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The Great Contradiction

But, then, your whole stance puzzles me.

You're not the only person in this thread feeling that about Angra's posts, on either free will or morality.


I assume, without evidence, that the vast majority of people would be puzzled by his stance on retribution.

As for his stance on free will, I don't even know what it is. I don't pay much attention to discussions on that topic, because I have never seen such a discussion bear fruit. (I hope that's not supposed to be the topic of this thread.)

I like and admire Angra, but I may borrow from this discussion sometime when I am writing a fictional villain: someone who thinks he is acting righteously even though -- no matter how hard we try -- we cannot underestand or sympathize with his motives.

I think that could make for a scary story.

And, of course, if Angra writes fiction, he can use a utilitarian as his villain. :)

Hm. I'm not actually sure it's his stance on retribution that is one of the things that is puzzling me, to be honest, so let me try to explore.

What is it, and I have asked you this before, that you think is villainous about 'retribution of itself' (devoid of deterrence, isolation and rehabilitation)?

What I mean is, and I referred to this before, there may still be another reason. People, and by extension the society they compose, may function better if wrongs do not go unpunished, and when I say that I am not talking about deterrence, isolation or rehabilitation, only what we might call 'a sense of (natural) justice' as something that has evolved in humans, to become an endemic trait.

Because....I am not sure if Angra (he can clarify) or anyone is saying that retribution for no reason at all is ok. That is to say, surely (I think) there must be a basis, a reason, even for 'natural justice' if it it subject to natural selection. It might be wrong to say that natural selection has 'reasons' (there is arguably no reasoning going on in blind natural selection) so perhaps we should use the word 'causes'.






Bear in mind that I do agree that retribution because of a belief in the sort of personal responsibility associated with free will may, in particular, be arguably incorrect. So in a way I am saying that 'natural justice for humans' may be intertwined with (possibly false) beliefs about agency. And the trait (the sense of natural justice) might not be limited to being applied to humans or entities that could reasonably be said to even have agency. Perhaps that is where you think the villainy comes in?
 
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Slightly away from my candidate example in my last post to Angra, perhaps, but this, I think, is interesting:

https://www.pnas.org/content/pnas/117/5/2332.full.pdf

From the abstract:

"Here we analyze responses to three sacrificial dilemmas by 70,000 participants in 10 languages and 42 countries. In every country, the three dilemmas displayed the same qualitative ordering of sacrifice acceptability, suggesting that this ordering is best explained by basic cognitive processes rather than cultural norms".

Illustrations from the study:

Screen Shot 2020-02-06 at 11.19.07.png

Each subject taking part in the study is asked to see themselves as the person in blue. The people in red are 'other humans', but otherwise, it seems they are 'deserving/undeserving neutral'. They could be ingroup or outgroup. They could be bad or good, although it may be fair to say that the implicit assumption is that they are all 'innocent'.

and, the results related to that set of options:

Screen Shot 2020-02-06 at 11.34.25.png

There seems to be the sort of consistency in the ordering of the responses there that we might call a 'moral fact' if we mean a moral, human, species-wide 'universal', apparently endemic/consistent, judgemental trait.

However, note that no judgements seem to go above 90% certainty (regarding acceptability of an option) I think, if I'm reading it right. So it is only the relative ordering that is 'universal'.

I'm wondering. Does that mean that we need at least two options to compare before deciding in a way that might be called 'universal' about.....anything in the moral domain, when we get into specific situations?
 

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How do you know their color?
Intuition.

lottocube.jpg

Intuitively, it seems that the middle ('brown') square on the top face is not the same colour as the middle ('orange') square on the nearest (to us) vertical face, and yet they are in fact the exact same colour. All of us are receiving the same input information, and it is all accurate information, and yet it results in the wrong intuition. This is not a malfunction of the human brain, it is a function of a normal human brain, and closely related to how it works, specifically how it works as a prediction machine that makes internal assumptions to inform its predictions. Some people still think that our colour perception depends on the accuracy of the external input information, but that does not seem to be the case.

It is true that it can be demonstrated, by changing the way the information is presented (if the image was on paper we could fold it over a certain way so that those two squares were side by side) that the two colours are in fact the same, so this example says nothing about there being facts about colours that can be agreed on, given information being presented in a certain way (or by using an independent/objective machine that measures colour values). It only shows us that we should not necessarily trust our intuitions about them.

Even after we know the colours are the same, by being given that additional information, verbally or by changing the image in some way or by being informed by the results of a machine measurement, we can't change the intuition when looking at the original image again. The implication of that is that we can't seem to 'unlearn' that incorrect intuition, and so it seems likely that it will persistently recur when we view coloured scenes in the real world, where there is no intention on anyone's part to highlight anything or to deceive us.

As to morals, I am not sure if we are at the stage yet where we can say that there are or aren't independent moral facts in a particular instance, as there is for a colour fact in a particular instance, let alone being at a stage where we can say that we could reliably tell the morally right ones from the morally wrong ones, in that instance, even if they existed.
 
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ruby sparks said:
Science has thrown up shedloads of evidence that our intuitions are fundamentally awry regarding that, and self, and consciousness. The proportion, for those things is nowhere near miniscule. It is abundant. Human intuitions are endemically wrong about those things. An intuitive, colloquial, introspective understanding is inadequate, and has been repeatedly demonstrated to be inadequate.
Obviously, you are wrong.

I would like to revisit this, especially in light of the example above (albeit it is about conscious visual perception and not consciousness generally, or self, or agency, but it is nonetheless a related area of science).

I have noticed an apparent tendency on your part to waive away relevant evidence. You've done it a number of times, in favour of relying on intuitions instead.

Whether you are aware of it or not, there is de facto a large body of accumulated evidence from various sciences, mostly from the last 50 years, which is relevant to and at least undermines and calls into significant question many of the things you (and I) intuitively believe about our brain-stuff. That is a statement which I strongly feel is not really up for much debate, Angra, except by evidence-deniers.
 
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Probably that fresh cat feces are the sort of thing that humans find gustatorily disgusting (save for malfunction).



No, the speaker means to talk about something about which there is a fact of the matter. She might be mistaken about that, though one should not think so without specific evidence.


The AntiChris said:
What mistake are you thinking of here?
The mistake would be to think that just as fresh cat feces are the sort of thing that humans find gustatorily disgusting (save for malfunction), tomatoes are the sort of thing that humans find gustatorily delicious (save for malfunction).

Why do I think that that would be be a mistake?

Well, first of all intuitively. :)

But that aside, looking at how people assess the taste of tomatoes, the options seem to be:

Option 1:
a. There is widespread, global malfunctioning in the gustatory taste of the human population when it comes to tomatoes.
b. The predominant intuition that there is no (human) species-wide fact of the matter about whether tomatoes are delicious, is mistaken.

Option 2:
Alice is mistaken as described above.

Without any good reason to suspect such massive global malfunctioning (point a. above), Alice is far more likely to be mistaken than most people (generally, people are not ill until proven healthy so to speak; you would need good evidence that something is malfunctioning; in this case, the evidence strongly points to Alice's intuitions...but I haven't found many cases like that).

Clearly one can't reliably assume too much about the intent of speakers from their gustatory claims. I'd say he same is true for moral claims.

The problem, for me, is that whilst I accept that much of moral discourse can be interpreted as talking about something about which there is (or is believed to be) a fact of the matter, I don't see how you arrive at the view that "immorality (or permissibility, whichever it is) " is a property of the subject of evaluation.
 
Hm. I'm not actually sure it's his stance on retribution that is one of the things that is puzzling me, to be honest, so let me try to explore.

What is it, and I have asked you this before, that you think is villainous about 'retribution of itself' (devoid of deterrence, isolation and rehabilitation)?

Those are the three things that can be hoped to be accomplished by punishment. If you take away those legitimate goals, what remains is just the desire to hurt someone for no reason.




What I mean is, and I referred to this before, there may still be another reason. People, and by extension the society they compose, may function better if wrongs do not go unpunished, and when I say that I am not talking about deterrence, isolation or rehabilitation, only what we might call 'a sense of (natural) justice' as something that has evolved in humans, to become an endemic trait.

You think it may be natural to want to hurt people with no goal in sight?

It may be natural, but it's not good.




Because....I am not sure if Angra (he can clarify) or anyone is saying that retribution for no reason at all is ok.

That describes my perception of his view, but it definitely isn't his perception. He thinks that ...

Screw it. I'm done trying to represent his view.




That is to say, surely (I think) there must be a basis, a reason, even for 'natural justice' if it it subject to natural selection. It might be wrong to say that natural selection has 'reasons' (there is arguably no reasoning going on in blind natural selection) so perhaps we should use the word 'causes'.

In nature, the legitimate reasons for punishment aren't isolated from vengeance. Anger is what accomplishes the deterrence and rehabilitation.




Bear in mind that I do agree that retribution because of a belief in the sort of personal responsibility associated with free will may, in particular, be arguably incorrect. So in a way I am saying that 'natural justice for humans' may be intertwined with (possibly false) beliefs about agency.

I don't care about that part of the argument. I think determinists believe absurd things about the implications of free will, and free willies believe absurd things about the implications of determinism. Why wouldn't determinists want to punish crime if that would determine that people would behave better?




And the trait (the sense of natural justice) might not be limited to being applied to humans or entities that could reasonably be said to even have agency. Perhaps that is where you think the villainy comes in?

Wanting to hurt people for no good reason is the villainy. Wanting it so bad that we're willing to stunt our intellectual growth by rationalizing, for instance, that evolution wants us to hurt people for no reason, that's just an evil side effect of wanting to hurt people for no reason.
 
You think it may be natural to want to hurt people with no goal in sight?

I didn't say no goal, I said in pursuit of satisfying of an innate, possibly 'universal' human sense of natural justice.

As in born with. Of the sort exhibited by 6 month old infants for example. Or to put it another way, the sort that comes with at least some sort of evolutionary stamp of approval, which may or may not be out of date, that is in some ways the question. But in any case, it's there, apparently.

It may be natural, but it's not good.

I know what you mean, obviously. It would be so easy to agree with you. It would be so....modern, enlightened and liberal. But I don't think morality is that simple. Indeed, were you to simplify it too much, you might end up agreeing with Angra about universal morality at least in principle, and in a way, that's where you're heading, albeit from the opposite direction. As am I, in some ways. But I think you're heading even further towards what Angra is saying than me, making very simple pronouncements like that.

What would be interesting, if both of you were expressing something akin to a moral universal, is that you diametrically disagree about it. :)

Angra: retribution is morally good ('green light' for proceed).
Wiploc retribution is morally bad ('red light' for stop).

Who is right? Is there even a correct answer?

The reason I say I'm not going as far as you is, I'm only agreeing to use 'universal' for 'endemic, evolved human trait' which is ultimately a morally-neutral criterion/definition, and only describing an 'objective' morality in terms of numbers, percentages or distribution (it's a species-wide poll in other words), ie it's only 'universal' in the sense that it is endemic (ie it's not subjective/individual, but instead a widespread characteristic in, say, a species) not in the sense of it being truly impartial, or truly correct or incorrect. Imo, there is no truly impartial/objective correct or incorrect for morality. Morality, as a concept, is, I think, an accidental (if now innate) invention of the human brain, albeit naturally so (evolved, in our species) and not a property of the universe outside our minds.

Do you think other species, or the planet, or the universe, if any of them were capable, would share the view that humans being or not being retributive towards each other was either a good thing or a bad thing? Personally, I doubt the universe would even notice us and our little self-obsessions in the first place.
 
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ruby sparks said:
Personally, I would not necessarily trust my intuitions on at least some of those, if I am allowed time to reflect on it if I want to (which often isn't the case). The one I have bolded in your post, for instance. I know that I can quite easily be fooled or wrong about that, as regards what the particular colour is, as can you and people generally. I might even say I can be fooled or wrong about whether there is a colour (or whether something is just monochrome). I doubt I even know the full extent of the ways in which my intuitions about colour can be mistaken.
I think you're missing how minuscule the rate of errors is vs. the rate of success. Also, regarding color, sometimes you are mistaken at first, but in order to find out the color, you still rely on your color vision: you just take a look under more ordinary light conditions. You don't use a machine to measure it.

ruby sparks said:
I broadly accept the human intuition that "there is a particular colour fact" (even if I allow my intuition about what the colour is may be awry) but I am suspicious of the human intuition that "there is a particular moral fact", yes, and, even if I did agree that there is a moral fact about something in particular, I might still not trust my ability to know what it was (as with the colour).

Perhaps it's partly because saying there is a colour is something I take to be a statement about or describing a property of the world outside my head, which is not how I feel about morality. I do not think it exists in the world outside my head (except that I reckon it's probably in the heads of others too, but not in the exact same way, barring a remarkable coincidence that I have a doppelganger right down to neuron level).
Alright, so two points:

First, figuring out moral facts about actual behavior of people is often complicated by insufficient or erroneous information. For example, if you take a look at moral debates, at least in the vast majority of cases you will find that when there are moral disagreements, the people who disagree are giving different inputs to their respective moral senses, as they have different beliefs (or intuitive probabilistic assessments, more generally) about the nonmoral facts (i.e., described in nonmoral terms) relevant to moral assessments.
But being apparently more complicated does not seem to be strong evidence that there are no moral facts.

Second, why do you think morality does not exist outside people's head, in a relevant sense?
I mean, there is a sense in which morality only exists in the heads of people (or chimps, etc.), namely, people and some other species are moral agents, some are morally good, some are morally bad, etc. That sense, however, is not relevant to whether there is a fact of the matter. For example, there is a fact of the matter as to whether, say, McConnell believes that Jesus rose from the dead. Sure, it's a statement about McConnell's mind, but regardless of whether we can figure it out, there is a fact of the matter. Similarly, there is a fact of the matter as to whether he is a good or a bad person - or just morally mediocre -, and how much. Or at least, that would be the standard, default position. What I'm not sure about is why you think otherwise. I mean, sure, we are talking about people's minds, but we make statements of fact about people's mind all the time, e.g., we talk about whether they are Christians of one kind or another, or YECs, or Muslims, or Marxists, or have OCD, or are psychopaths, and so on. So, there are facts of the matters about things in people's heads, as there are facts of the matter about things that are not in people's heads.

Let me tell you this: long ago, I actually used to think something like that too - namely, that there was no fact of the matter, and/or was subjective. I was mistaken, iirc mostly as a result of a mistaken evaluation of the amount of disagreement (or 'divergence' I should perhaps say), and partly as a result of having a mistaken theory about the meaning of some expressions. Maybe if you tell me why you think that - contrary to ordinary intuitions - you are talking about something that it is only in your head (or similar in other people's heads), I might give a more targeted argument.


Third, if you are talking about moral concepts like moral wrongness, permissibility, etc., you are correct that it is not exactly the same in other people's heads, barring a remarkable coincidence that I have a doppelganger right down to neuron level (well, you do if the universe is large enough, but we may ignore that in this context). However, the same is true of all other concepts. In other works, barring such remarkable coincidence, your concept of 'red' is not exactly the same as mine, and neither is your concept of a cat, or a dog, or a even Marxist (e.g., how similar do a person's ideas have to be to Marx's to qualify? There are surely slight differences between competent English speakers, regardless of how well they understand Marx). That, however, is not a problem for our successful communication, or for there being facts of the matter about all of those things (and this is why I made some room for slight variations when I described species-wide traits). So, it doesn't look like it should be a problem for morality.


ruby sparks said:
I might disagree, I might say that it's reasonable not to just blithely trust our intuitions, even before any evidence to the contrary comes in, because of the knowledge from past experience that intuitions in the general sense can easily be awry.
I disagree with the disparaging term 'blithely' for a description of what it is essentially nearly all of human behavior - and proper behavior. I would say that it is not possible not to trust our intuitions all the time as part of our daily life, with the only exceptions of those (rare) times when we are questioning a specific intuition in a specific case. Again, you trust your intuitions all the time, without even thinking about it, and it could not be otherwise. In fact, even when you engage in conscious reasoning, you are relying on a massive background that is intuitive, from your memories from the stuff that just pops into your head to allow the continuation of your train of conscious thought.


ruby sparks said:
To me that's not an accurate way to put it. Even under a religious framework, people pick and choose components to construct their individual or subgroup morality. That is why there are so many religions, and sub-religions within religions, and disagreement within those sub-religions (denominations) and diferences between members of individual congregations. So people do seem to be using their moral sense, even if only cherry-picking (to suit) what goes into it as content, what becomes the content of their morality.
I said that they are not using their moral sense in some cases, sorry if I was not clear. But for example, generally (and barring perhaps some exceptions) Christians do not come to believe that, say, the Christian creator is morally good or that Jesus is morally good by looking at their actions, as described by the version of Christianity they are indoctrinated in. Rather, they accept that they/he is morally good - indeed morally perfect - on faith. Some Christians later use their moral sense to question whether some actions attributed to he/they actually happened, and/or to come up with interpretations of the Bible that would make he/they less evil. So, some do what you say, yes, but only after a failure to use an adequate tool to find moral truth.

ruby sparks said:
Well then, perhaps you should be careful to not be similarly religious about intuitions. ;)
I am not religious about intuitions. I am just aware that we use intuitions all the time, to know pretty much almost everything we know, and only under that background conscious reasoning is possible - and even then, conscious reasoning is intertwined with intuitions. I am providing examples of that. Just try to see how you can reply to this post. You intuitively know that you have a computer, a mouse, a keyboard, etc., that we have had an exchange so far with certain content, and so on. It's nearly everything you do and know. :)


ruby sparks said:
I'm not sure why you think that listing the cases where our use of intuition seems to be reliable says anything about other cases.
Because I am hoping you will realize that:

1. All of the cases in which human intuition fails are a really astronomically tiny proportion of those in which it succeeds.
2. You actually rely on intuition nearly always, and that is proper.
3. It would be improper to doubt an intuition without good evidence against it, given 1.

ruby sparks said:
For a 'gazillion' counter-examples, see: the history of marital (or even just personal) relationships. In other words, humans appear to endemically (and routinely) intuitively misunderstand each other, more or less all the time.
Not all the time, but a tiny fraction of the time. If the misunderstandings were as you describe it, humans would not succeed as a social species. We are an enormously successful social species, to a considerable extent due to our ability to understand each other. Moreover, when understanding fails, further use of our intuitions can solve the problem: clarification usually works (well, on line philosophy debates might be an exception ;), but that is highly unusual behavior for humans).

ruby sparks said:
That's just your claim. How do you know morality is on a par with colour?
That is the wrong question to ask. Rather, unless there are good reasons to distrust an intuition, we should not. So, why do you think it isn't? (I asked this above, with more details).


ruby sparks said:
Perhaps in 'going about my daily business' I don't have time to query my intuitions and I often act on them, and a great deal of the time that seems to work out quite well, but it is also true that I know that my intuitions (in the general sense) can often be wrong, so if there's time to pause and consider, I might not be so trusting of my intuitions as I am initially and instinctively. And that may be more the case for certain things and not others, so the strength of my trust in my intuitions about one type of thing might not be the same as for another thing or type of thing.
'Often' is a relative term. It is a tiny proportion of cases. And sure, it's nice to pause and consider whether one of your intuitions is failing, but I will say this:

1. Most of the time, you do not have time to pause and consider.
2. Even more importantly, when you do pause and consider, you are relying all the time on intuitions. You may be questioning one intuition or a few, using many more instances of intuitions to do so, and without even realizing it. It would be proper to isolate a specific intuition, but again, the general, standard, default case is to trust them.

That said, you are correct that some specific intuitions are weaker than others. Also, you may have some evidence against them, even if weak. That gives reason for further consideration, but not for stop trusting its verdicts in general. You need more than that to warrant abandoning one of them.

ruby sparks said:
When I consider intuitions in general, when I have time to do that and am not rushing hither and thither through my day with little time for reflection, I think of them as 'things that could easily be wrong'.
When you have time for reflection, you are unconsciously trusting your intuitions. They are things that can go wrong, but not easily. At any rate, you do trust them in general all the time (even when you are reflecting), so singling out one of them - such as the moral sense - would not be proper without good evidence.

ruby sparks said:
When I consider my intuitions about free will, self and consciousness, I can see from copious amounts of science that my intuitions can easily be and very often are awry.
Again, not easily. If that were so (about self and consciousness at least) we would not even be able to ponder these matters. Moreover, even when you see that they go awry, so see that only by relying on other, stronger intuitions, in addition to conscious reasoning.

ruby sparks said:
When it comes to my intuitions on morality, an additional problem is my thinking that morality is only in our heads.
I wouldn't say it's either a problem or an additional one. It's in our heads, but in a non-problematic sense (see above); if you think it's in our heads in a problematic sense, then I would ask why (more details above).


ruby sparks said:
Another additional one is that there is so much variety. Should I trust my intuitions, or yours, or his, or hers, or theirs?
Is there?

First, if there were so much variety, social coordination would be nearly impossible, given the results of moral disagreements. There are such disagreements, but they happen in a massive background of agreement.
Second, imagine Alice and Bob disagree about whether the traffic light was red, because he looked at the light 1 second before she did, so different colored light reached their eyes. You would not say that this indicates variety in color intuitions. What happens is that their visual apparatuses got different inputs, so different outputs do not provide evidence against shared intuitions. But now take a look at usual moral debates (e.g., read some of the threads here, in the Political Discussions forum). You will find in nearly all cases that have different inputs. They disagree about whether the people whose behavior they are assessing believed this or that, had this or that intention, etc.
Third, in other cases, people are not using their moral sense. Rather, they are using an unwarranted procedure to get moral beliefs (e.g., faith that an omnipotent, omniscient, morally perfect creator commands X, or whatever). Now, as you say, sometimes they also use their moral sense to pick and choose, but their assessments are contaminated by an untrustworthy source (a source we also know it is not to be trusted by its assertions on other matters, from the origin of the world to possessed pigs to multiplying bread, etc.).

So, generally (there are exceptions, arguably for psychopaths), you own moral intuitions should be okay. But you should be careful not to replace them by unwarranted sources (like 3), and also not to enter the wrong input, because if you do, you may very well get the wrong output, not due to a failure of your moral sense, but simply because you got the nonmoral facts wrong.
 
There are no errors in color perception. There are variations in perception. What we define colors as is based on population perception with partiture wavelengths arbitrary assigned to a color.
 
The AntiChris said:
Clearly one can't reliably assume too much about the intent of speakers from their gustatory claims. I'd say he same is true for moral claims.
I would not say so, no, because of the way people talk about morality - humans in the wild, not anti-realist philosophers when doing philosophy or cases like that.


The AntiChris said:
The problem, for me, is that whilst I accept that much of moral discourse can be interpreted as talking about something about which there is (or is believed to be) a fact of the matter, I don't see how you arrive at the view that "immorality (or permissibility, whichever it is) " is a property of the subject of evaluation.
You mean of the object of evaluation? (i.e., the person whose moral character and/or behavior we are talking about).
If so, then I do not have to arrive at it. It is the default position, and it is intuitive by how we use language.
But we can take a further look at it: When humans say something like, 'Bob is a Marxist', or 'Bob is ill', or 'Bob is intelligent', humans are making assessments about Bob. Similarly, when humans say something like 'Jack is a bad person', 'Jack behaved immorally when he did X', and so on, they are making assessments about Jack - about his character in the first case, about a specific instance in the second. Moreover, people are not making assertions about properties of the person they are judging that are also dependent on the speaker. This is observed in the way people talk and what happens when they disagree.

Now, when humans talk about the taste of things, they might or might not be making assessments of the sort. More to the point, they are talking about the things whose taste they evaluate, but in some cases, the properties of those things they talk about are properties in relation to the speaker (e.g., 'tomatoes are yummy' may talk about a property of tomatoes to cause some pleasure experiences in the speaker), whereas in some other cases, the properties are not limited to the speaker and extend to a larger group, probably all humans save for malfunctioning.

Granted, it is logically possible that human intuitions are mistaken and there are no such facts. But that is a view that would require considerable supporting evidence. Without it, I reckon the correct option is the default.
 
ruby sparks said:
Because....I am not sure if Angra (he can clarify) or anyone is saying that retribution for no reason at all is ok. That is to say, surely (I think) there must be a basis, a reason, even for 'natural justice' if it it subject to natural selection. It might be wrong to say that natural selection has 'reasons' (there is arguably no reasoning going on in blind natural selection) so perhaps we should use the word 'causes'.
There is a big difference between the causes of one of our faculties (e.g., what caused animals like us, with the moral sense we have), and our reasons for acting. Of course, our moral sense, including our intuitive moral sense, have causes. In particular, this resulted from the evolutionary process, and has to do with monkey societies.

On the other hand, just retribution - justice - is a reason in and of itself. It does not need a further reason. That is what I am saying. Let me present two scenarios, with some modifications to make them better and address previous concerns:


S1: Aliens abduct Bob and Jack, and abandon them on another planet, where there is life and they can hunt and gather. They made it clear to them that they will never go back to Earth, or contact Earth. They - correctly or not - accept that this is their situation. Bob wants to live on that planet, make the best of a bad situation. Jack pretends to go along, but it turns out that Jack is a serial killer. Jack takes Bob by surprise. He hits him in the head, and when Bob is trying to get up, Jack stabs him repeatedly, and cuts him in many places. He laughs as Bob suffers in a pool of his own blood. But Jack did not know that Bob had a small caliber gun - he just hadn't had time to grab it before Jack fatally wounded him. So, Bob knows he is dying and has no hope of surviving, but before losing consciousness for the last time, with his last breath he pulls his gun and shoots Jack in the chest, in retribution for murdering him (and not for any other reason). After that, Bob loses consciousness, and does not see the effects of the shot. But the bullet goes through the heart, so while it is small, it is enough. A few minutes later, Jack is dead, killed by his last victim Bob.


S2: Aliens abduct Bob and Jack, and abandon them on another planet, where there is life and they can hunt and gather. They made it clear to them that they will never go back to Earth, or contact Earth. They - correctly or not - accept that this is their situation. Bob wants to live on that planet, make the best of a bad situation. Jack pretends to go along, but it turns out that Jack is a serial killer. Jack takes Bob by surprise. He hits him in the head, and when Bob is trying to get up, Jack stabs him repeatedly, and cuts him in many places. He laughs as Bob suffers in a pool of his own blood. But Jack did not know that Bob had a small caliber gun - he just hadn't had time to grab it before Jack fatally wounded him. So, Bob knows he is dying and has no hope of surviving, but before losing consciousness for the last time, with his last breath he pulls his gun and shoots Jack in the chest, in retribution for murdering him (and not for any other reason). After that, Bob loses consciousness, and does not see the effects of the shot. It turns out that when he was abducted, Jack the serial killer was searching for potential victims. As a precaution, and as always, he was wearing a bulletproof vest. The small caliber bullet is nothing. Jack laughs again at his victim's failure to exact retribution - though Bob is unconscious by then so he can't hear Jack. Jack lives out the rest of his life on the planet, alone. But he likes being alone - he hates other people - and he enjoys recalling how he carved up and killed his victims. He gets off recalling how they died, some choking in their own blood, some pleading for mercy.

I would say:

The world of S2 is better than that of S1, because it is more just. Bob managed to give Jack some of what he deserved, in retribution for what he did to him. It is also better because Jack did not get to live happily ever after. He got what he deserved - well, part of it at least. Bob did not do anything wrong when he shot at Jack in retribution, in either scenario.

What is your assessment?
 
ruby sparks said:
Do you think other species, or the planet, or the universe, if any of them were capable, would share the view that humans being or not being retributive towards each other was either a good thing or a bad thing? Personally, I doubt the universe would even notice us and our little self-obsessions in the first place.
The planet and the universe are not capable. Other species might or might not be interested in studying us. If they're intelligent and they make spaceships, I think they may very well be curious enough to study us, as well as other species on our planet. They probably would not care about red or green, or about good or bad. They probably would care (if they are not AI; else, who knows) about some alien analog to good and bad. If they studied enough in detail, they probably would reckon that our just retributions is good, and that our red traffic lights are red - but they would have to study human brains and human visual systems in detail for that.
Not that they would care much about either, except as a matter of scientific interest.

But that does not speak against there being a correct answer in the moral case any more than in the color case. :)
 
ruby sparks said:
Intuitively, it seems that the middle ('brown') square on the top face is not the same colour as the middle ('orange') square on the nearest (to us) vertical face, and yet they are in fact the exact same colour. All of us are receiving the same input information, and it is all accurate information, and yet it results in the wrong intuition. This is not a malfunction of the human brain, it is a function of a normal human brain, and closely related to how it works, specifically how it works as a prediction machine that makes internal assumptions to inform its predictions. Some people still think that our colour perception depends on the accuracy of the external input information, but that does not seem to be the case.

It is true that it can be demonstrated, by changing the way the information is presented (if the image was on paper we could fold it over a certain way so that those two squares were side by side) that the two colours are in fact the same, so this example says nothing about there being facts about colours that can be agreed on, given information being presented in a certain way (or by using an independent/objective machine that measures colour values). It only shows us that we should not necessarily trust our intuitions about them.


Even after we know the colours are the same, by being given that additional information, verbally or by changing the image in some way or by being informed by the results of a machine measurement, we can't change the intuition when looking at the original image again. The implication of that is that we can't seem to 'unlearn' that incorrect intuition, and so it seems likely that it will persistently recur when we view coloured scenes in the real world, where there is no intention on anyone's part to highlight anything or to deceive us.

Given that these images are not on paper, it is debatable what the right instrument to determine color is. But let us say you do this experiment on paper. How do we know that they are the same color? On what do we rely? The answer is: on intuitions. We use our eyes. We just need to put the object in a different place. Sure, under unusual conditions, we might get optical illusions. That does not provide good reasons for generally not trusting our color intuitions, let alone for thinking that there is no fact of the matter about colors.


ruby sparks said:
I would like to revisit this, especially in light of the example above (albeit it is about conscious visual perception and not consciousness generally, or self, or agency, but it is nonetheless a related area of science).

I have noticed an apparent tendency on your part to waive away relevant evidence. You've done it a number of times, in favour of relying on intuitions instead.


Whether you are aware of it or not, there is de facto a large body of accumulated evidence from various sciences, mostly from the last 50 years, which is relevant to and at least undermines and calls into significant question many of the things you (and I) intuitively believe about our brain-stuff. That is a statement which I strongly feel is not really up for much debate, Angra, except by evidence-deniers.
Again, 'many' is relative. It's a minuscule proportion, for the reasons I've been arguing. And I do not waive relevant evidence away. Rather, I argue that it's a drop in the ocean.
 
ruby sparks said:
There seems to be the sort of consistency in the ordering of the responses there that we might call a 'moral fact' if we mean a moral, human, species-wide 'universal', apparently endemic/consistent, judgemental trait.

However, note that no judgements seem to go above 90% certainty (regarding acceptability of an option) I think, if I'm reading it right. So it is only the relative ordering that is 'universal'.

I'm wondering. Does that mean that we need at least two options to compare before deciding in a way that might be called 'universal' about.....anything in the moral domain, when we get into specific situations?
A few points:

First, these scenarios do not ask whether one of those choices is immoral. Rather, they ask people what they would do. People who agree that both courses of action are morally permissible and neither is praiseworthy will choose for non-moral reasons. That is a problem with the study. I will leave that aside because I seem to recall (a few years ago, I read several studies of this sort) that there are differences also when the moral questions are asked, though the percentages are different.

Second, there is a question about what the input is. People in different situations may intuitively add different details that may well be morally relevant, explaining the different assessments.

Third, leaving the above aside, these are cases in which people use their moral sense without time for further computation, even in situations that appear very difficult as they involve killing, letting more die, and so on. Preliminary moral assessments aren't necessarily good predictors of lack of convergence of assessments given enough time, moral discussion with other humans, and so on.

Fourth, our human moral sense should be expected to be robust enough to be able to handle realistic cases - otherwise, it would likely not have been adaptive. As for unrealistic cases, one could expect it would handle many, most anyone would come up with. But all? No, if you choose 'all', there will be cases in which there is no fact of the matter...which is not a problem, and is why I left room for some differences.

Let me give you an example. Surely, there is a fact of the matter as to whether an animal is a lion, right? Take Cecil. He was a lion. And so was his father, and grandfather, etc. Now keep going from father to father till you get the first ancestor of Dolly, which was not a lion. Let k be the total number of animals from Cecil to that ancestor, and let A(1):=Cecil, A(2):= Cecil's father, ..., A(k):= last in the chain.

Surely, A(1) is a lion, but A(k) is not. Using the word 'lion' in the usual sense, can we choose 1<j<k so that A(j) is a lion, but A(j+1) is not a lion? I think the answer is 'no'. There is no fact of the matter as to how many lions are in the chain. The word 'lion' is not precise enough to classify all animals into lions and not lions, in a way that is independent of speaker. But that does not mean there ordinarily is a fact of the matter as to whether an animal is a lion, how many lions are in a place, etc.

Maybe I'm mistaken about the lion case? I doubt it, but then, if you think so, I'll pick another case, in which the changes are still smaller, and eventually it should be clear that there is no fact of the matter.

My point is that in order to be a fact of the matter in nearly all or even all ordinary, real life cases, it is not necessary that there be a fact of the matter in all logically possible cases, or even all actual cases in the past, etc. Go back to the trolley problem, or a similar one, consider 'switch'. It's a missile going towards a space station. Is there, for any natural numbers n,m, a fact of the matter as to whether, all other things equal (i.e., the person deciding whether to switch do not know the people on board, neither event will cause human extinction, etc.), it is morally better to divert the missile going towards Space Station A with n people on board to Space Station B with m people on board, in order to save the n people in A?

The case is difficult, and I think the arguable options are:

1. It's always morally better to divert when n<m. It is never morally better to divert when m<n or m=n.
2. It's never morally better to divert.
3. There are infinitely many n, m for which there is no fact of the matter as to whether it is morally better to divert.

I'm inclined towards 3., but if I'm mistaken, I'm rather confident that with more effort I can construct a more convincing scenario if that is not good enough. Would that mean that there are no moral facts? Is that a threat to our ordinary, daily moral assessments? I say no, just as there is no problem in the lion case. Perhaps, they already got the 'no fact of the matter' case by presenting the usual trolley problem - though I'm not inclined to believe it, not without further thinking and discussion as I mentioned above. Still, this is not an ordinary case. People usually do not face trolley problems (and even if there were no fact of the matter about which actions is morally better, it may well be that there is a fact of the matter as to whether each is permissible, and both are).
 
The AntiChris said:
Clearly one can't reliably assume too much about the intent of speakers from their gustatory claims. I'd say he same is true for moral claims.
I would not say so, no,
Ok, we disagree.

The AntiChris said:
The problem, for me, is that whilst I accept that much of moral discourse can be interpreted as talking about something about which there is (or is believed to be) a fact of the matter, I don't see how you arrive at the view that "immorality (or permissibility, whichever it is) " is a property of the subject of evaluation.

I do not have to arrive at it. It is the default position, and it is intuitive by how we use language.
Ok, we disagree.

I don't share your intuitions so I guess by your lights I'm malfunctioning. ;)

Anyway, I've run out of ideas.
 
Ok, we disagree.

The AntiChris said:
The problem, for me, is that whilst I accept that much of moral discourse can be interpreted as talking about something about which there is (or is believed to be) a fact of the matter, I don't see how you arrive at the view that "immorality (or permissibility, whichever it is) " is a property of the subject of evaluation.

I do not have to arrive at it. It is the default position, and it is intuitive by how we use language.
Ok, we disagree.

I don't share your intuitions so I guess by your lights I'm malfunctioning. ;)

Anyway, I've run out of ideas.
Okay, so I'd like to ask a question too. Earlier in the thread, you said you supported some pragmatic responses to wrongdoing. But now I get the impression you're saying you do not have the intuition that there is a fact of the matter as to whether or not people engage in wrongdoing. Am I getting your position wrong?
 
Okay, so I'd like to ask a question too. Earlier in the thread, you said you supported some pragmatic responses to wrongdoing. But now I get the impression you're saying you do not have the intuition that there is a fact of the matter as to whether or not people engage in wrongdoing. Am I getting your position wrong?
Your question is ambiguous.

I think some things people engage in are wrong (shouldn't be done).

I don't think wrongness is a property of people's actions.


It's a fact of the matter that I think some things people do are wrong.

It's not a fact of the matter that things some people do are wrong independent of my opinion (evaluation).
 
me said:
The case is difficult, and I think the arguable options are:

1. It's always morally better to divert when n<m. It is never morally better to divert when m<n or m=n.
2. It's never morally better to divert.
3. There are infinitely many n, m for which there is no fact of the matter as to whether it is morally better to divert.
After further consideration, I think there is another alternative, namely that there is a simple relationship, like m>kn for some integer k.
 
Okay, so I'd like to ask a question too. Earlier in the thread, you said you supported some pragmatic responses to wrongdoing. But now I get the impression you're saying you do not have the intuition that there is a fact of the matter as to whether or not people engage in wrongdoing. Am I getting your position wrong?
Your question is ambiguous.

I think some things people engage in are wrong (shouldn't be done).

I don't think wrongness is a property of people's actions.


It's a fact of the matter that I think some things people do are wrong.

It's not a fact of the matter that things some people do are wrong independent of my opinion (evaluation).


But if there is no fact of the matter as to whether a person behaves wrongfully, then who are the people on which the state is to impose deterrence, incapacitation and/or restoration?
It seems to me you were saying it would be some of the people who behave immorally, but if there is no fact of the matter as to who behaves immorally, then I'm not sure how this proposal might work.
 
ruby sparks said:
I would like to revisit this, especially in light of the example above (albeit it is about conscious visual perception and not consciousness generally, or self, or agency, but it is nonetheless a related area of science).

I have noticed an apparent tendency on your part to waive away relevant evidence. You've done it a number of times, in favour of relying on intuitions instead.


Whether you are aware of it or not, there is de facto a large body of accumulated evidence from various sciences, mostly from the last 50 years, which is relevant to and at least undermines and calls into significant question many of the things you (and I) intuitively believe about our brain-stuff. That is a statement which I strongly feel is not really up for much debate, Angra, except by evidence-deniers.
Again, 'many' is relative. It's a minuscule proportion, for the reasons I've been arguing. And I do not waive relevant evidence away. Rather, I argue that it's a drop in the ocean.

I think you are mixing up two things.

1. The first is that by and large, we (along with almost every other evolved animal species) seem to navigate the world on a day to day basis pretty well using our faculties and intuitions. This is arguably true (I'd like to add a couple of important caveats but for simplicity I won't here).

2. The second is our understanding of what is going on when we do that, how it works and what is actually happening when it comes to things such as consciousness, self, free will, etc.

In that second case, the evidence that it is often and generally not what we think it is, from neuro/psych/bio/cognitive science etc, is not miniscule, it is abundant, in some cases endemic, and it has potentially significant implications for our understanding of ourselves. In a nutshell, we are generally wrong when it comes to that second case.

This is not just me saying this and it's not going to go away or not be the case just because you deny or try to minimise it.

Angra, the above is non-trivial. Everything we think we know is based on our brain. Understanding how the brain actually works is as close to getting to bedrock for everything else as is currently possible. Neuro/psych/bio/cognitive science is in some ways the exploration of that other, earlier, very famous attempt to get to philosophical bedrock, 'I think therefore I am'.

In pursuit of the facts about that, intuitions do not cut the mustard.

Bear in mind we are briefly talking about consciousness, self, free will, etc here and not morality. We'll get back to morality in a moment. And yes I know the two topics are related.
 
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