Koyaanisqatsi
Veteran Member
No, it would not. It would qualify that you don't understand how such statistics work or what they mean, but it most definitely would not qualify as an imaginary and random "grouping" of people being more or less violent than some other imaginary and random grouping of people.Blacks are 13% of the U.S. population and commit 50% of the murders. Wouldn't that qualify as more violent?
For example, 100% of all serial murderers have skin. You have skin, therefore you are a serial murderer.
See how incredibly stupid that reasoning is? Now apply.
But for comparison, I showed you that Asians are 6% of the U.S. population and commit 1% of murders.
Equally asinine.
Are you going to say these stats do not prove that Asian Americans are, on average, less violent?
Here's how remarkably stupid that is. Asians are 100% the population of China and commit 100% of all crime in China. So does that prove that all "Asian Chinese" are criminals?




