ruby sparks,
Your definition is that intuition is 'the ability to understand or know something instinctively, without conscious reasoning'. Let me present some examples:
Okays, so how do you know what objects are around you?
Intuition. You see them, and trust your senses. No conscious reasoning.
How do you know their color?
Intuition.
How do you know people around you have minds?
Intuition.
How do you know what you did a minute ago?
Intuition (you trust your memory; you do not reason).
How do you know, say, a dog or person is in pain?
Intuition.
How do you know a dog is threatening you?
Intuition.
How do you know a person is a Christian?
Intuition (they might tell you that, but you do not consciously reason your way to it; you just get it from their behavior, including affirmations of faith or not).
How does the scientist know that the measurements were such-and-such?
Intuition: memories + sight, etc.
ruby sparks said:
You don't need to defend or even restate the traffic lights scenario because I broadly accept it. What you need to do is show that your moral claim is a parallel to it. To do that you need to discuss your moral claim.
But my point is precisely that in both the color and the moral case, humans understand themselves to be talking about something about which there is a fact of the matter. Intutively, humans reckon there is a fact of the matter in both cases. Human intuitions should be trusted unless we have specific evidence against them. That is the parallel. You accept human intuitions in the color case, but rejects them in the moral case. Why?
ruby sparks said:
And why should I trust your intuitions, or even my own, to represent a moral fact?
Why should we trust our intuitions in any of the gazillion cases (see above)?
Answer: because that is our intuition, and the default position is to accept it. We should reject an intuition only with good evidence (empirical, logical, whatever) against it.
ruby sparks said:
First, when has religion been shown to malfunction in the moral domain?
First, religion has already been shown to cause malfunction in other cases. If there is a malfunction, they already are being exposed to something that causes malfunction in other cases. I have not found a similar problem in my own case.
Second, in other cases, they are not even using their moral sense. That's a malfunction already. For example, they believe that there is an omnimax agent who commanded that says they ought to X, so they reckon they ought to X. They do not use their moral sense to assess whether that is so. They believe it on faith, as they also believe Jesus walked on water, the Earth is young, etc. Clearly, that is not the right way to make assessments.
ruby sparks said:
How would you know if overall, religion is more moral or less moral than non-religion?
Many reasons, but for example:
Religion it fails to use the system that we have to make moral assessments: instead, people rely on faith to have those beliefs. Human intuition says there is a fact of the matter as to whether or not a behavior was immoral. For that to hold, we need to have a species-wide moral sense that can be used to make such assessments. Religions diverge. Suppose religion A says Bob should X because an omnipotent, omniscient, morally perfect creator says Bob should X. Religion B says Bob should not X because an omnipotent, omniscient, morally perfect creator says Bob should not X. Both religions are making unwarranted assessments about the creator, and also about morality, as they do not use a moral sense but faith.
ruby sparks said:
Second, how do you know there's a functional standard against which to note malfunctions (of any sort)?
The same way we know that people are ill: intuition.
But moreover, we make such assessments all the time, and generally have no problem finding that someone is ill. The same for many other examples (see above). Morality is just one of them.
ruby sparks said:
It seems to me that a lot of the time, you talk as if the existence of moral facts was self-evident (eg saying that the traffic light situation is parallel to it) instead of advancing your claim that this is in fact the case.
But why is it not self-evidence, but the color facts are?
How about, facts about illness and disease? Or about the existence of other minds? Or about fear, or hostility, or generally mental states of other people/animals?
Intuition all around, which is pretty much always the case. Plus reasoning in the form of observation of these facts about human behavior.
ruby sparks said:
So, we were doing Nazis killing Jews, and I asked a few specific questions related to that example. It isn't just among religious people, or among religious people acting for other reasons, that killing outgroup members (competitors) is/was a feature, so in some ways religion is merely a special case of a general. It's also common among several other animal species. Why should human apes be different?
I make an intuitive assessment. But also, religion/ideology works in a similar way. The people committing massacres in Nazi times were not using their moral sense, but following Nazi instead. When they used their moral sense, many of them recoiled and realized it was wrong. Others actually demonized their enemies, so they have beliefs about their enemies that were not true, and that partially were used to justify their moral assessments (i.e., false input).
Now, if I am in error, the proper conclusion would not be that there is no fact of the matter. Why would it? Humans and other apes have local rules in addition to species-wide morality, and also moral rules against violating local rules in many cases. If you are correct, the proper conclusion would be that the prohibition on killing outgroup members is just one of our local laws, and it's immoral for us to do it, but I made the mistake of thinking it was a universal law, so it was not immoral on their part. But that is very improbable. If you look at the pattern of behaviors, those killings generally involve things like demonization (false negative beliefs about what their victims did, want, etc.), and the use of religion/ideology instead of a moral sense.
ruby sparks said:
Do you know what is happening here, in this thread, Angra? You are not really getting anywhere with your claims, either about free will or universal morality, yet. That is what is happening, so far.
I know I am not persuading you, of course. The exchange might be helpful to others, now or in the future.
ruby sparks said:
I'm not doing free will with you any further. Science has thrown up shedloads of evidence that our intuitions are fundamentally awry regarding that, and self, and consciousness. The proportion, for those things is nowhere near miniscule. It is abundant. Human intuitions are endemically wrong about those things. An intuitive, colloquial, introspective understanding is inadequate, and has been repeatedly demonstrated to be inadequate.
Obviously, you are wrong. You rely on that all the time, even to be able to respond in this thread (e.g., you rely on intuition to know that we had this exchange in the fist place, clearly).
But I wasn't even trying to discuss whether there is free will, but using your rejection of it at data to show you that you reject moral intuitions. You reject them in other cases as well.
ruby sparks said:
On morality, yes, I might be at least questioning my moral intuitions. Why should I not think that my moral intuitions are possibly a combination of culture, environment and individuality, and not derived from moral facts?
No, unless you have good reasons to distrust your moral intuitions.