. It is ALWAYS the strategy to increase profits. There's never a time when increasing profits has not been the strategy. Whether there were soaring gains in productivity, or there was productivity stagnation, there was always the same strategy to increase profits. This strategy has never been absent.


As a result, the inflation that we have now is largely profit inflation. We have made higher profits so easy to obtain that companies don't have to work hard for them.

If this makes any sense, then all that's necessary is for everyone to start a company and start raking in millions, and we'll all be rich. So if you're right, continue making profits easy to obtain, or make profits even easier to obtain, and then everyone will get rich creating their companies and raking in all those easy profits. So instead of whining, just go start your company and get rich, since it's so easy for anyone to do and to obtain the profits without working hard.

It's nonsensical to say "companies don't have to work hard for them." You need to come up with more than this kind of crybaby rhetoric. Some companies do struggle and work hard to obtain a little more profit. You have to distinguish these from some others which seem to obtain profit easily. Corporate welfare and other routes to profit do make it easy in some cases. You could address that if you want to complain about inappropriate profit-making. WHICH companies "don't have to work hard for" the profits?


There is no reason to believe that consumers are benefiting from lower prices for goods and services so much that this effect justifies the loss in wages to the low wage countries.

There's no "loss" to anyone. Improved production, or less costly production, necessarily benefits everyone, no matter who is getting paid what wages. Lower cost production benefits 300 million U.S. consumers, or the whole country. Just as with automation there are some workers who are replaced, and yet we're all better off, so also we're all better off from the workers being replaced by cheap labor. Even the replaced worker benefits from the improvements overall, the labor-saving technology, the lower costs, the increased total production. It's only a tiny few who are made worse off for a short time because they're replaced. But eventually they're all made better off by the overall improved production throughout the economy.


The inflation rate has been positive indicating increases in prices except for the first two years of the Bush II depression. Whatever price relief that consumers have felt from their jobs shipped to Red China have been completely wiped out by just two price increases, in housing and in college for their children.

Those are not caused by anything to do with what the wage level should be. We're all better off that the more costly production was shipped to China where it could be done at lower cost and thus benefit to 300 million U.S. consumers. Other issues like high housing costs and higher college costs are separate problems which exist anyway, regardless of the changes in the demand for labor.


The increase in housing costs is directly attributed to the income inequality as the rich drive up real estate prices and rents to try to generate returns for the vast amount of financial capital they have been provided under neoliberalism, and the costs of a college education have gone up to provide the already rich with tax relief. And the consumers have seen price increases in more than just these two areas, most notably in health care.

None of that has anything to do with what the value of labor is, or what the price for labor should be, or whether labor or anything else of value is exempt from the law of supply-and-demand. Driving up the cost of labor, and with this the prices all consumers have to pay, will do nothing to solve problems with housing or health care or education, etc.


I don't know what you are talking about "in the 1920s the effort was made to implement this dogma of higher wages" that turned the Great Depression into a depression rather than a milder recession.

A normal recession follows a stock market crash, but what followed the 1929 crash was not normal. We have unusual factors in the 1920s which likely caused the 1929-30 recession to turn out much worse than that of earlier crashes in the economy, like that of 1921 and 1893, which played out as normal recovery periods following a crash, without the severe results which happened in the 1930s.

It cannot be proved with certainty what caused what. But the empirical evidence is that unprecedented factors of the 1920s and early 30s caused the recession to turn into something much worse than a normal recession following a crash. It's reasonable to look for something different which happened before the crash and just after it to explain what made this recession so much worse than the earlier ones following a crash.


The financial sector is inherently unstable, and the crashes that the financial sector produces are much more likely to result in a depression, a deeper and longer recession.

The "financial sector" was not significantly less stable in the lead-up to the '29 crash than in earlier crashes. There's always the same instability and out-of-control speculation. The financial crisis typically causes the crash and recession, but there are other factors adding to the damage, prolonging it, or making it worse. We can identify these additional factors contributing to the 1930s recession/depression, and they give a reasonable explanation why this recession turned out much worse.


This is because a crash from financial sector malfeasance shakes the mechanism of capitalism in its core and completely drys up credit for investment and consumption. What caused the Great Depression, excessive leverage in the stock market that lead to the total collapse of the market when lower stock valuations caused stockholders to have to sell their stocks, resulting in ever lower stock valuation.

But those same factors were also present in all the previous crashes. This doesn't explain why the 1930s recession would be much worse than the many earlier ones following a crash. Under normal conditions the economy always recovered, usually in only 2-3 years, or sometimes it dragged on longer. But there was never such a prolonged period of high unemployment and bankruptcies and stagnation that happened in the 1930s.


It had nothing to do with your imagined experiment in raising wages or little to do with Smoot-Hawley tariffs.

All the negative factors do their damage to the economy. There's no one single factor which causes all the damage. The out-of-control speculation ended, and yet the damage continued on for many years. There must be more which caused this than just the stock-market speculation which ended after the '29 crash. All that did was trigger the immediate recession. It doesn't explain why the economy still suffered for so much longer.


The latter wasn't a very good idea at the time but it didn't cause the Great Depression and it was a depression before the tariffs were passed.

No, the higher tariffs began in the 1920s, and then the Smoot-Hawley tariffs in the early 30s made it worse still. The tariff increases in the 1920s were about the worst, or 2nd worst, historically, likely contributing to the Depression, causing it to be worse than normal after a crash. Obviously the stock market crash would have happened anyway, like so many earlier ones, but this time it was followed by a much worse recession/depression than ever before.


While the US did have a small trade surplus before the passage of the Smoot-Hawley Tariffs the absolute amount of money from trade was a very small part of the nation's total GDP to matter.

It's possible the impact from the higher tariffs was minor compared to the other factors. But its impact was negative and added further damage to the economy, rather than creating net benefit because of the higher wage and protection of U.S. jobs. The percent of the economy due to trade has increased since then, to 3 or 4 times greater than that in the 1920s. The smaller percent does not mean the impact was insignificant. Trump's anti-trade tariffs have done significant damage to many companies and farmers today, though the total impact is small as a percent of the GDP.

A Depression or other major disruption in the economy is generally due to many factors rather than only one. Many factors add together, some of them small, but all adding to the total damage. You can always pounce on one only and say it's not that significant. A normal stock market crash with no other faults in the economy would not have produced the Great Depression.


Hoover did try to talk employers into retaining workers that they didn't need but no one listened to him.

They did listen to him, and did what he asked. There were no major wage cuts in the year after the '29 crash, though there had always been in every earlier crash.

Hoover's pro-labor stance helped cause Great Depression, UCLA economist says

Pro-labor policies pushed by President Herbert Hoover after the stock market crash of 1929 accounted for close to two-thirds of the drop in the nation's gross domestic product over the two years that followed, causing what might otherwise have been a bad recession to slip into the Great Depression, a UCLA economist concludes in a new study.

"These findings suggest that the recession was three times worse — at a minimum — than it would otherwise have been, because of Hoover," said Lee E. Ohanian, a UCLA professor of economics.

The policies, which included both propping up wages and encouraging job-sharing, also accounted for more than two-thirds of the precipitous decline in hours worked in the manufacturing sector, which was much harder hit initially than the agricultural sector, according to Ohanian.

"By keeping industrial wages too high, Hoover sharply depressed employment beyond where it otherwise would have been, and that act drove down the overall gross national product," Ohanian said. "His policy was the single most important event in precipitating the Great Depression."

The findings are slated to appear in the December issue of the peer-reviewed Journal of Economic Theory and were posted today on the website of the National Bureau of Economic Research (www.nber.org) as a working paper.

Hoover's approach is unlikely to be considered today as a means of responding to economic crisis, but it does illustrate the perils of ill-conceived government policies in times of economic upheaval and confusion, says Ohanian, a macroeconomist who specializes in economic crises.

"Hoover's response illustrates the danger of knee-jerk policy reactions in a time of crisis," he said. "Almost always when bad policies are adopted, it's during a period of crisis. The real risk is picking a cure that turns out to be worse than the disease."

While economists have long debated the factors that led to the Great Depression, Ohanian's findings are novel because they don't simply pinpoint — they also quantify — the considerable impact of such labor-market distortions. The findings also challenge Hoover's pro-market reputation.

"This was a president who had served as secretary of commerce under his predecessor, yet many of the mistakes he made were remarkably similar to those later made by Franklin D. Roosevelt, whose reputation is much less market-based and more pro-labor," Ohanian said.
http://newsroom.ucla.edu/releases/pandering-to-labor-caused-great-91447

Those companies/employers accepted the theory that higher wages were necessary to keep the demand high in order to stimulate the economy and bring a recovery. Industrialists at the time really bought into this theory, but it was discredited by the events which followed.

Let's assume the above calculation of a 2/3 drop in GDP, caused by Hoover's policy, is an exaggeration. There's probably no way to calculate accurately how much damage was done by the pro-labor policy, adding further harm than normal following a stock market crash. But the evidence shows that the propping-up-wages theory is false, making the "cure" worse than the disease, and is based only on the populist demagoguery of telling the idiot masses what they want to hear. Politicians and economists and others who preached this false doctrine won much cheap applause, and votes, and higher scores in the popularity polls, which is obviously the reason they preached it. It was not based on anything scientific or factual.


It is a bad idea to set absolute wage levels. It is a much worse idea to do everything possible to suppress wages to increase profits and the incomes of the already rich, . . .

What's a good idea is to let both the buyers (employers) and sellers (wage-earners) make whatever demands they wish, and let each and all of them make their own individual choice of how much to demand, or how much or little to pay, how desperate they are to get a better deal. Every buyer and seller is entitled to shop for a better deal, i.e., a higher price (sellers) or lower price (buyers), in order to maximize their gain/profit/income. Allowing this competition by buyers and sellers with no outside interference ends up producing the best prices for optimum performance and production to the benefit of consumers. And serving 300 million consumers -- the whole country -- is the goal of it all. Not providing babysitting slots for job-seekers, or providing corporate welfare to employers to get them to hire more crybabies, like some Right- and Left-wing politicians want them to do in order to pander to the labor unions and other crybabies.

. . . to increase profits and the incomes of the already rich, what we have been doing since the 1980s.

Yes, all those laws imposing maximum wage levels were a bad idea. Maximum-wage laws are just as illogical and harmful to the economy as minimum-wage laws. You're right that neither of these should be imposed onto employers and workers.


Profits are a needed part of the mechanism of capitalism because profits provide money for investments.

That's not basically why they're needed. Some investments are wasteful. What profits are needed for is to reward producers for superior performance, i.e., performing better at serving consumers. This might mean rewarding them for good investments in some cases. It's the higher revenues from more sales which determine if their investment decisions were good or not. When they make bad investments, it should reduce their profit rather than increase it.

If you want to make a genuine critique of capitalism, you need to tell us about the bad investments which were wrongly rewarded, and give us the solution to this in order to prevent it in the future. You need to tell us how we can make sure it's only the good investments which are rewarded with higher profits.


But profits aren't the reason that the economy exists.

BINGO! It's to serve consumers that the economy exists. Profits exist to reward producers when they do a good job serving consumers. When they make profits NOT serving consumers, something is wrong with the economy which needs fixing.


Wages are the way that people survive and the way that children are raised and . . .

So, independent contractors are not people? Entrepreneurs are not people raising children? Why do you exclude everyone but wage-earners from the "people" class? Do they also have to be labor union members in order to be "people"?

What about the unemployed who can't get hired? They're not "people"?

. . . the way that children are raised and the way that they are educated. This is why the economy exists.

So, when wage-earners are replaced by robots, does that mean "the economy" decreases? When 90% of the wage-earners are replaced by robots, and 90% of the production is done without wage-earners, does that mean "the economy" diminished down to 10% its earlier size? even though the production has doubled or tripled and is serving more humans than before when it employed 10 times as many wage-earners?

So you'd choose an economy where millions were starving, as long as the number of wage-earners is higher? because the function of the economy is not to serve consumers but to maximize the number of wage-earners?

I.e., it's all about

"Jobs! Jobs! Jobs! Jobs! Jobs! Jobs!"
 
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Rich people are often good at framing issues as if money grows on rich people.

Extremely top heavy income (or wealth) distributions tend to shrink the size of the economic pie. The 1% (or, more accurately, 0.1%) at current levels of inequality are an economic burden. Not white knights who will alleviate it with their tax-paying beneficence.

I wouldn't refer to the patriotic millionaires as necessarily beneficent, but they would certainly agree with the first two sentences of your post. That's the point of their movement. They actually asked Congress not to give them the Trump tax breaks. Their opinions certainly hold some weight, considering that they are the ones most impacted by these tax cuts, that they didn't even want.

Yes, but framing it as a tax issue is misleading. The NYT article gives the impression that they're making the usual "Robin Hood" funding argument (and they somewhat are). Arguing for or against that is accepting the frame that money grows on rich people. But from reading their website, this lot apparently get it: current levels of inequality damage the economy and democracy.
 
I am in the middle of a response to Bomb#20 commenting on one of my posts. My life keeps getting in the way of completing it, but the following might be interesting for others here and I know people usually aren't interested in my lengthy wall of words responses.

Bomb#20's post said that income and wealth inequality isn't a real thing and cast doubt quite colorfully that it harms the economy.

I don't know what earlier post you're referring to; but "growing income and wealth inequality" isn't a real thing, so whether it "damages the economy" is about as substantive a question as whether the virgin-stealing dragon is damaging the economy.

That growing income inequality is bad for the economy is pretty much a settled issue among economists. Even the crazy Libertarian economists believe that it is. The crazy part is that they think that a genuinely free market for labor will correct the income and wealth inequality.

I sat down and tried to list all of the ways that income inequality is bad for the economy,

  1. the income and wealth inequality reduces economic and social mobility. The US is now among the worse in this regard of the developed countries.
  2. the stagnate wages have reduced the effective aggregate demand in the economy because the poor and the middle class have a higher propensity to spend their incomes while the rich have a higher propensity to save their incomes.
  3. saving, whether in a bank, the stock market, T-Bills or in a mattress, reduces growth in the economy because savings by definition is money not spent, money withdrawn from the economy. (And no, banks don't loan out deposits, banks create money and deposits when they make loans and paying back loans destroys money and deposits.)
  4. the rich chase higher returns for their savings inflating the stock markets and real estate property values.
  5. the increasing real estate values increase the housing costs of the non-rich, both rent and home ownership.
  6. the increasing stock values increases the pressure on the executives of corporations to increase profits to match the increased stock valuation, even though the corporation sees little gain from the increased stock valuation.
  7. the increase in housing costs further harms the non-rich whose wages have stagnated to increase the incomes of the rich.
  8. the stagnating wages of the non-rich means that they go into debt in an attempt to keep up their lifestyle in the face of the erosion of their salaries and wages.
  9. the inability of the rich to find what they consider to be adequate returns on their savings encourages the financial markets to invent securities which are little more than highly leveraged gambling bets like tranched sub-prime mortgages derivatives.
  10. this inability of the rich to obtain adequate returns on their savings meant that they put considerable pressure on the political establishment to open areas of the economy and the government to profit-making and capitalization that aren't suitable for the profit motive, areas like health care, education, and jurisprudence.
  11. the stagnating wages means that inflation was moderate because growth and economic activity were reduced.
  12. unfortunately the moderating inflation wasn't recognized for what it was, reduced aggregate demand, it was taken as a result of improved economic management by the Fed of the economy, leaving them ill-prepared when the financial markets collapsed.
  13. rather than bailing out the victims they bailed out the perpetrators of the crimes.
  14. up to 85% of the increased profits and subsequent income gains of the wealthy was due to lower real wages, not innovation or some mysterious and unknowable structural change in the economy.
  15. this meant that corporations became indolent because they didn't have to work hard for their profits, as an example, productivity gains have flat-lined as a result.
  16. the return on the dollar from lobbying and advancing the careers of right-minded politicians is far greater than investing and working to improve products and productivity.
  17. the social tension resulting from the income inequality is certain to be finally noticed by the media, any day now.
  18. wage earners know that something is wrong, but they aren't sure what it is, they aren't progressing as their parents did, they aren't as economically secure as their parents were, they are always afraid of losing their jobs, everyone else seems to be looking out for only themselves, they are always in debt, and they are striking out in destructive ways like voting for Trump.
Only the moderating inflation was good for the economy, but even that backfired because it allowed economists at the Fed believe that it was because they were getting better at controlling inflation and the economy. Ben Bernanke in 2005 called it the "Great Moderation, where modern macroeconomic policy has decreased the volatility of the business cycle to the point that it should no longer be a central issue in economics," not the only time Bernanke was dead wrong.

The economists at the Fed were neoclassical synthesis economists, and they were neoliberals. Ben Bernanke as the chairman of the Fed toasted one of the founders of neoliberalism, Milton Friedman, telling him that thanks to him the nation wouldn't have to endure another depression. The date was July 31, 2006. Ben Bernanke had only slightly more than a year before he was proven so tragically wrong.
 
While you are correct, the whole “paradox of thrift” is based on flawed economics at its heart. They will tell you in Economics 101 that the purpose of an economy is to allocate finite resources to human wants and needs.
When I took Econ 101, they didn't tell me that. The prof mostly stuck to observables. "The purpose of an economy" isn't an observable. And, since I've seen no evidence for the existence of disembodied purposes, when people tell me something is "the purpose of an economy", I'm left wondering which animal's brain "the purpose of an economy" is supposed to be a purpose in.

(Of course, each individual little action in an economy has a purpose: whatever purpose the economic actor who does it chooses to do it for. But to jump from "each action has a purpose" to "the economy has a purpose" is the infamous Fallacy of Composition.)

Each individual’s wants and needs are personal, subjective and contextual. If an individual’s utlility curves tell him “the best use of my money is to stuff it in my mattress” economics has no capacity to determine he would be better off if we forced him to spend it on a flat screen TV or in an Asian massage parlor. The fact that him spending it in an Asian massage parlor would create more Asian massage parlor jobs does not mean it’s better for the economy. The purpose of the economy is not to create jobs, it’s to allocate resources to wants and needs.
I don't think the people going on about the "paradox of thrift" are claiming he would be better off if we forced him to spend it on a flat screen TV or in an Asian massage parlor. I think the concept is that the rest of us would be better off if we forced (or persuaded, or incentivized) him to spend it on a flat screen TV or in an Asian massage parlor. If someone's purpose for allowing other people to have an economy is to allocate resources to wants and needs, it probably makes a difference to her which people's wants and needs are getting resources allocated to them.

We have been over this before. The word "purpose" means the reason that something exists. To say that the overall economy has no purpose is saying that there is no reason for it to exist. This is absurd.

The fact that you can't come up with an alternate purpose doesn't mean that you can say that dismal is thinking with his animal brain by having an answer. From what I have observed with dismal he is as capable as anyone else here of abstract thought. He also doesn't need me to defend him.

I don't like these arguments over the meanings of common words that you seem to relish in. So let's try this ...

Why do you think that the economy exists? Is there a reason that it exists? Is it suppose to do something?

Dismal is correct. I would add that the economy is also how the product of the economy is distributed among the members of the society to satisfy their wants and needs. What we are currently discussing is the failure of the US economy to distribute the rewards from economic gains equitably.

If your freshman economics course taught you based on observable reality, then you were lucky. All of my undergraduate and graduate economics courses taught such unrealistic theories as "supply and demand set prices," "marginal productivity,", "general equilibrium," and "loanable funds." None of which you see in our economy.

It is a shame that so little of the instruction you received in the observable economy stuck with you.
 
Bomb#20's post said that income and wealth inequality isn't a real thing
Don, what the hell is wrong with you? For the umpteenth time, Stop putting words in my mouth! You do it so persistently that it's perfectly clear that you simply don't give a damn about telling the truth about your opponents. Your behavior is utterly dishonorable.

If you have a visual or mental disability that prevents you from telling the difference between what you read and what you imagine you read, take that into account. If your disability leaves you unable to make truthful statements of other people's words, stop making claims about what other people say! If you sincerely believed that I said what you claimed I said, that is not an excuse! It's still your fault! We have been through this too many times for you not to know that you are a serial putter of words in other people's mouths. Stop doing it. Permanently.

and cast doubt quite colorfully that it harms the economy.

I don't know what earlier post you're referring to; but "growing income and wealth inequality" isn't a real thing, so whether it "damages the economy" is about as substantive a question as whether the virgin-stealing dragon is damaging the economy.
You even quote what I wrote, verbatim, right after you tell your untruth about what I wrote. :rolleyes:

As you can plainly see, I said "growing income and wealth inequality" isn't a real thing. That is not because "income and wealth inequality isn't a real thing". It is because income inequality is not growing. Income inequality is shrinking. I posted a chart of the GINI index clearly showing this. That, you snipped. Turn your bloody brain back on.

That growing income inequality is bad <rest snipped since it proceeds from a false premise>
 
We have been over this before.
So? I wasn't talking to you. I was talking to dismal. Dismal can be reasoned with.

The word "purpose" means the reason that something exists.
No it doesn't, Mr. Dumpty. The reason the Earth exists is because trillions of meteoroids pulled one another together by gravity. That does not make the "purpose of the Earth" to pull in meteoroids.

To say that the overall economy has no purpose is saying that there is no reason for it to exist.
No it isn't. And your inability to tell the difference is not my problem.

The fact that you can't come up with an alternate purpose doesn't mean that you can say that dismal is thinking with his animal brain by having an answer.
But I said nothing of the sort. Review post #169.

From what I have observed with dismal he is as capable as anyone else here of abstract thought. He also doesn't need me to defend him.
Indeed not; and if he did need outside help, you would not be up to the task.

I don't like these arguments over the meanings of common words that you seem to relish in.
Well, then quit butting in when other people are having these arguments.

Also, stop misusing common words.
 
That does actually imply that net saving - absent a whacking trade surplus like Germany's - is indeed bad for "the overall economy" where "the overall economy" means something like a nation.

..or, put another way, there isn't really any such thing as "saving" for "the overall economy"
Not seeing how you're getting that. Yes, there really is such a thing as saving for the overall economy: it's called "inventory". Whether it's full granaries or giant tanks of oil or a fort full of gold, if it's something you're not using now but will use in the future then it's saving. Debt instruments like money are a trickier thing to save in a fiat money world where there isn't a shortage of them, but that doesn't automatically mean it's a bad idea to maintain an inventory. Inventories are useful.

If a household or firm cuts spending, its income doesn't go down, so it thereafter accumulates savings. If the overall economy* cuts spending, its income goes down proportionally. Because in the the overall economy - unlike in a firm or household - each transaction has a both a buyer and a seller, so aggregate spending = aggregate income**. It's the difference between an organism and an ecosystem.

* (net or aggregate, not "everybody")
** (+/- foreign sector)
You say that as though people living paycheck to paycheck and consequently having nothing to fall back on if they hit a bump in the road, let alone any ability to make occasional large purchases, is a pure benefit to the rest of us with no negative externalities. Suppose somebody wants to quit working for four years and go to college. How's she supposed to do that if she isn't saving and her friends and family don't have savings to lend to her? So is it supposed to be "good for the economy" when she waits tables all her life instead of becoming an architect? "Aggregate spending = aggregate income" isn't the only consideration that matters to whether saving is good.

That's why the govt trying to cut spending at the same time as the private sector -austerity- doesn't work. Growth and revenues fall; deficits might even increase.

It's also why high levels of inequality are bad. Growth tends to be slower and less consistent (as even the IMF now admits). Not that wealth is zero-sum, but that less inequality would be positive-sum.
Those two paragraphs really don't go together. If "Aggregate spending = aggregate income" is the reason for both then Keynesian deficit spending would be the solution for both. If government can spend us out of recession, why can't it equally spend us out of inequality-causes-excess-saving-causes-slower-growth?
 
Not seeing how you're getting that.
If a household or firm cuts spending, its income doesn't go down, so it thereafter accumulates savings. If the overall economy* cuts spending, its income goes down proportionally. Because in the overall economy - unlike in a firm or household - each transaction has a both a buyer and a seller, so aggregate spending = aggregate income**. It's the difference between an organism and an ecosystem.

* (net or aggregate, not "everybody")
** (+/- foreign sector)

Yes, there really is such a thing as saving for the overall economy: it's called "inventory". Whether it's full granaries or giant tanks of oil or a fort full of gold, if it's something you're not using now but will use in the future then it's saving. Debt instruments like money are a trickier thing to save in a fiat money world where there isn't a shortage of them, but that doesn't automatically mean it's a bad idea to maintain an inventory. Inventories are useful.
And, in a market economy, the stuff comprising "inventory" comes into being via transactions. Cutting aggregate spending means fewer transactions, means less stuff available for "inventories" over time. Voilà : the paradox of thrift. In the economy as a whole, cutting spending does not create savings. Deferring consumption (which is what you're on about) at the same level of aggregate spending could be called "saving", but that's just pedantic equivocation, not counterexample.

You say that as though people living paycheck to paycheck and consequently having nothing to fall back on if they hit a bump in the road, let alone any ability to make occasional large purchases, is a pure benefit to the rest of us with no negative externalities. Suppose somebody wants to quit working for four years and go to college. How's she supposed to do that if she isn't saving and her friends and family don't have savings to lend to her? So is it supposed to be "good for the economy" when she waits tables all her life instead of becoming an architect? "Aggregate spending = aggregate income" isn't the only consideration that matters to whether saving is good.
Again, that is the paradox of thrift, not counterexample. Households having no hedge against scarcity is bad, and everyone trying to hedge against scarcity at the same time actually causes scarcity, which is bad. There's no real paradox, it's just a bit counter-intuitive if you're used to thinking of the economy as a big household. That's why, to address your examples, the welfare safety net and educational grants are a stabilising, multiplying force.

That's why the govt trying to cut spending at the same time as the private sector -austerity- doesn't work. Growth and revenues fall; deficits might even increase.

It's also why high levels of inequality are bad. Growth tends to be slower and less consistent (as even the IMF now admits). Not that wealth is zero-sum, but that less inequality would be positive-sum.
Those two paragraphs really don't go together. If "Aggregate spending = aggregate income" is the reason for both then Keynesian deficit spending would be the solution for both. If government can spend us out of recession, why can't it equally spend us out of inequality-causes-excess-saving-causes-slower-growth?

I believe it could (if anyone wants to pretend that means random spending on pointless ditch-digging etc, don't bother). I don't see any real economic cause of stalling growth, wages and living standards. The obstacles are political - not least the idea that the economy is just a big household, which conservative parties and their media arms having been pushing relentlessly for 40 years.
 
THRIFT is good, whether for an individual/family, or nation, or the whole world.

If a household or firm cuts spending, its income doesn't go down, so it thereafter accumulates savings. If the overall economy cuts spending, its income goes down proportionally. Because in the overall economy - unlike in a firm or household - each transaction has a both a buyer and a seller, so aggregate spending = aggregate income. It's the difference between an organism and an ecosystem.

Does "spending" = "consumption"?

And does "income" = "production"?

Because if so, and this is reworded: "If the overall economy cuts consumption, its production goes down proportionally," then the above is incorrect. An economy (local, national, or world) can cut its consumption while continuing the same production, or even increasing its production.

Reducing consumption can mean reducing spending. Or, if the intent of the less spending is to reduce the consumption, then this can be accomplished without reducing also the production, or income. There can be a good reason to reduce the consumption, at times, or to increase it at other times.

Where there is reduced spending, for the whole economy, chosen by all the buyers (including government) just buying less, in order to save, and the purpose is to reduce consumption, because the consumption is too high (e.g., waste), while at the same time the same production continues, this would be a case of less spending by the whole economy, but without decreasing the income.

You're saying this cannot ever happen? The community (big or small), the economy, cannot ever choose to reduce its consumption without also reducing its production? Why couldn't it make this choice? either collectively, with governments making spending cuts, or privately, as individual buyers reduce their spending/consumption, but continue producing the same as before?

If you allow that this can happen, then this would be legitimate austerity, cutting the spending, to reduce the debt, to save more for the future rather than spending so much now, and yet continuing to produce the same in order to generate more wealth for the future.

And this is the same as "thrift" -- whether for a small unit, like a business or a family, or a nation of 100 million, or a planet of 7 billion.

I think the case can be made for such austerity today. One could argue that it's not needed, but how can you argue that it's impossible to make such a choice?
 
But that doesn't require higher marginal rates on some than on others. The tax rate is slope; the amount of money needed to live a reasonable life is intercept. Or to put it differently, we should tax people on their profit, not on their revenue.

Which is why we use a progressive income tax. To have low or no tax on the income that is needed to survive and progressively higher taxes on the amount above that. There is also a view that it is desirable for everyone even the poorest to pay some taxes to have a stake in the country. I would support this idea if we weren't doing everything possible to keep wages low to boost profits.

We all recognize it would be stupid to tax a supermarket that buys its inputs for $1,000,000 and sells food for $1,001,000 on its revenue rather than on its profit -- supermarkets' profit margins are paper thin and taking 21% of revenue would simply shut down the supermarkets.

But we do tax supermarkets on their sales. For some reason, it is called "Sales Tax." Go figure.

From the 21% figure I take it that someone has championed the Fair Tax which my Congressman Rob Woodall always files as HB1 or some other low number. Rob was picked as one of the five stupidest Congressmen based on an analysis of the written documents and speeches that he authors himself.

We almost voted him out of office in November, but he survived by a razor-thin margin of some hundreds (433) of votes out of the quarter million (280,453) that were cast. Well within the margin provided by the Kemp voter suppression machine. My wife's vote wasn't counted because when she registered to vote she spelled out her middle name and when she voted she signed with her middle initial.

Woodall went to the state GOP to see if they could help him as they have before by gerrymandering either more Republicans into the 7th district or more Democrats out of it. He was told no could do because they would endanger another Republican congressman. So he announced that he wouldn't run in 2020.

The fair tax can only be held at the 21% level if they collect it on every transaction in the country including the things that the government buys. Yes, the federal government would have to pay taxes to itself for everything that they buy. State governments would have to pay taxes for everything that they buy. Churches and other non-profits would have to pay too.

I did mention about one of the five stupidest congressmen, didn't I?

We let businesses write off legitimate business expenses -- the amount of money they have to spend to keep the taxable activity going at all. There's no reason but historical accident that we don't apply the same principle to people.

Reference: progressive taxation and standard deduction, among others.

So yes, of course people have to be left enough of their income to live on. (And frankly, the rule that your medical expenses have to run over 7.5% of your income before they're deductible is just asinine.)

It is 10% of your income now. I expect to have almost $100,000 in medical expenses for last year, mainly for drugs and to pay for my caregivers, I don't have a problem with paying this because the alternative for me is a nursing home at about 8,000 dollars a month which I want to avoid as long as I can stay in my own homes. However, I think that tying the deduction to the ability to pay would be reasonable. Many people in my situation don't have the resources that I do and have no option except Medicaid which is always under attack by the neoliberals who want more money to give the rich more tax cuts.

But to jump from that premise to the conclusion that a guy in the top 0.1% should be paying a higher marginal rate than you in the top 2% pay would be a complete non sequitur.

I think that the proposals vary from a marginal tax bracket of 70% for the income that is above from 4 to 10 million dollars a year. I don't earn anywhere near that much.

You misunderstood me. I said that even with my upper-middle-class income I believe that I should have to pay more taxes. Therefore I am not surprised that people who earn millions in a year feel like they should be paying more.

Neither of you is being taxed out of putting food on the table. The fact that it isn't discrimination to tax you more per dollar than an unemployed homeless guy doesn't change the fact that it is discrimination to tax Tom Cruise more per dollar than you and me.

I have read this over many times and I am still not sure what you are saying here. I can't tell why you think that progressive taxation is discrimination. You say that it is discrimination to tax Tom Cruise at a higher rate than I am taxed but not discrimination to tax me at a higher rate than a homeless guy. You might want to revisit this to make sure that this is what you wanted to say.

I don't see progressive taxation as being discriminatory. We need taxes to prevent runaway inflation. You have to tax people who have money, and the people who earn a lot of money are the ones who have to pay the most. This is also reasonable because they are the ones who are benefiting the most from society and who have the most to protect, the primary function of the government.

Doing a citizen's full share of societal upkeep isn't a hardship for any one of us.

I agree.

I don't know what earlier post you're referring to; but "growing income and wealth inequality" isn't a real thing, so whether it "damages the economy" is about as substantive a question as whether the virgin-stealing dragon is damaging the economy.

sala%20fig%203.JPG

You say that "growing income and wealth inequality" isn't a real thing and then you post a chart that shows growing income inequality which naturally leads to growing wealth inequality. I feel like this growing into a discussion similar to one on climate change where up is down and in is out. You are better than this.



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below posted as post #167 - url - https://talkfreethought.org/showthr...y-higher-taxes&p=653103&viewfull=1#post653103

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I am in the middle of a response to Bomb#20 commenting on one of my posts. My life keeps getting in the way of completing it, but the following might be interesting for others here and I know people usually aren't interested in my long wall of words responses.

Bomb#20's post said that income and wealth inequality isn't a real thing and cast doubt quite colorfully that it harms the economy.

I don't know what earlier post you're referring to; but "growing income and wealth inequality" isn't a real thing, so whether it "damages the economy" is about as substantive a question as whether the virgin-stealing dragon is damaging the economy.

That growing income inequality is bad for the economy is pretty much a settled issue among economists. Even the crazy Libertarian economists believe that it is. The crazy part is that they think that a genuinely free market for labor will correct the income and wealth inequality.

I sat down and tried to list all of the ways that income inequality is bad for the economy,

  1. the income and wealth inequality reduces economic and social mobility. The US is now among the worse in this regard of the developed countries.
  2. the stagnate wages have reduced the effective aggregate demand in the economy because the poor and the middle class have a higher propensity to spend their incomes while the rich have a higher propensity to save their incomes.
  3. saving, whether in a bank, the stock market, T-Bills or in a mattress, reduces growth in the economy because savings by definition is money not spent, money withdrawn from the economy. (And no, banks don't loan out deposits, banks create money and deposits when they make loans and paying back loans destroys money and deposits.)
  4. the rich chase higher returns for their savings inflating the stock markets and real estate property values.
  5. the increasing real estate values increase the housing costs of the non-rich, both rent and home ownership.
  6. the increasing stock values increase the pressure on the executives of corporations to increase profits to match the increased stock valuation, even though the corporation sees little gain from the increased stock valuation.
  7. the increase in housing costs further harms the non-rich whose wages have stagnated to increase the incomes of the rich.
  8. the stagnating wages of the non-rich means that they go into debt in an attempt to keep up their lifestyle in the face of the erosion of their salaries and wages.
  9. the inability of the rich to find what they consider to be adequate returns on their savings encourages the financial markets to invent securities which are little more than highly leveraged gambling bets like tranched sub-prime mortgages derivatives.
  10. this inability of the rich to obtain adequate returns on their savings meant that they put considerable pressure on the political establishment to open areas of the economy and the government to profit-making and capitalization that aren't suitable for the profit motive, areas like health care, education, and jurisprudence.
  11. the stagnating wages means that inflation was moderate because growth and economic activity were reduced.
  12. unfortunately, the moderating inflation wasn't recognized for what it was, reduced aggregate demand, it was taken as a result of improved economic management by the Fed of the economy, leaving them ill-prepared when the financial markets collapsed.
  13. rather than bailing out the victims they bailed out the perpetrators of the crimes.
  14. up to 85% of the increased profits and subsequent income gains of the wealthy was due to lower real wages, not innovation or some mysterious and unknowable structural change in the economy.
  15. this meant that corporations became indolent because they didn't have to work hard for their profits, as an example, productivity gains have flat-lined as a result.
  16. the return on the dollar from lobbying and advancing the careers of right-minded politicians is far greater than investing and working to improve products and productivity.
  17. the social tension resulting from the income inequality is certain to be finally noticed by the media, any day now.
  18. wage earners know that something is wrong, but they aren't sure what it is, they aren't progressing as their parents did, they aren't as economically secure as their parents were, they are always afraid of losing their jobs, everyone else seems to be looking out for only themselves, they are always in debt, and they are striking out in destructive ways like voting for Trump.
Only the moderating inflation was good for the economy, but even that backfired because it allowed economists at the Fed believe that it was because they were getting better at controlling inflation and the economy. Ben Bernanke in 2005 called it the "Great Moderation, where modern macroeconomic policy has decreased the volatility of the business cycle to the point that it should no longer be a central issue in economics," not the only time Bernanke was dead wrong.

The economists at the Fed were neoclassical synthesis economists, and they were neoliberals. Ben Bernanke as the chairman of the Fed toasted one of the founders of neoliberalism, Milton Friedman, telling him that thanks to him the nation wouldn't have to endure another depression. The date was July 31, 2006. Ben Bernanke had only slightly more than a year before he was proven so tragically wrong.

Ben was undone by both his neoclassical training and the neoliberal political economics of the Bush II administration. The neoliberals don't recognize any impacts of the income distribution, i.e. the consumption function*, on the economy. They didn't realize that the "Great Moderation" was a result not of their brilliant stewardship of the economy but because neoliberalism was directing more of the rewards from productivity and innovation gains to the upper class in profits where previously it was split 50/50 between profits and wages. And because the already rich are much more likely to save their money than the wage earners, the impact of those gains on the economy is substantially less than if half of it is paid in wages.

* and Friedman's argument that people look to the national debt and save money for the day when they have to help pay it off is just too out of touch with reality to be believed.

What the Fed also didn't realize was that their ability to manage the economy was being eroded by the very income and wealth inequality that we are discussing here. The huge amount of money that was being shifted from wages to profits, from the poor and the middle class to the upper class had created a huge shadow banking system to loan money beyond the Fed's control. This huge amount of money far exceeded the amounts needed for investment. As a result conditions were ripe for Wall Street to invent creative ways for them to get their hands on as much of the money as possible.

Coupled with the changes in the laws and regulations that loosen the controls over the banks that the neoliberal Gingrich pushed through Congress and the neoliberal Clinton signed killed local banking and allowed the formation of the huge national banks, the banks that were too big to fail. By the time the Great Recession started just five of these large banks divided about 70% of the nation's banking business between them.

Neoliberalism also blinded them to what was the root cause of the Great Recession. The FBI and the SEC warned Congress and the Fed that the large banks were committing the same types of frauds that the Savings and Loans committed in the 1980's after they were deregulated.

The big banks and the investment banks were selling derivatives made up of mortgages for private homes. They were bundling these mortgages and taking slices across the bundle, called tranches so that every slice contained only a fraction of any one single mortgage. Thus a single default wouldn't impact any slice badly. And they were correct up to a point. And besides, they could turn around and sell off the foreclosed home and recoup most if not all of the money lost. Once again, they were right up to a point. And the point where they stopped being right depended on the widespread, misplaced belief that home prices never go down. Home prices do go down when millions of families default on their mortgages when the interest rates increase, and banks try to sell all of the homes that they foreclosed on.

These derivatives were touted as rock solid, no loss investments. It comes as no surprise that the most popular ones were those composed of sub-prime mortgages since those paid the most interest. To meet this demand, the underwriters told the mortgage brokers that they would pay a premium for sub-prime mortgages.

As the traditional mortgage brokers were unable or unwilling to provide enough sub-prime mortgages the underwriting banks and investment firms brought in the Country Time and the American Home Mortgage predatory lender level of mortgage brokers to fill the demand. A predatory lender is someone who makes a loan with the anticipation and the hope that the borrower won't be able to pay the loan back and will default on the loan.

(This is not the same as red lining and the anti-redlining laws and regulations which didn't force the banks to make these loans to under-qualified minorities, that some here have claimed. The CRA didn't cause the Great Recession, the CRA was a forty-year-old law that said if you are a bank and you take in deposits from a minority-dominated area previously subjected to red-lining you have to write mortgages in the area worth at least one-half of the amount of deposits the bank has from the area. It specifically prohibits you from the requirements if in your judgment you can't find enough qualified borrowers to fulfill the requirements of the law. It isn't even considered to be a civil rights act because the vast majority of the banks that it covered were, of course, minority-owned.

These minority-owned banks had been loaning money in the suburbs not because they were racists but because it is more profitable to make one $200,000 mortgage loan than it is to write four $50,000 loans and the homes in the suburbs were worth more.)

Of course, since the mortgages were adjustable, back-end loaded, i.e., the mortgages came with reduced interest rates for the few years and then the interest rates jumped or there was a catchup balloon payment, the derivatives were leveraged to pay a return as if the homeowner was already paying the higher interest rate. Few people who bought these instruments realized that they were taking out a loan that would reduce the cash out value of the derivative if it was redeemed before the loan built into the derivative was paid off.

Unbridled capitalism at its best! What could go wrong?

Alan Greenspan was in charge of the Fed for most of the lead up to the Great Recession. He was a true believer in neoliberalism who introduced Ayn Rand to Ricard Nixon. Greenspan told the congressional investigators that he didn't follow the advice of the FBI and the SEC to clamp down on the banks because he thought that the banks and Wall Street had learned how to self-regulate.

How was this similar to the previous deregulation disaster of Reagan's savings and loan crisis? Because in both the executives of the financial institution's browbeat accountants, bond rating agencies, adjusters, auditors, property appraisers, partner banks, etc. to give their financial instruments and the underlying mortgages higher marks than they deserved.

Well, no, that reason isn't at all easy to understand. That reason looks for all the world like mush-headed folk-economics, blatantly disconnected from reality. Of course, it matters how you save it. When you save money in bank accounts, the banks pay you interest. Think about that for a minute. They're doing you the services of keeping track of your money for you, keeping it safe from thieves for you, and delivering it to anybody you tell them to for you, and they pay you! In any normal world, like the world before modern economies, you'd pay them for all those services. For them to pay you is as nutty as if you shot a guy in the face with a shotgun and he apologized to you.

So why do you think a bank does that?

The banks do that so that the government allows them to do what in essence makes them a bank, the ability to create money out of thin air to loan out and on which to charge interest.

When you loan money to your good for nothing son-in-law the money goes from your account into his. Even under reserve banking when the bank loans you money they create the entire loan amount and deposit it in your account. They do it by typing the amount into a computer. That and double entry bookkeeping is all there is to it. The loan is your liability and the bank's asset. If you default on the loan it becomes the bank's liability to collect from you. If you pay the loan off the money that the bank created for the is destroyed.

Magnanimity? It's owner feels charitable toward all these people laying off their responsibilities on her? Obviously not. The bank pays you because the owner wants to borrow your money from you, and she wants to give you a reason to lend it to her instead of to someone else, because she's going to make a profit on having your money for a while. How is having your money for a while going to make more money for her? Simple: the banker's going to re-lend your money to someone else, and she's going to charge him a higher interest rate than she'll be paying you.

No, the money that you and deposit in the bankis still there. When you loaned the money to your good for nothing son-in-law did the bank refuse to give him the money because it had been loaned to some else? Have you ever had that experience? I didn't think so.

So let's think about this guy, whoever he is, who's willing to pay the banker a bunch of money in exchange for the privilege of getting to have your money for a while. Why is he willing to do that? What's in it for him? Does he like green, aesthetically? Does he get off on rolling around in a bathtub full of dollars? No, of course not. He wants to borrow that money because, let's all say it together, <drumroll please>
he's going to spend it.

And when he spends it, it's going to pay for products or services that will pay someone else's wages, and it will encourage businesses to invest in their own business to make more profits. Q.E.D.

Yes, the borrowers are going to spend it. What happens to your explanation if the demand for loans exceeds the total amount of deposits? Has it ever happened that the banks ran out of deposits?

Think about the whole economy. You are saying that all of the private debt in the nation, all of the home loans, car loans, student loans, business loans, credit card debt, etc. has to be less than the total amount of deposits in the economy.

What you discribed is 100% reserve banking and it has been tried. It didn't work well. The farmers needed credit to buy seed late in the winter to be able to plant in the spring. They had to wait for deposits to build up to get enough credit to buy seed. Bankers had to refuse loans to consumers and businesses so that there would be enough credit so the farmers would have enough to buy seed and the nation would have food to eat. The capitalist economy doesn't work well in these conditions. Capitalism's strength comes from its decentralized millions of small, easy to make decisions combining to direct the economy. Asking bankers to decide how much food the nation will need next year is a big and hard decision for them to make.

If you don't understand how "fractional reserve banking" works Google it and read. Here is one, the first link found by googling does fractional reserve banking create money?"

Because banks are only required to keep a fraction of their deposits in reserve and may loan out the rest, banks are able to create money.
FRB increases the amount of loans that can be written with a limited amount of deposits. This is what we want. Then the farmers, the consumers, and the businesses don't have to wait for credit, and the bankers don't have to make the decisions on how much food the nation needs.

What also important is what they don't say, which is from where does the money created come?

Here is a more explicit admission by the Deusche Bundes Bank the German Central Bank, effectively the Fed for the entire European community.

Book money created only by transactions between banks and non-banks

In terms of volume, the majority of the money supply is made up of book money, which is created through transactions between banks and domestic customers. Sight deposits are an example of book money: sight deposits are created when a bank settles transactions with a customer, ie it grants a credit, say, or purchases an asset and credits the corresponding amount to the customer's bank account in return. This means that banks can create book money just by making an accounting entry: according to the Bundesbank's economists, "this refutes a popular misconception that banks act simply as intermediaries at the time of lending – ie that banks can only grant credit using funds placed with them previously as deposits by other customers". By the same token, excess central bank reserves are not a necessary precondition for a bank to grant credit (and thus create money).
"Book money" is a direct literal translation, from the German Geldbuchen. A better translation would be "Bank Money." Or what is deliriously called "fiat money" by those who wish that we would go back to the gold standard and 100% reserve banking and artificially constrained credit, the delusional.

It is hard to face how money is created which is out of thin air. This is hard for economists to do. This was hard for me to do. It goes against common sense, and what we have been taught in schools, it goes against what 90% of the economists believe. Paul Krugman, the liberal columnist for the New York Times and winner of the Nobel prize in economics, still doesn't accept it. He insists on his IS-LM Hicks diagrams and "loanable funds" theory.

I think that it is reasonable to say that this is on purpose, that the banks and the economists don't want it to be widely known that money is created by a bank typing numbers into a computer. That somehow it would undermine the value of the dollar which is after all determined by what it can buy and is guaranteed to have value by the US government requiring us to use dollars to pay our taxes.

It would be a corollary to why politicians and economists lie about the danger from the national debt and why it is debt that our grandchildren will have to pay. It isn't dangerous nor will our grandchildren have to pay it off. The biggest danger from it would be if we tried to pay it down or even if we paid it off completely. Because the only other way for money creation is for the federal government to run a budget deficit and to spend the money into the economy, and the only way that the national debt could be paid off would be by the government destroying the money created by the budget deficits.

No. The paradox of thrift applies to money sewn into a mattress. It demonstrably does not apply to money saved in an interest-bearing bank account. A parallel argument shows it likewise doesn't apply to money saved in the stock market.

No, the answer to whether the money saved in a bank somehow impacts the economy is answered above in my normal, excessive wordiness. It doesn't "somehow sneak out eventually" as someone here put it.

The money put into the stock market also is withdrawn from the economy. The corporation doesn't see any gain from its stock valuation going up. Any profit made on the sale of stock comes not from the corporation, but rather from the person who bought the stock. To the corporation, its stock is a liability claiming against its assets, even the reserve stock that the company holds.

You can even argue that it has little or nothing to gain from an increase in their stock valuation. The sole purpose of a corporation isn't to increase its stock valuation, and to make profits for its stockholders. The executives have many more obligations than this. They have obligations to their customers, employees, sub-suppliers and to the communities that they operate in up to the nation. Corporations have become people too, but people without the obligations of citizenship which in effect leaves them stateless. This is very dangerous.

Illustrative that the prime obligation of the executives of a corporation isn't just to increase the corporation's stock valuation is that the boards of directors have to pay executives with stock options and tie the executives' bonuses to the stock price. You didn't think that the board of directors would give this money to the executives if the executives were working as hard as possible to raise the stock prices without those incentives, do you?

The only gain that I see for a company from the stock going up would be if the reserve stock were sold off, they issue new stock, or if the reserve stock was used to buy a company. But selling reserve or new stock on the market is a secondary equity offering and is taken as a sign that a company is in trouble because secondary equity offerings dilute the value of the stock. And if it is used to buy another corporation, it can be viewed in most cases as buying an over-valued company with the buyers' over-valued stock and at best a wash.

If you have any explanation of how the money from the stock market gets into the economy, please tell us. Some here have suggested that venture capitalism is one way. I agree that venture capital does reward innovation and the innovators and that is a good thing. IPO's do the same. But the total amount of these two each year is less than a drop in the bucket compared to the yearly volume in the stock market. And the sum of the two is only about 10% of the annual corporate investment.

IPO's don't fund innovation but they do reward it. Even venture capitalists will only fund new businesses whose core is protected by patents.

If the rich do put their extra money into buying corporate bonds then they are loaning the money to a corporation, like you loaning money to your good for nothing son-in-law. It will be spent, and it will impact the economy.

(Whether it applies to T-Bills is a more complicated question since the feds have the option of printing money.)

Here you are getting close to the answer. Except it isn't the feds printing the money. Up to 95% of the money in circulation at any one time is bank created money. The government charters banks allowing them to create money out of thin air to loan to people with a reasonable expectation that the borrower can pay the loan back. If the borrower does pay back the loan the money created by the loan is destroyed. In this way the money that was created by the loan was temporary.

The feds create money when they run a budget deficit and spend it into the economy, as I said previously. This is permanent money in the economy because the federal government can't pay off the national debt without destroying 22 trillion dollars of money and savings.

The national debt also includes the current account deficit which consists of the trade deficit and financial capital flows as we invest in foreign countries and they invest in the US, which is usually a small surplus in our favor. What we use to call our balance of payments. This makes sense when you think about it, a current account deficit means that that amount of money is leaving our economy and the federal government has to create bonds to use to buy back this money from the foreign governments that run surpluses with the US when we settle our overseas accounts.

[And there is a difference in how the rich make this decision whether to spend or to save their income, <rest snipped since it proceeds from a false premise>

Why is this in your mind a false premise? It is based on the simple, observable fact that the rich save more of their income than everyone else.

You don't think that the rich save more of their income than everyone else does? This phenomenon comes from the simple fact that everyone else has to spend a greater part of their income to live. You don't believe that this true?

============== § ==============​

I am not trying to demean you or your intelligence or your education or your political leanings, whatever they are. It is very hard to understand this when you have been taught otherwise and when what you were taught supports your ideology and your politics.

But this is the reality of the economy and any political ideology based on any other belief in how the economy works is not valid. This includes the political economics that underpins today's economic policies.

The academic economics of today hasn't served us very well. There are a lot of academic economists who understand this as I presented it above. But their ability to get published in the mainstream economics journals is blocked, and more importantly, they have a problem getting their research funded. The already rich fund almost all of the economic research and they prefer to fund research that enriches them.

Look at how our economic policies would change if just the lessons from viewing money realistically were applied.

  • The economy is not a zero-sum game. Gains by one doesn't come at the costs of others.
  • The economy expands to accommodate growth in population or new economic activity because of innovation or productivity.
  • The government can create money out of thin air and they charter banks to do the same to make the loans that the economy needs.
  • The government therefore doesn't collect taxes to have money to spend, they tax to give value to the money and most importantly to prevent inflation that devalues the money.
  • The advantage of bank created money is that it means that the money supply grows or contracts along with the economic activity.
  • The disadvantage of bank created money is that it results from an increase in private debt.
  • The national debt isn't a problem; it is the private savings of
    individuals and businesses.
  • We can't pay off the national debt because attempts to do would destroy the money created by the debt and the private savings that it represents, throwing us into deflation and a depression, reducing the economic activity needed to generate the budget surplus needed to pay off the debt.
  • Private debt is much more dangerous to the economy than the national debt.
  • This is because private debt makes individuals and businesses reluctant or incapable of borrowing more to spend and the economy is unstable and more likely to go into a recession.
  • When the economy is in a recession or coming out of one large amounts of private debt make the recovery last longer.
  • For more than forty years wages for the poor and the middle class have been stagnate resulting in large increases in private debt.
  • As noted elsewhere our current policies to favor the rich by directing as much income to them as possible and granting them generous tax cuts have dramatically increased housing costs and public college costs.
  • Most importantly a rational view of what money is and its relationship to debt means we are not constrained by the lack of money to fully employ our resources and the available labor to have what we need as long as it doesn't cause inflation.
  • We can stay away from damaging inflation by only spending the money into the economy from a budget deficit that paces real growth in the economy.
  • The best way to fight inflation isn't as we do it now by increasing the interest rates but by raising taxes.
  • It has to be a payroll tax on wages not a income tax, one that the Fed can not only increase but can increase the withholding, to give it more immediate impact.
  • Corporations would be less likely to keep increasing prices if the result was an increase in their payroll tax.
  • We are avoiding inflation now, but the problem is that all of the rewards from the economy's growth is currently going to the already rich and none is going to increased wages of the poor and the middle class.
  • This restricts growth because it reduces the demand in the economy and increases private debt.
  • We can increase the amount of growth in the economy by increasing the amount of the real growth that goes toward the wages of the non-rich, the current small growth in wages goes mainly to high earners.
  • Wall Street and the rest of the financial sector are inherently unstable and they will never learn to "self-regulate" as Greenspan and the other neoliberals hope, they must be regulated by the federal government.
  • This is because there are are always people who can make money out of the chaos of financial crises and we have to let them and to reward them for their bad behavior as a first step to recover from the chaos.
  • We can see why it is undesirable to allow banks to combine consumer banking with investment banking, because they can create money out of thin air to use to speculate.
Just a thought but a really good way to start would be increase the minimum wage and to increase Social Security payments to those who qualified for less than the maximum because their wages were being intentionally suppressed to boost profits. These two items alone would go a long way toward eliminating poverty and putting the economy to work for everyone, not just the already wealthy.
 
Income inequality in the US is increasing as measured by the Gini coefficient (https://www.statista.com/statistics/219643/gini-coefficient-for-us-individuals-families-and-households/). Even adjusted for taxes and transfers, that Gini coefficient for the US has risen.
What's your point?
That income inequality in the USA is becoming more pronounced.
Are you making a value judgement about that or merely stating the obvious?
 
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