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If You Are Certain God Exists Why Prove It?

The notion that people should allow the supernatural the same weight we'd give other ways to explain nature is the weak point for me. The KCA is just being presented as supportive of that more general point: that philosophizing about the supernatural is rational, that dismissing the supernatural is dogmatism.

Whether the universe is caused or not, no amount of attack on materialism (aka "atheism" and "atheistic philosophy" and other misnomers; or on related "ism's" like naturalism or empiricism) makes the supernatural reasonable or lends support to EoG.

This case for the supernatural results with a mythological critter Jehovah as the first cause, which illustrates the lameness of this approach. Atheists do not "reject" Jehovah due to a doctrine of an "atheistic philosophy". That "atheistic philosophy" arises from what we all see in nature. The grounding assumptions work. The "theistic worldview's" assumption of the spiritual as having explanatory power is observed to not work. There is no conspiracy against God as a reasonable hypothesis, it's just that pragmatically it's not an explanation that helps complete the description of the phenomena we experience.
 
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p1. Miracles are a violation of natural laws.
p2. Natural laws are immutable.
p3. It is impossible to violate immutable laws.
c Therefore, miracles are impossible.

p1 Incorrect. To date miracles are not referenced by any science. By definition a miracle is from go or some agent. A false premise.
p2 Incorrect. All science theories, laws, and models operate within a set of operational bounds. Newton's laws operate accurately enough in our macroscopic reality. Quantum mechanics deals with the very small. Relativistic mechanics deals with very fast. Each has general boundaries for application. The are no immutable science outside of some philosophical argument. 'Natural Law' does not mean immutable, it means our secince models that predict and model the natural world. Laws do not define how reality operates. A common misconception.
p3 Incorrect. See p2.
c Incorrect. A false premise can not lead to a valid conclusion. Science deals with want can be demonstared, quatified, and measured. The supernatural can not.

1. Natural law is by definition a description of a regular occurrence.
2. A miracle is by definition a rare occurrence.
3. The evidence for the regular is always greater than that for the rare.
4. A wise man always bases his belief on the greater evidence.
5. Therefore, a wise man should never believe in miracles.

A better term is models instead of natural law. Natural law has a lot of subjective baggage and is a pejorative as used by theists.


1. Regular is ill defined. Is radioactive decay and particle emission regular or probabilistic? We do not knoe exactly when a particle will be emitted and its direction. Clarification needed.
2. By whose definition and what constitutes a validated miracle.
3. Incorrect. Quantum mechanics.
4;. Incorrect. An experienced investigator weighs all the evidence to draw a conclusion. The obvious is not always the answer.
5. Incorrect. A false premise can not lead to a valid conclusion.

p1 god exists
p2 the bible says god created the Earth.
p3. the bible is inspired by god
c if p1 and p2 and p3 are true, then god created Earth

A valid argument in form. It does not prove creationism in fact.

Adding p1 above, god exists, is always assumed a priori without proof.
 
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p1. Miracles are a violation of natural laws.
p2. Natural laws are immutable.
p3. It is impossible to violate immutable laws.
c Therefore, miracles are impossible.

p1 Incorrect. To date miracles are not referenced by any science. By definition a miracle is from go or some agent. A false premise.
p2 Incorrect. All science theories, laws, and models operate within a set of operational bounds. Newton's laws operate accurately enough in our macroscopic reality. Quantum mechanics deals with the very small. Relativistic mechanics deals with very fast. Each has general boundaries for application. The are no immutable science outside of some philosophical argument. 'Natural Law' does not mean immutable, it means our secince models that predict and model the natural world. Laws do not define how reality operates. A common misconception.
p3 Incorrect. See p2.
c Incorrect. A false premise can not lead to a valid conclusion. Science deals with want can be demonstared, quatified, and measured. The supernatural can not.

1. Natural law is by definition a description of a regular occurrence.
2. A miracle is by definition a rare occurrence.
3. The evidence for the regular is always greater than that for the rare.
4. A wise man always bases his belief on the greater evidence.
5. Therefore, a wise man should never believe in miracles.

A better term is models instead of natural law. Natural law has a lot of subjective baggage and is a pejorative as used by theists.


1. Regular is ill defined. Is radioactive decay and particle emission regular or probabilistic? We do not knoe exactly when a particle will be emitted and its direction. Clarification needed.
2. By whose definition and what constitutes a validated miracle.
3. Incorrect. Quantum mechanics.
4;. Incorrect. An experienced investigator weighs all the evidence to draw a conclusion. The obvious is not always the answer.
5. Incorrect. A false premise can not lead to a valid conclusion.
Thank you.
That was very informative.
:cool:
 
remez May I safest you read Sherlock Holmes and Hercule Poirot, and watch the old Perry Mason TV shows....
 
remez May I safest you read Sherlock Holmes and Hercule Poirot, and watch the old Perry Mason TV shows....

Or House? A differential diagnosis or two.

The absurdity of the character aside, I thought the presentation of group problem solving was good. Same with CSI and Bones.
 
I read Doyle's bio. He was an MD. I recall his having actually saved someone from the gallows, and he took on a few cases.
 
Your turn.

Thanks.




Here is best, because my time is sporadic at best.

We aren't still on the OP's topic, but nobody is trying to address that topic, so we aren't trying to hijack an ongoing discussion. I'm good with here.




The KCA (that seems to be your focus) is sound and valid.
...
• The Bicycle Argument:

P1: The sun will rise tomorrow.
P2: No, the sun will not rise tomorrow.
C: Therefore, you must buy me a bicycle.

...

If you present your "sound" and "valid" KCA, I will point out flaws.
I agree with you that the bicycle argument fails for the reasons you presented. But how is it a parody of the first cause argument? You provided no reasoning for the analogy.

You hadn't, at this point, presented your version of the first cause argument, so I could not yet explain the analogy.




Would your bicycle-parody-reasoning destroy……

p1. Miracles are a violation of natural laws.
p2. Natural laws are immutable.
p3. It is impossible to violate immutable laws.
c Therefore, miracles are impossible.

Or this reasoning

...

I don't want to spend time and effort on tangents. You present the first cause argument below, so I'll deal with that.




It seems that you are saying the all syllogistic reasoning is wrong by bicycle parody. I don’t get it.

No, I repudiate that interpretation. The bicycle argument does not impugn all syllogistic reasoning. It makes fun of wildly invalid arguments with suspect or even contradictory premises.




If you present your "sound" and "valid" KCA, I will point out flaws.
p1 Everything that begins to exist has a cause.
p2 The universe began to exist.
C: The universe has a cause.

Thank you.


Problems with P1: Everything that begins to exist has a cause.

- First, it looks like special pleading.

Why do those who believe in an unbegun god say that everything that begins to exist has a cause? If they believed in a blue god, would they say everything that isn't blue has a cause?

Either everything is caused or not. I don't know of any reason to carve an exception for things unbegun.

If you told me your tie pin is unbegun, I'd still believe that the reason it's here today is that it was here yesterday. And the cause of it being here yesterday was that it was here the day before. Wouldn't an unbegun tie tack has more causes than begun one, an infinite series of causes?

- Is there any reason to believe P1 is true?

Virtual particles begin without cause, right? P1 is contrary to the scientific consensus.

P1 seems to be false; the KCA seems to be unsound.


Problems with P2: The universe began to exist.- There's no reason to believe P2 is true.

I know people say the universe began at the big bang, but that seems to be a conventional expression. Hawking and Asimov said something like, "The universe began at the big bang -- or at least we can say that it did because we have no idea what happened before that."

More recently (though not terribly recently) an internet Christian insisted to me that scientists agree that the universe began at the big bang, that I went up on campus and found myself a cosmologist, and put the question to him: Is there a scientific consensus that the big bang was the beginning of the universe? He said, "Nobody knows what happened before the big bang. Nobody knows what happened before the big bang. Nobody knows what happened before the big bang."

I conclude, therefore, that there is no such scientific consensus. Christians tell me the universe began with the big bang; science does not.

- The KCA cannot be valid if it equivocates on the word universe, using it one way in the premise and another in the conclusion.

The first cause argument is about the ultimate beginning. Where did everything come from? Why is there something rather than nothing? It is about everything, the entire universe, everything that exists. This includes gods, if gods exist.

In P2, proponents of the KCA usually use "universe" as if it means "some things but not everything, certainly not gods." But when they say "universe" in the triumphal conclusion, they usually seem to mean the actual ultimate beginning of everything.

If the meaning of a word changes between P2 and the conclusion, the KCA is not valid.

If the meaning doesn't change, then "universe" means "some things" in both places, or it means "everything" in both places.

If the latter, if the conclusion is just that some things are caused, that's no big whoop. It's not news. We already know that some things are caused.

If the former, if the conclusion is important, if it is the announcement that everything has a cause, then the conclusion doesn't flow from the premises. The KCA isn't valid.

The KCA, then, is either trivial or invalid.

I like to keep it clear how much we're talking about when we say "universe" by substituting either allaverse or partaverse. If P2 means the partaverse began, and the conclusion means the allaverse was caused, that's equivocation. If the KCA validly argues that the partaverse began and therefore the partaverse was cause, that's trivial, a waste of our attention. To get to a valid conclusion that the real, actual, ultimate beginning of the allaverse was caused, P1 would have to establish that everthing is caused, not just some stuff.

Note: Remez, I'm not putting words in your mouth. You may not be equivocating. For you, the "universe" may be the partaverse in both places, or it may be the allaverse in both places. I don't know whether or which, and I'm certainly not trying to accuse you of having other people's faults. I'll take you at your word so long as you are consistent in your usage.

- What does "begin to exist" mean?

Let me stipulate -- for the purposes of this subsection of this argument -- that the big bang really was the beginning. Before the big bang, nothing. No time, no space, no matter or other energy, nothing.

But then, bang, and there was stuff.

That's a beginning, right? If stuff existed at time zero, but didn't exist before time zero, then stuff began.

That goes for gods too, unless we're special pleading. If gods didn't exist before the bang -- and we're stipulating that the didn't because there was no before -- and if they did exist after, then gods began. In which case, P1 stipulates that gods are caused.

Even if we didn't object to P1's special pleading, gods began. Therefore they are caused. Therefore they are not the first cause; the "first cause" must have an infinite regress of precursor causes. The universe did not begin. The first cause argument proves itself wrong.

There is no single meaning of the word "begun" for which gods didn't begin but the rest of the universe did.


Problems with C: The universe has a cause.

- I've already dealt with some of this above, under P2.

- No room for a cause.

If we're talking about the allaverse, it can't have a cause. To have a cause, it would have to cause itself. The allaverse is everything that exists, and there is nothing else. Nothing else to cause it.

- No time for a cause.

Some theists deal with this by saying causes needn't precede their effects. First, that is linguistic nonsense; it is not what we mean by "cause."

Second, to abandon the need for causes to precede effects is to abandon the need for a first cause. The big bang may be caused by an accident at the Large Hadron Collider that won't happen until next year.

- We are not bound by your imaginings.

If you say that everything is caused back to the big bang, and if you imagine that some magic kingdom or alternate universe precedes the big bang, that doesn't mean you get to invent rules for this alternate phase space where you think your gods live. You don't know whether heaven has time or logic or causation. You don't know anything about it, and we are not required to agree with your musings.

If your conclusion means only that some things are caused, we agree with that trivial claim.

If you claim that everything has a cause, that claim is patently false unless you denature the meaning of "cause," in which case the claim becomes meaningless or unproven.

If your claim is something like, "Everything but gods have causes, and gods caused everything else," then that conclusion depends on premises that suffer from special pleading, equivocation, and the assumption that we for some reason agree with the rules that you made up about your imagined precursor place, call it -- I don't know -- "Gods' quantum foam."





Brief intro…..I reason that the universe (by universe I mean, all of spacetime reality, the space time continuum to include all time, space and matter) began to exist.

I don't know of any reason to believe that.




Evidenced by the 2nd law of thermodynamics, expanding universe, cosmic radiation background, the galaxy seeds, relativity, the BGV theorem, all the failed cosmological models for and eternal universe, the absence of any viable cosmological model theorizing eternality in the past, etc.

We need either a scientific consensus, or else an argument so compelling that laymen can judge for themselves that there should be scientific consensus.

Naming a bunch of potential arguments does not accomplish either of those.

It would be fruitless for me to try to deal with those named-but-unexplained arguments, because if I do a good job of imagining what your argument might be, and then do a good job of refuting said argument, I can only expect you to say that I didn't represent you well, that your argument is not as I imagined it.

Nonetheless, I'll mention that the expanding universe and cosmic background radiation arguments only get us back toward the big bang. They don't even suggest that nothing happened before that.

And 2nd Law is a statistical thing. It has more force as the number of particles increases. Increasing the number of particles increases our confidence in 2nd Law's predictions at a remarkably fast rate. It is fair to say that big things behave according to 2nd Law.

The big bang started as a little thing. It's not strange for entropy to decrease in little things. That happens all the time.




I’m not claiming absolute certainty,

Not necessary.




I claiming reasonable certainty.

That's all I'm looking for. More than I'm looking for, really. Reasonable certainty would be lavish. I'll count myself in tall clover if you provide a well-founded suspicion.




So this is how that plays out in p2. I’m not asserting that I’m absolutely certain that the universe began, but that p2 is more reasonable than it’s alternatives……thus I’m reasonably certain that it began. Put another way…. I contend that it is far more plausible that the universe began to exist than the possibility that it is eternal in the past. Also to be clear….. I’m not asserting I know HOW it began, but that I’m reasonably certain THAT it began.

The way I see it, our choices are an allaverse (including gods, if gods exist) that began without cause or an allaverse that is eternal and unbegun. Each is the argument against the other. That is, proponents of infinite regress point at the uncaused beginning and say, "How would that happen?" And proponents of the uncaused beginning point at infinite regress and say the same thing.

What people believe depends on which version they find less palatable. I don't know of any argument stronger than, "I don't understand A, therefore B must be true."





In no way was that intro exhaustive, it was very brief, because I’m granting to you a higher level of understanding with the KCA. I was just hoping to avoid the obvious bogs I usually run into here. However, I’m ready to address whatever you desire.

Thanks, remez.

I have a well-founded horror of discussions in which each response is two or three times as long as what it's responding to. My post is plenty long already, and we're only two posts in.

Perhaps you can pick one or two points that you'd like to focus on, and direct your comments just to them. Then we'll go back and forth until we resolve those issues, and then go on to others.

I'm enjoying this. You're good to talk to.


A note on averting disaster:

This is a long post. I don't want it to disappear when I click Submit Reply. Worse, I walked away in the middle, watched some TV and came back to write the rest. I half expect to lose the whole thing when I try to post. So, I'm saving it to a Word document before trying to post. Yes, it should be a Notepad document, but I live for the adrenal rush of danger. Or I'm too lazy to try to find Wordpad.

Anyway, if readers of this post are inspired to back up their own long posts before posting them, that might save somebody some anguish.
 
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Thanks, remez.

I have a well-founded horror of discussions in which each response is two or three times as long as what it's responding to. My post is plenty long already, and we're only two posts in.

Perhaps you can pick one or two points that you'd like to focus on, and direct your comments just to them. Then we'll go back and forth until we resolve those issues, and then go on to others.

I'm enjoying this. You're good to talk to.
Ditto. I'll try to be quick, but thorough. Also I use “word” for my long posts. I keep all previous posts below present one below for quick and arcuate reference to the past. I keeps all the proper quote boxes in context without having to revisit each individual post. And I can work offline at my convenience.
Note: Remez, I'm not putting words in your mouth.
Completely understood. Your comment is refreshing. You are only attempting to address what you thought was my reasoning. Common misinterpretation errors occur, both ways. We are discussing the interpretations of each other’s reason, not forcing the words.
We aren't still on the OP's topic, but nobody is trying to address that topic, so we aren't trying to hijack an ongoing discussion. I'm good with here
I reason that a major assumption of the thread is that theists have no evidence for what they believe, thus I was addressing that issue. Therfore since that is still my goal you can feel at ease we are still on topic.
No, I repudiate that interpretation. The bicycle argument does not impugn all syllogistic reasoning. It makes fun of wildly invalid arguments with suspect or even contradictory premises.
I was just checking, because I often run into the counter that syllogisms are useless. Your post is seemed unclear to that end.
Problems with P1: Everything that begins to exist has a cause.

- First, it looks like special pleading.

Why do those who believe in an unbegun god say that everything that begins to exist has a cause? If they believed in a blue god, would they say everything that isn't blue has a cause?

Either everything is caused or not. I don't know of any reason to carve an exception for things unbegun.
I know there are too many thank you assertions here but this also needs noting. It is refreshing that you explained your special pleading and didn’t just simply assert it. If only the others could learn to do the same, at least after asking several times.

P1 everything that begins to exist has a cause.

This is the law of cause and effect. Sometimes referred to as the causal principle or the law of causality. It’s foundational reasoning. Foundational to science. To deny it would basically render your position unreasonable.
But …..
You are attempting to reason that this principle is constructed as a special pleading.
So……
1) It is not a construction….it is a recitation of an observed principle we all know to be basic reasoning.

2) There is no human intentional “carve out”. There is a logical exemption of things that don’t begin to exist. Thus there is no intent to carve out. Eternality is a reasonable exemption of the principle of cause and effect. After all we are not looking for the first effect.

3) If the universe were eternal it would not need a cause, because it did not begin to exist and then would itself be a candidate as the first cause. Now with that hopefully understood we need to look at history. For millennia the universe was strongly believed to be eternal. However, with the discovery of an expanding universe the strength for that belief came into question. Only 150 years ago is was reasonable to consider the universe eternal.
Now…
Juxtaposed with the understanding that the first cause argument predates the discovery of an expanding universe. Thus it is unreasonable to NOW assert special pleading because for millennia the universe was thought to be in the same category that you are now calling a “carve out”. What was carved out was the reasonability of the universe being eternal.
Further……………….

Either everything is caused or not. I don't know of any reason to carve an exception for things unbegun.
….as explained above. The principle of cause and effect has a reasonable exemption…..that which doesn’t begin to exist…… that which is eternal….that which is the first cause. If the universe were eternal it would have no cause.
- Is there any reason to believe P1 is true?

Virtual particles begin without cause, right? P1 is contrary to the scientific consensus.
1) in no way can you reasonably consider indeterminism the consensus view. David Bohm? This link addresses that “consensus” thought of yours….. https://www.wired.com/2014/06/the-new-quantum-reality/ …it is not offered as argument….only deeper background info. It is a secular good read, that’s all.

2) Indeterminism does not mean uncaused.
And…..
3) VP do not come into being out of nothing. They arise as spontaneous fluctuations of the energy within the quantum vacuum, which is an indeterministic cause of their origination.
So…………………this......
P1 seems to be false; the KCA seems to be unsound.
……premature. You need to rescue the reasoning of your offered defeaters. Because I sincerely feel I have defeated each defeater you presented, at least to a degree that my reasoning is more reasonable than your defeaters. But….. it ……is your turn to respond on that.
Now on to p2……………….
I know people say the universe began at the big bang, but that seems to be a conventional expression.
…..“say” seems to me to be a massive oversimplification and dismissal. The notion of a beginning is the most reasonable implication (most obvious intuition) of an expanding universe. It isn’t just said, it is reasoned. Einstein saw the obvious implication right away. I’m sure you know the event. History reveals the many scientists reason the same thing and strove to overcome it. So to just assert that it is a simple “saying” ignores the overt history regarding the implications (obvious intuition) of an expanding universe.
Hawking and Asimov said something like, "The universe began at the big bang -- or at least we can say that it did because we have no idea what happened before that."
“because” infers reasoning of one’s position. Just because their reasoning for that position was a misunderstanding does not render their position unreasonable. If time began at the moment of beginning, then there was no before in a temporal sense. But that does not eliminate and efficient timeless cause. Time is a physical feature of this universe.
More recently (though not terribly recently) an internet Christian insisted to me that scientists agree that the universe began at the big bang, that I went up on campus and found myself a cosmologist, and put the question to him: Is there a scientific consensus that the big bang was the beginning of the universe? He said, "Nobody knows what happened before the big bang. Nobody knows what happened before the big bang. Nobody knows what happened before the big bang."
Several thoughts there. You seem to have presented four defeaters as I see it.

1)The Christian “saying” was not asked to clarify the context further. Did you asked for further specification from that Christian? I could have said that in short, but could further clarify if asked. As I see it, it was a general statement regarding the obvious intuition that the universe began to exist and that even many scientists acknowledge that intuition. That is not to say that ALL scientists agree that it began. Hoyle, the originator of the term big bang, never agreed. That was to say the many prominent scientists recognize the most obvious intuition that it began. As I have stated earlier…..prominent cosmologists have begun to write books explaining how the universe began materially. They failed but the effort would indicate they did believe that it began. So I find your concern about that Christians comment to be insufficient as a defeater to the intuition that the universe began.

2) We have an issue regarding consensus being the ultimate determiner of what is reasonable. I’ll address that latter on in context.

3) The issue of “before” is misguiding….as discussed above.

4) “nobody knows” does not reasonable defeat that many are reasonably certain. As mentioned I’m not claiming absolute certainly. I can reasonably conclude that the universe began to exist without absolute certainty. I agree nobody knows with absolute certainty. But we are not talking about absolute certainty. So in between your two conversations the concept of reasonable certainty became one of absolute certainty. So ultimately I’m asserting there was a bit of equivocation in the reasoning you put forth there. A shift from reasonable certainty with the Christian to one of absolute certainty with the cosmologist. So you cannot use absolute certainty as a defeater here.

Again I’m addressing what I thought you were reasoning not trying to put words in your mouth.
Your turn to certainly clarify.

I conclude, therefore, that there is no such scientific consensus. Christians tell me the universe began with the big bang; science does not.
1) I agree that scientists will say that they are not absolutely certain that it began, but there seems to be a consensus that a beginning is reasonably certain. More on that latter.

2) Christian don’t simply “tell” with absolute certainty. They are reasonably certain that it began.

3) Science does not say anything scientists do. Just because they agree/have consensus…..that they are not absolutely certain that it began…… does not mean they are absolutely certain/have consensus that it did not begin. That is what you seem to be reasoning.
Next……
- The KCA cannot be valid if it equivocates on the word universe, using it one way in the premise and another in the conclusion.

Just to begin……I’m using the same definition through the syllogism. If you can specifically show me in my reason where I change definitions, then by all means spell it out, because I don’t see an equivocation.
But perhaps it is in what follows but I’m not specifically seeing it……and will address it if brought to my understanding.
The first cause argument is about the ultimate beginning.
yes
Where did everything come from?
Not everything. Logically there is something that is self-existent and has no cause. It has the power of being within itself. It is necessary. It cannot, not exist. Logically must be eternal.
Why is there something rather than nothing?
Slightly different argument…… Leibnitz.
It is about everything, the entire universe, everything that exists. This includes gods, if gods exist.
Not in any reasonable way.

This is where I see what I think is your confusion. I repeat….. Not everything. The exceptions are logically things that did not begin to exist. Logically there is something that is self-existent and has no cause. It has the power of being within itself. It is necessary. It cannot, not exist. Logically must be eternal.

The first cause must logically be necessary and not contingent. This is the slightly different Leibnitz argument regarding first cause. So Sagan’s urban myth of the universe……the universe is all there is, was or ever will be….is inaccurate (equivalent to your allaverse). For it includes the cause of the contingent universe which is logically false.
Further if you insist that first cause is part of everything that is an effect, then you would have no first cause. Also if you include God as part of the universe then then is no such thing as theism or deism. Theism has always asserted that a necessary God created the universe and is separate from the universe. Hence the common definition of universe I gave you. There is nothing more for us to reason through if your allaverse is assumed. Theism is eliminated by your definition of allaverse. You only have pantheism and atheism. You can certainly take that approach, but it wouldn’t be very reasonable, because there would be no first cause let alone a theist God. And in this context you would be begging the question.
In P2, proponents of the KCA usually use "universe" as if it means "some things but not everything, certainly not gods."
Absolutely. God and the universe are clearly two different things in the set of everything. God created the universe, thus how could he be part of the universe.
But when they say "universe" in the triumphal conclusion, they usually seem to mean the actual ultimate beginning of everything.
No. They logically don’t reason that the cause of the universe was part of the universe. Again to reason that the cause caused itself would be unreasonable, hence the whole of the reasoning for a first cause to begin with.
If the meaning of a word changes between P2 and the conclusion, the KCA is not valid.
I concur. But it is your reasoning that is forcing the equivocation on behalf of the theist. Theists have always (millennia) asserted that God is not part of the universe. Hence the common definition of universe that I gave you.
If the meaning doesn't change, then "universe" means "some things" in both places, or it means "everything" in both places.
Look at this closely. Particularly the two distinct words “everything” and “universe” You are conflating the words universe and everything. So in p1 “everything” means the set of all things to include both the subset of God and the separate subset of the universe. It does not mean that distinct subsets of God or the universe is the set of everything. Thus in p2 universe does not mean everything. It is a distinct reference to a subset of all things. So there is no equivocation on my part. You are conflating universe and everything to mean the same thing and they do not.

I know I don’t have to say this again but I feel safer saying so. I’m not putting words into your mouth. That is what I think you are reasoning. Your turn.
The KCA, then, is either trivial or invalid.
Not until you address the way you are seemingly conflating “universe” and “everything”.
For God and universe are two distinct parts of everything. Neither God nor universe is the entire set of everything. So in p1 when we assert the “everything”… God and universe are part of that set of everything. In p2 when we say that the “universe began to exist”. God is not part of that universe but is still part of the set of everything. Thus when the conclusion states that the universe needs a cause…..that does not mean everything in the set of everything needs a cause. It means the universe (a subset of the set of everything) needs a cause.
Further…..
Careful now…. God is a part of the set of everything even in p1. But p1 asserts “everything that begins to exist needs a cause.” Thus by the logic of p1 God does not need a cause, but that does not mean he is not a part of the set of everything.

Your turn on that section.
Next section…..
- What does "begin to exist" mean?

Let me stipulate -- for the purposes of this subsection of this argument -- that the big bang really was the beginning. Before the big bang, nothing. No time, no space, no matter or other energy, nothing.

But then, bang, and there was stuff.

That's a beginning, right? If stuff existed at time zero, but didn't exist before time zero, then stuff began.
Yes time, space matter and energy began to exist. And thus would need a cause. But note here I’m not reasoning for a material cause. Logic would now demand a timeless, spaceless, immaterial nonphysical efficient cause.
That goes for gods too
Only if your gods are material gods. You know….spacegoats, teapots, FSM. Or all the other pantheistic material gods.
unless we're special pleading.
Again that is forced by your misunderstanding that theists assert an allaverse. Thus it is your straw man that forces the special pleading upon the theist.
If gods didn't exist before the bang -- and we're stipulating that the didn't because there was no before -- and if they did exist after, then gods began. In which case, P1 stipulates that gods are caused.
No stipulation granted on that account.
No theist is asserting that God didn’t exist “before” the big bang. Theists assert that God is timeless, spaceless, immaterial nonphysical and the efficient cause of everything that began to exist. He is outside of time and responsible for time which began. God exists timelessly sans creation.
There is no single meaning of the word "begun" for which gods didn't begin but the rest of the universe did.
Eternal is your word …….well the concept of our reasoning here. I’ll say it again if the universe was eternal it would not have begun. I think that is pretty basic reasoning.
Problems with C: The universe has a cause.

- I've already dealt with some of this above, under P2.

- No room for a cause.

If we're talking about the allaverse, it can't have a cause. To have a cause, it would have to cause itself. The allaverse is everything that exists, and there is nothing else. Nothing else to cause it.
I concur. However I’ve never asserted allaverse. That was Uncle Karl’s urban myth.
- No time for a cause.

Some theists deal with this by saying causes needn't precede their effects. First, that is linguistic nonsense; it is not what we mean by "cause."
Spontaneous. Time began at its cause.
Second, to abandon the need for causes to precede effects is to abandon the need for a first cause. The big bang may be caused by an accident at the Large Hadron Collider that won't happen until next year.
Theism does not abandon the need for a cause. Your reasoning does not account for a logical existence of a spontaneous cause.

We are not bound by your imaginings.

If you say that everything is caused back to the big bang, and if you imagine that some magic kingdom or alternate universe precedes the big bang, that doesn't mean you get to invent rules for this alternate phase space where you think your gods live.
No magic kingdom. Just a timeless, immaterial, spaceless, efficient first cause. That is also reasoned to be personal, all powerful and all knowing….but that is not for here or in purview of what I’m reasoning right now. A God of that reasoned nature need not time, matter, or space to exist. Those of us within this universe need that, but we need not to reason that God needs that.

If your conclusion means only that some things are caused, we agree with that trivial claim.
The reasoning is carefully stated and confirmed in our experience. Everything that begins to exists needs a cause. Where does that infer everything needs a cause? Logically the first cause needs no cause. How is that trivial?
If you claim that everything has a cause, that claim is patently false unless you denature the meaning of "cause," in which case the claim becomes meaningless or unproven.
Overtly I do not reason that everything needs a cause, only things that begin to exist..
If your claim is something like, "Everything but gods have causes, and gods caused everything else," then that conclusion depends on premises that suffer from special pleading, equivocation, and the assumption that we for some reason agree with the rules that you made up about your imagined precursor place, call it -- I don't know -- "Gods' quantum foam."
It does not mean that either. The exemption is clearly reason in p1. Those things that don’t begin do not need a cause. Those that do begin logically need a cause.
Brief intro…..I reason that the universe (by universe I mean, all of spacetime reality, the space time continuum to include all time, space and matter) began to exist.

I don't know of any reason to believe that.
Then show me where I am incorrect……
The universe is the whole of space and all the stars, planets, and other forms of matter and energy in it….. https://www.collinsdictionary.com/us/dictionary/english/universe
1: the whole body of things and phenomena observed or postulated : COSMOS: such as
a: a systematic whole held to arise by and persist through the direct intervention of divine power…. https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/universe

The universe (Latin: universus) is all of space and time[a] and their contents,[10] including planets, stars, galaxies, and all other forms of matter and energy.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universe

As previously pointed out if universe includes God then theism doesn’t exist. That would be begging the question for your position.

Evidenced by the 2nd law of thermodynamics, expanding universe, cosmic radiation background, the galaxy seeds, relativity, the BGV theorem, all the failed cosmological models for and eternal universe, the absence of any viable cosmological model theorizing eternality in the past, etc.
We need either a scientific consensus, or else an argument so compelling that laymen can judge for themselves that there should be scientific consensus.

Naming a bunch of potential arguments does not accomplish either of those.
Also they are not technically arguments…….it evidence that supports my reasoning.
and
I think we already have that consensus for the reasonable person……..
By now, there’s scientific consensus that our universe exploded into existence almost 14 billion years ago in an event known as the Big Bang. …….. https://now.tufts.edu/articles/beginning-was-beginning
That was just the opening sentence ….great article.
another....from Vilenkin himself.....
It is said that an argument is what convinces reasonable men and a proof is what it takes to convince even an unreasonable man. With the proof now in place, cosmologists can no longer hide behind the possibility of a past-eternal universe. There is no escape: they have to face the problem of a cosmic beginning.
https://afterall.net/quotes/alex-vilenkin-on-a-cosmic-beginning/

and big time………….
https://reasonandscience.catsboard.com/t1297-beginning-the-universe-had-a-beginning

And I wouldn’t necessarily reason that we can only submit to an all or nothing consensus. People are volitionally and emotionally stubborn. You’ll always find some that will fight the consensus.

Your turn on that.
Nonetheless, I'll mention that the expanding universe and cosmic background radiation arguments only get us back toward the big bang. They don't even suggest that nothing happened before that
Again they are not in and of themselves arguments. There are evidence that support the most plausible prediction from the SBBM, that universe is past finite.
Also…
They don’t suggest at all what happened before the beginning.
And 2nd Law is a statistical thing. It has more force as the number of particles increases. Increasing the number of particles increases our confidence in 2nd Law's predictions at a remarkably fast rate. It is fair to say that big things behave according to 2nd Law.

The big bang started as a little thing. It's not strange for entropy to decrease in little things. That happens all the time.
Not sure what you are getting at there. Because it seems you are only reinforcing my reasoning. If the universe were infinite in the past we would be observing a completely different universe then the one we observe now. All the energy would be gone by now.
So…
Please clarify.
So this is how that plays out in p2. I’m not asserting that I’m absolutely certain that the universe began, but that p2 is more reasonable than it’s alternatives……thus I’m reasonably certain that it began. Put another way…. I contend that it is far more plausible that the universe began to exist than the possibility that it is eternal in the past. Also to be clear….. I’m not asserting I know HOW it began, but that I’m reasonably certain THAT it began.
The way I see it, our choices are an allaverse (including gods, if gods exist) that began without cause
Excludes theism out right. Thus I would not reason that at all.
And…..
That reasons the existence of an effect without a cause thus unreasonable.
or an allaverse that is eternal and unbegun. Each is the argument against the other.
Again I address the unreasonableness of an allaverse above.
That is, proponents of infinite regress point at the uncaused beginning and say, "How would that happen?" And proponents of the uncaused beginning point at infinite regress and say the same thing.
Agree, hence why I would not assert the existence of an allaverse.
What people believe depends on which version they find less palatable. I don't know of any argument stronger than, "I don't understand A, therefore B must be true."
That depends on the presense of a reasonable exhaustive list of possibilities. I don’t find the possibility of an allaverse remotely reasonable.
So FINALLY….I agree with…………
Perhaps you can pick one or two points that you'd like to focus on, and direct your comments just to them. Then we'll go back and forth until we resolve those issues, and then go on to others.

I'm enjoying this. You're good to talk to.
….right back at you on that one.
:cool:
 
Wiploc,

My last response was incredibly long. But it was a sincere effort to address everything. Now that I have, I really feel I can summarize that to a more reasonable length for easier discussion. However my time is limited for the next 48 hours. Thus I offer this alternative to you. Please just simply read my response for info sake and await for my shortened summery to respond. That way you can respond to both in your response to my summary. And potentially have 48 hours to simply reflect. I’m in no hurry. I’ll try to courteously inform you of sporadic schedule delays on my end if they will be over 48 hrs.

You of course may do as you wish and address it in part or its entirety any time you wish. I was only offering a hopeful help.
:cool:
 
remez is hereby awarded the honor of the longest post in the history of the forum.

remez, you can believe what you want. It is the foundation of modern western civilization, freedom of thought.

An exact origin of the unversed is not provable. If you believe the unversed had a first cause and it works for you, that is what freedman of thought is about.

The issue for us atheists is the long history of Christianity suppressing science that conflicts with theology, especially the Vatican. Science was free to go where it will as long as room was made for god as part of it.


The problem for Christians is not science itself. It is our modern culture of questioning all things. Christianity can no longer force a theological conformity.


The peculiar thing is that Christians reject a universe with no beginning, yet based on a few ancient lines of text believee in an eternal god.
 
The issue for us atheists is the long history of Christianity suppressing science that conflicts with theology, especially the Vatican. Science was free to go where it will as long as room was made for god as part of it.

"The Vatican suppressing science," well at least you seem to acknowledge theists DO know and understand science and...

haven't so much in history it seems, to be so suppressed or rejected as it's sometimes said:

List of Christians in science and technology

The problem for Christians is not science itself. It is our modern culture of questioning all things. Christianity can no longer force a theological conformity.

Science (neutral investgative method, oblivious to opinions) was never a problem to Christianity. Questioning all things ...sounds about right to Christians as well (who may also be scientists).


The peculiar thing is that Christians reject a universe with no beginning, yet based on a few ancient lines of text believee in an eternal god.

I'd believed you (plural) to be intellectual enough to understand the USE defined here, in the context i.e. 'beginning' is used by those at Cern, but perhaps I'm mistaken in that belief. It's peculiar that you (plural) think Christians claim ...creation (having been created)to mean God began with the creation, sort of putting strange words or alternative theology in the theist's mouth, so to speak. Christians do not claim the universe came from nothing as Klaus once said. The universe coming from nothing is worse than magic (WL.Craig said). It was never our claim!
 
"The Vatican suppressing science," well at least you seem to acknowledge theists DO know and understand science and...

haven't so much in history it seems, to be so suppressed or rejected as it's sometimes said:

List of Christians in science and technology



Science (neutral investgative method, oblivious to opinions) was never a problem to Christianity. Questioning all things ...sounds about right to Christians as well (who may also be scientists).


The peculiar thing is that Christians reject a universe with no beginning, yet based on a few ancient lines of text believee in an eternal god.

I'd believed you (plural) to be intellectual enough to understand the USE defined here, in the context i.e. 'beginning' is used by those at Cern, but perhaps I'm mistaken in that belief. It's peculiar that you (plural) think Christians claim ...creation (having been created)to mean God began with the creation, sort of putting strange words or alternative theology in the theist's mouth, so to speak. Christians do not claim the universe came from nothing as Klaus once said. The universe coming from nothing is worse than magic (WL.Craig said). It was never our claim!

Some theists know science but the caveat is always it comes from god.

I went rto Catholic schools and in retrospect it was a very good primary education.

The RCC has always been a mix of science and theology, with theology always dominating. The Vaican has a working observatory and in the 90s read a piece in Scientific American by a Vatican astronomer.

Descartes was educated by Jesuits.

In the 90s the pope said given the scientific evidence, evolution may be part of god's plan. Evolution is any easy issue to mix with theology.

Cosmology is another matter, witness the recent threads. If you believe the bible is inspired by god then the creation story is literal. If you look at it as metaphor then evolution can fit in. The BB Theory could also be framed as god's action.

All cultures through history have creation and origin myths.

Rome had Romulus And Remus. North American Native American have theirs.

Christians try to place creation on a logical and scientific basis and fail. The forum is quiet now, but in the past there was a steady stream of theists both debunking science and putting faith on a scientific basis.
 
Wiploc,

My last response was incredibly long. But it was a sincere effort to address everything. Now that I have, I really feel I can summarize that to a more reasonable length for easier discussion. However my time is limited for the next 48 hours. Thus I offer this alternative to you. Please just simply read my response for info sake and await for my shortened summery to respond. That way you can respond to both in your response to my summary. And potentially have 48 hours to simply reflect. I’m in no hurry. I’ll try to courteously inform you of sporadic schedule delays on my end if they will be over 48 hrs.

You of course may do as you wish and address it in part or its entirety any time you wish. I was only offering a hopeful help.
:cool:


I'll wait and see what you say.
 
The peculiar thing is that Christians reject a universe with no beginning, yet based on a few ancient lines of text believe in an eternal god.

The peculiar thing is that atheists accept a eternal universe yet reject a God with no beginning.
be clear.
We reject a god with no beginning WHEN that's a crucial part of the argument insisting that the universe must have had a beginning. It's not 'peculiar' to reject a special case argument.
 
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