So......does that include patriarchy, or not? Because 'not existing' and 'existing, but not for claimed reasons' are obviously two different things.
No, they are not that obviously different.
Jesus didn't exist as Christians portray him. The son of god did not appear in Palestine and environs around 2,000 years ago nor were any miracles performed.
There is probably a historical person (or persons) who roughly correspond to 'Jesus', but that person was not the son of god (because there is no god). You might say 'Jesus did not exist as Christians portray him' or even 'Jesus did not exist', because the latter can be short hand for the former.
The patriarchy, when defined as an ongoing and historically omnipresent force of men running society to benefit from the subjugation of women, does not and never did exist. It's complete, shameless nonsense.
But does that not open the way to saying something like, 'patriarchy was, and still is to some degree depending on location, a social phenomenon/structure and an issue, but Feminism, by and large, and especially in modern, western contexts, overstates and oversimplifies it to the point that it skews the matter'?
In other words, can you concede to Feminism that they are addressing a real thing, but just doing it ...'badly'?
No. To concede something means you were skeptical or disagreed and now you've changed your mind.
I said the structures that some feminists claim existed, existed. There is no doubt, for example, that until the middle of the 19th century in England, any real property that married women inherited from their families automatically became the property of her husband. But this was not set up to benefit men over women, but in acknowledgment that a married man was responsible for the welfare (and debts) of his wife. Some feminists are so mindlessly deranged on this point they think women had the equivalent status of chattel slaves.
Feminists also think the patriarchy, as they conceive it, benefits men
by subjugating women. This is absurd beyond comprehension. The idea that I benefit because some man somewhere harassed a woman is
fucking sick. Yet feminists, and normies poisoned by feminist rhetoric, will mindlessly say
I do in fact benefit, and that arguing I don't benefit is
another sign of the patriarchy.
I would just add one thing. If (if) the difference in speaking fees here is normal, ie reflects a not unusual difference between two keynote speakers when one is simply more famous (and as often therefore more expensive) than the other, then it may not have anything to do with race at all.
No. You are thinking like a normal human being, not a critical race theorist. Any difference between fees paid to white speakers and black speakers is influenced by white privilege and racism. Racism is present all the time and everywhere, and white people benefit from it in every interaction. This is not a straw man of DiAngelo's position; it's the heart of it.
A normal human being sees DiAngelo's higher fee and thinks 'she has manufactured for herself a valuable brand, so she's getting the best fee she can get, no problem'. But a critical race theorist sees only the difference between black and white. Any policy or event that results in racial inequity (the reasons are
literally irrelevant)
is a racist policy. Not 'could have resulted from a racist policy'. Not 'unfortunately continues a pattern of racism that has already caused differences'. No. It
is a racist policy.
Thoughtcrime does not entail death. Thoughtcrime
is death.