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120 Reasons to Reject Christianity

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The Bible makes a lot of claims about supernatural stuff. A supernatural god created this universe, and humans, and since humans were misbehaving, god cloned itself in human form, and had this clone killed in brutal fashion (human sacrifice) so it could forgive humans. It also had the clone perform many miracles, like rising up from the dead and flying out into space and presumably out of the universe under its own power.

The Bible was authored by an anonymous person in the Bronze Age, and later copied and embellished by other anonymous people. None of the historians of the time reported the supernatural events, or even paid any attention to the magic clone performing said events. There is no contemporary evidence to support the Biblical claims. None.

Human history is full of stories of gods and demons who also perform(ed) supernatural events. Some of these stories are much better documented than the Bible, some with named witnesses who testified to these supernatural events.

Behind his endless walls of text, Lumpy is actually making the following assertions:

1. It is more probable that the supernatural stories of the Bible are true, than they are the product of mythologizing. No matter how weak the evidence.
2. None, or almost none of the supernatural stories in other religious books are true, they are just mythology. No matter how good the evidence supporting them.
3. Historians routinely consider supernatural events to be valid based on single source anonymous writings.
4. It is ok to knowingly believe in lies if the lies promise you an eternal afterlife.

That's it. Lumpy will not respond directly to questions because he has nothing to support his assertions, and he knows it. So he keeps posting the same endless walls of text, over and over and over, pretending they have not been refuted over and over and over.

I find this behavior to be dishonest in the extreme, and I have no respect for people who behave like this.
 
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Get used to it! Stop looking for excuses to exclude something you wish didn't exist!

What the hell are you talking about?

The NT is a collection of STORIES.

Stories are ten a penny. Calling a small subset of stories 'unique' remains special pleading even if some people are not capable of thinking things through logically to reach that blindingly obvious conclusion.

But don't take my word for it; Simply point out the criterion by which we can see that the NT is unique, but which could not be equally well applied to a different, but similar set of stories.

"stories"? Like the story that Columbus crossed the Atlantic?

Couldn't a "similar set of stories" be Plutarch's Lives or Herodotus' Histories, along with Homer's Iliad, or the Book of Mormon

Aside from the fact that you mixed fiction with non-fiction, yes, a "similar set of stories" to Homer's Iliad or the Book of Mormon.

and thousands of other works which present "stories" of events which are said to have happened?

Do you comprehend which word in your sentence is the key? I'll give you a hint, it's "said."

If the Gospels are basically a "collection of stories" and that's all

The question isn't whether or not it's a "collection of stories." That's merely tautological. We all know the NT is a collection of stories. The question is whether or not the magical events/people/situations depicted in the stories actually happened.

No? You can't handle that?

EVERYONE can "handle that." That's not the issue.

Well then, if you want to get serious and narrow it down from simply a "set of stories" to something more specific

To something that would prove the claims of magic were actual and not simply made up cult bullshit like thousands of other cult claims before and after.

E.g., this "set of stories" in the Gospels reports events said to have happened at a particular point in history, giving the date and location of the events. I.e., in the 1st century in the area of Galilee-Judea, and it names certain historical figures, like Pontius Pilate and Herod Antipas and John the Baptist, thus placing the reported events into a particular time and place.

Yeah, again, we know. This doesn't make them unique at all. Every Stephen King novel gives the date and location of the events and the names of certain historical figures, like Presidents and Celebrities, thus placing the reported events into a particular time and place. And not a single Stephen King novel begins with, "Although this is a work of fiction..."

Iow, every Stephen King novel is identical to what you are talking about.

And not ancient legends, but reported RECENT events (i.e., recent to the date of the writing)

Again, identical to any Stephen King novel.

And further, the date of writing has to be somewhat near to the time of those reported events, like no more than 100 years later.

Why would that make any difference? Oh, right, special pleading. And Stephen King novel.

Then get serious and give us a good example of something similar for comparison.

ANY STEPHEN KING NOVEL.

If there's nothing reasonably close, then the Gospel documents really are UNIQUE

How in the world does having been written within 100 years of the events make the claims of the events and magical attributes of the characters in the NT stories "unique"? That is quite possibly one of the most transparently ridiculous claims I'm yet seen and that's saying a LOT.

and NOT MODERN writings, but before 1500 (1600) AD. Also, we're not talking about the 20th century.

Why not? Oh, right, special pleading. By the way, we don't have any physical evidence that the gospels were written during those time periods; those dates are surmised by scholars, not based on papyrii that have dated to those time periods.

To be serious you have to go back a few centuries to find something comparable.

Oh, to "be serious" we have to do that? Ok, got it. And why exactly do we have to "go back a few centuries"? What difference would it make if we were to compare a Stephen King novel written forty years ago to one that was written yesterday?

We have to go back to a period when publishing was much more costly and much less got published, for reasons of economic limits and lack of resources

Why?

So, what example of literature, a few centuries back or earlier, do you have in mind for comparison?

The Torah. The stories of Mithras. The King Arthur legends. Every story to have ever been told about any of the Greek and then Roman gods, Egyptian gods, the Buddha...

Whatever literature it might be, the Gospels should be placed alongside it and judged by the same standards and given the same presumption of credibility/non-credibility, for that "genre" of literature

It is. They are all mythological; fictions--just like every Stephen King novel--that may borrow real life names and figures and places, but which depict fantastical, magical events/attributes that are fictional; did not actually happen; lies; whatever other word you want to use for "This event never really happened and/or this person does not actually have any supernatural abilities" etc.

You know, just like a Stephen King novel?

So, once you've identified an example of "similar" literature, then we can figure out what the "special pleading" rhetoric is about

It's painfully simple and does not require any such examples. Special pleading is when you say that YOUR shit doesn't stink while everyone else's does, just because you say so.

What reason is there to exclude ANY literature from this category

From "fiction"? No reason at all, as that is what it is.

We should rely on ALL such documents for history, and then, in particular cases we can still judge that this or that claim in the document is erroneous. And there are NO documents which are 100% reliable.

"Reliable" as in "the claims of magical beings and magical attributes are real"? No, there are none. Magic isn't real.

Clear?
 
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The Torah. The stories of Mithras. The King Arthur legends. Every story to have ever been told about any of the Greek and then Roman gods, Egyptian gods, the Buddha...

You forgot my favorite story, that of Hanuman, the monkey god who could fly and lift mountains. And according to Wiki, the stories of Hanuman and his exploits are documented in various writings from Hindu and Sikh traditions that are far more numerous than any Bible story. Why believe in a puny god-clone when you can worship the real thing, a monkey god with magical powers?

But Lumpy will probably claim that Hanuman can't be real because he is not mentioned in the Bible.
 
No, there were no BOOKBURNINGS or other suppression of anti-Jesus evidence during the early Church period.

Stop making up stories!

The early Church did not destroy evidence of any alternate Messiahs, burn books, suppress evidence to disprove the Gospels, and other such rubbish.

There's no evidence for any of these claims. You could just as well claim that the moon-landing never happened, and all the evidence proving it never happened was destroyed by the Establishment. Or by "The Church" or by the International Zionist Conspiracy.

Just as with other works, such as Julian's  Against the Galilaeans, the only reason we know the work existed is that Christian refutations of Celsus' arguments still exist. In the time when Christianity was the state religion of the late Roman Empire, all of the originals were destroyed.

No one "destroyed" this or other such books. Millions of books perished because not enough copies were made. Nothing survived unless copies were made.


We can be certain that many other works critical of Christianity existed, but were extirpated from the historical record.

No evidence of it whatever. You rely on fairy tales to support your faith. 99% of the writings perished because they were not copied. You can't cite any evidence for these paranoid claims.


As Heinrich Heine said, "Wherever they burn books, in the end they will also burn human beings." Certainly that's true of Christianity. What does it say about a religion, or any philosophy, when they burn not only all criticisms, but the critics as well?

Not in those early centuries. You're copying and pasting the history of the Reformation back onto the period before 500 AD. There's no evidence of any bookburnings back then.

Actually if you look hard enough, very hard, you will find one reference to a pagan library burned in Antioch at about 360 AD. But you must search for the original document. There was a mob which went out of control and burned a pagan TEMPLE. They tried to save books from a library inside the temple.

Other than this one incident, there is no evidence whatever of any Church bookburnings. Nothing by the Council of Nicea or Constantine or other Christian emperors.

There was persecution of heretics, after 300 AD, and destruction of temples and statues. But no bookburnings or targeting of books to be destroyed. You have no sources for any of this.

This one case in Antioch was a mob out of control, not the Church or the Emperor.

There is only one other "Christian" bookburning you can cite, Acts 19:19, where books on divination were burned. Destroying divination books was part of the law, for possible legitimate reasons, because some of them contained dangerous formulas to cause explosions, and there were many accidental deaths caused by persons experimenting with the formulas in such books. They were condemned as "the devil's work" and sometimes burned.

Except for this one incident in Acts 19, and the mob scene at Antioch in 360, there's no evidence of any Christians burning books prior to the Reformation period.
 
Yep - more double standard hypocrisy.
Making up fantasmagorical conjecture about the early Church burning manuscripts and how the Gospel was faked by the Romans and how no Christians were martyred.

..all the while insisting on hard corroborated, independent proof for Jesus' miracles.
 
The evidence for the miracles of Jesus is superior to that for other acclaimed miracle legends, myths, prophets, heroes, etc.

As has been pointed out numerous times in previous posts.


The NT is a collection of STORIES.

Stories are ten a penny. Calling a small subset of stories 'unique' remains special pleading even if some people are not capable of thinking things through logically to reach that blindingly obvious conclusion.

But don't take my word for it; Simply point out the criterion by which we can see that the NT is unique, but which could not be equally well applied to a different, but similar set of stories.

"stories"? Like the story that Columbus crossed the Atlantic?

Couldn't a "similar set of stories" be Plutarch's Lives or Herodotus' Histories, along with Homer's Iliad, or the Book of Mormon

Aside from the fact that you mixed fiction with non-fiction, yes, a "similar set of stories" to Homer's Iliad or the Book of Mormon.

We assume works like these are fiction. Maybe they are. But there's also some fact, and also in many other "fiction" works.

If you're starting out from the basic premise that these and ALL such works are 100% fiction, and anything having any resemblance to them also is 100% fiction, then of course you can toss out virtually any literature you don't like, based on your emotional bias.

But not everyone else is required to accept this dogmatic premise you're imposing.

There are thousands of "narrative" works of literature which contain a mixture of fact and fiction, including "historical" writings. Some might resemble epic poetry in some ways, but that doesn't make them 100% fiction, as you are pretending.

There is nothing unreasonable about someone reading the Gospels as reports on 1st-century events which can be studied critically to determine what is fact and what is fiction in those accounts. It is not required by science or scholarship for everyone to reject them arbitrarily as 100% fiction as you're demanding.


It's reasonable to read the Gospels as partly fact and partly fiction, and compare them with other accounts of the historical events, rather than ban them from consideration as debunkers demand.

It's appropriate to place them alongside all other works of literature claiming to report historical events, including the official "historical" writings, and judge the content based on each item, each "story" or narrative or episode, considering that some of them might be partly true, or even totally true.

And yet almost certainly there is some fiction in these accounts, as there is some amount of fiction in virtually every ancient writing, no matter how reliable. So a reasonable person can analyze them piece by piece to separate the fact from the fiction, and believe some of it, or most of it, or only 10% or 5% of it.

If you can't stand people doing that, and insist that they must reject the Gospel accounts as 100% fiction, then that is your problem. They are not required to accept your bias, no matter how much you pound your fist on the table.

Given this freedom for each individual to do their own thinking, rather than yield to your dogma that these have to be 100% fiction, it's reasonable to place these writings, the NT, etc., alongside all the other literature, including Homer, the Book of Mormon, the Histories of Herodotus, the Gita, the Old Testament, Plato, Cicero, the Koran ---- there is virtually NOTHING in all the literature which they cannot be compared to, for trying to judge what is fact and what is fiction.

You can't just flush it all down the toilet saying it's all "fiction" -- It's a mixture of fact and fiction, and there's nothing wrong with thinking people going through any of the literature to try to figure out what really happened historically and what is probably just fiction.


. . . and thousands of other works which present "stories" of events which are said to have happened?

Do you comprehend which word in your sentence is the key? I'll give you a hint, it's "said."

Like Herodotus "said" the Persian Wars happened, yes. Those historians "said" a lot of things happened. Maybe most of it did happen, but we determine that by examining all the facts, not by arbitrarily putting some literature in the "really did happen" category and others in the "did not really happen" category. In all cases, someone "SAID" it happened.

We can look at ALL this literature, not just the ones approved by you -- i.e., ALL the ones in which alleged events are recorded, and we can make judgments about what really did happen and what did not.

This is the category the Gospel accounts belong in. I.e., the category of literature in which the writers claimed some events happened. Maybe they did happen, maybe not. Probably some did and others did not really happen. We can try to distinguish, and we'll never get it 100% correct. There will always be some guesswork.

And, after considering ALL the facts, it's not unreasonable to put the Jesus miracle acts into the "fact" category, though there is some doubt, as there is usually doubt about many of the ancient events.

But first, we have to recognize that the Gospels go into this category of literature which claims certain particular events happened in history. Right along with all the other literature making such claims, including Homer and Tacitus, poets and "historians" and orators like Cicero and hundreds of others. It's not true that ONLY Herodotus and Thucydides are sources for the historical events. There are many NON-historians who are also legitimate sources for the events, including some religious writings, and political propagandists, and philosophers, and prophets, etc., who were on a crusade for this or that.

Just because they had a bias, or a slant, like most of the "historians" did, does not mean they are unreliable as sources for the events of the time.


If the Gospels are basically a "collection of stories" and that's all

The question isn't whether or not it's a "collection of stories." That's merely tautological. We all know the NT is a collection of stories.

Yes, claims that certain events happened. Like the claims of "historians" who are sometimes right and sometimes wrong in their claims of what happened. They all have their "stories" to tell, some of it factual, some of it fictional.


The question is whether or not the magical events/people/situations depicted in the stories actually happened.

Some of it did and some did not. For the "miracle" claims we need extra sources.


Well then, if you want to get serious and narrow it down from simply a "set of stories" to something more specific

To something that would prove the claims of magic were actual and not simply made up cult bullshit like thousands of other cult claims before and after.

These are "stories" claiming something happened, just like the "stories" of the historians are claims that something happened. We have to understand by "stories" that this includes both the true stories as well as the fictional ones. All of them are CLAIMS that something happened. And at the outset we cannot arbitrarily dismiss any of them as fiction.

We have to examine ALL the claims to determine what really did happen. And in many cases we cannot figure it out, but in other cases we can make a good judgment.

You cannot arbitrarily INSIST that these accounts cannot be compared to the accounts of the historians. We have to put BOTH into the same category, as claims about events which happened, and one by one determine in each case which claim is likely true and which one fiction.


E.g., this "set of stories" in the Gospels reports events said to have happened at a particular point in history, giving the date and location of the events. I.e., in the 1st century in the area of Galilee-Judea, and it names certain historical figures, like Pontius Pilate and Herod Antipas and John the Baptist, thus placing the reported events into a particular time and place.

Yeah, again, we know. This doesn't make them unique at all. Every Stephen King novel gives the date and location of the events and the names of certain historical figures, like Presidents and Celebrities, thus placing the reported events into a particular time and place.

So there's evidence that the particular Stephen King events really did happen? And it's corroborated in multiple sources, like the miracles of Jesus are reported in 4 (5) sources? He names who and where and when it happened? Do you want to give an example? If the evidence is all there, then maybe the event really did happen. You'll have to supply us with the example.

Does he say President Clinton was pounced on by a monster and eaten, and the "Bill Clinton" we saw later was really an impostor? planted by aliens from somewhere? What's the scenario? If there's evidence that it happened, then give us the evidence. Where are the accounts of it?

2000 years ago there were no Stephen Kings to provide such stories. The ancient history examples we're considering happened at a time when only .0001% of the "stories" were published that are published today. (Maybe only .0000000001%.) It's rather pointless to compare modern published stories today to the ancient published accounts. Today EVERYthing is published by comparison to ancient times when there was no publishing industry, and no bizarre stories published like they are today.

So if you want to get serious, you'll offer us something from ancient times, rather than modern examples which are so dissimilar and unuseful for our topic here.


And not a single Stephen King novel begins with, "Although this is a work of fiction..."

How do you know the "novel" is not true? The ancient Alexander Romance is called a "novel," and yet most of the stories in it contain more historical fact than fiction.


Iow, every Stephen King novel is identical to what you are talking about.

If you're serious, you'll give us an example. Tell us the event he claims happened, and when and where it happened. He names real people? says bizarre things happened to them? on certain dates at certain places he tells in the story? Maybe it really happened, if you're so sure that he gives all the evidence. And if he says it really happened. Based on what you're saying, there's no reason we should dismiss it as fiction.


And not ancient legends, but reported RECENT events (i.e., recent to the date of the writing)

Again, identical to any Stephen King novel.

Then you're saying the events in Stephen King novels really happened. You're saying all the evidence is there, the names and dates, all corroborated, and from multiple separate sources, like we have 4 (5) sources for the Jesus miracle acts? If his novels are simply reports of bizarre events which he claims really happened, and all supported by evidence, then they must have happened, according to you. You're saying there's no difference between his reported events and those reported on the Nightly News.

Why don't you get serious and offer us something from past history, so we have something for a legitimate comparison? Why can't you do that? We're talking about events 2000 years ago, when there was no publishing industry. If the Gospel accounts were possible back then, there ought to be other accounts also, similar to them. So we have a legitimate example for a comparison.

That you can't offer anything else but a 20th- 21st-century example is further evidence that the Gospel accounts describe a unique event, where miracles really did happen, and that this was extremely rare in history. If it's not unique as a case of real miracle events which happened, then you should be able to offer another example from the ancient world, instead of having to fall back on modern publishing, where every miracle claim imaginable has been published 100 or 1000 times.


And further, the date of writing has to be somewhat near to the time of those reported events, like no more than 100 years later.

Why would that make any difference?

All historians agree that written accounts closer to the actual time of the events reported are more reliable. You should be able to figure this out on your own.

I.e., not 1000 years later. or 500 years.


Oh, right, special pleading.

Just chanting "special pleading" and other meaningless slogans doesn't resolve anything. Why are you unable to give us an example from ancient times of a miracle story written reasonably close to the time the event allegedly happened? There's nothing wrong about asking for this. Just because you're asked to provide something that has credibility does not mean there's a "special pleading" fallacy happening.


And Stephen King novel.

No, that's acceptable, for something close to the actual event. You're saying he wrote his account of Bill Clinton being eaten by a monster -- or whatever event you're talking about -- and this was reasonably soon after the bizarre event.

In the ancient world it was very normal for historical events to first be recorded 50-100 years later. So within 100 years is a reasonable time span maximum between the alleged event and the first written account of it.

But the inadequacy of your Stephen King example is that it's not comparable to literature written 1000 or 2000 years ago, an example of which would be much more appropriate (and honest of you) to offer for comparison.


Then get serious and give us a good example of something similar for comparison.

ANY STEPHEN KING NOVEL.

That you can't give an ancient example for comparison proves you have nothing serious to offer.


If there's nothing reasonably close, then the Gospel documents really are UNIQUE

How in the world does having been written within 100 years of the events make the claims of the events and magical attributes of the characters in the NT stories "unique"?

It shows that the miracle stories in them are not a result of legend-building or mythologizing, as miracle legends always require longer than that. No? Then give an example of miracle legends which developed in a shorter time period than that.


That is quite possibly one of the most transparently ridiculous claims I'm yet seen and that's saying a LOT.

Other miracle legends are the Apollonius of Tyana legend, the Simon Magus legend, the Hanina ben Dosa legend, the Honi the Circle-Drawer legend. Not to mention the Hercules and Apollo and Zeus legends, pagan heroes, etc. All required centuries to develop.

Why can't you come up with one which emerged in LESS than 100 years?


. . . and NOT MODERN writings, but before 1500 (1600) AD. Also, we're not talking about the 20th century.

Why not? Oh, right, special pleading.

No, in modern times EVERYTHING gets published, as I pointed out before. It's the extreme availability of modern publishing, a million copies per minute, at so little cost, that makes it so easy to explain the emergence of modern bizarre tales and miracles beyond limit.

So, just for the sake of controlling all the variables, what's wrong with you offering an example from the ancient world, or prior to 1000 or 1500 AD, so we can have a better comparison and eliminate all those variables we can't keep track of?

Why can't you come up with such an example? You have a problem?


By the way, we don't have any physical evidence that the gospels were written during those time periods; those dates are surmised by scholars, not based on papyrii that have dated to those time periods.

It's reasonable to accept the consensus of scholarship on the dating of the documents. If your theory requires that we reject the findings of scholarship, it's not a reasonable demand. You can't demand that we all reject scholarship in order to make room for your theories about what should or should not have happened in the 1st century.


To be serious you have to go back a few centuries to find something comparable.

Oh, to "be serious" we have to do that? Ok, got it. And why exactly do we have to "go back a few centuries"?

To avoid all the variables due to the huge volume of modern publishing in contrast to the very small volume in the 1st century. Or in the 10th century.

What is your problem with coming up with an earlier example than Stephen King, for which there is nothing comparable in the 1st century? Why are you so handicapped in your thinking that you can't come up with an example? Is your theory so warped and twisted that it relies on false comparisons? If it has any legitimacy you should be able to offer an example.


What difference would it make if we were to compare a Stephen King novel written forty years ago to one that was written yesterday?

No, to one written 500 years ago. Give us a document at least that far back, when there was much less publishing. Probably no author like Stephen King could have gotten published that long ago.

We can explain the existence of bizarre stories today, with modern publishing, in contrast to 1000 or 2000 years ago. As we come to more recent times, we see a greater volume of goofy and bizarre stories getting published.

So, what's wrong with eliminating such a variable as this, and using examples from the ancient world for comparison to the miracle stories in the Gospels? What's your problem with meeting this reasonable request? Doesn't it expedite the "debate" to eliminate unnecessary variables like this one?


We have to go back to a period when publishing was much more costly and much less got published, for reasons of economic limits and lack of resources

Why?

To find examples comparable to the Gospel accounts, written during a time when so little was published and there were no Stephen Kings.

You're claiming there is other literature "similar" to the Gospels and which apparently have to be fiction. But all you have to offer is Stephen King, which is not really an example of "similar" literature.

A 20th-century spook story is not "similar" to a 1st-century claim of a miracle-worker healing the blind and lepers and rising from the dead.

Even if there is a theoretical "similarity," there are too many variables, such as the extreme vast volume of wild stories in modern times which get published vs. zero such stories being published in the ancient world.

If there is something from the ancient world which is comparable, then why can't you offer it for comparison? Why do you insist that only a 20th-century story can be found to compare the Gospel accounts to?

The vast differences, the huge cost of publishing in the 1st century vs. today, all these variables make such a comparison ludicrous. What is your problem that you refuse to offer an ancient example for comparison? If your theory is legitimate, why can't it offer an example which would eliminate these unnecessary variables.

The more you refuse to offer any, the more obvious it is that you have nothing to offer and that your theory is without substance.


So, what example of literature, a few centuries back or earlier, do you have in mind for comparison?

The Torah.

OK, finally! (It takes an Act of Congress to make you finally get serious.)

The Torah won't do, because all the miracle stories in it were not recorded until many centuries later after the alleged event. 500 years or longer for all those stories of Moses and Elijah etc. This was much longer than necessary for legend-building to have occurred, which would explain where these fiction stories came from.



This site https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mitra_(Vedic) identifies Mithras with Varuna, some kind of sea or sky god dating back to the Creation of the Universe. Certainly thousands/millions of years prior to the writings. Like Krishna and the others who might have been historical are 1000+ years earlier than the writings, or thousands of years earlier.

But it's confusing to determine what events happened with Mithras, i.e., his miracle deeds as particular acts, like the Jesus acts happening near 30 AD. If you want to tell us which particular miracle legend you have in mind, and give us the date of it and the earliest written record of it, we could take you seriously. But this looks like another phony example of ancient tales for which there is no document anywhere near the time of the alleged event.

It's not clear what miracle act Mithras did, or when it happened. Is this the same character who slaughtered a bull and sprinkled its blood around? Anyway that itself is not a miracle act. We need an example of what miracle deed he performed. You need to dig that up and get back to us. How many centuries of time elapsed between his miracle deeds and the written accounts of it?

The Jesus miracle legend began at about 30 AD, when he lived, and the written accounts we have are from about 55 AD to 100 AD. See? That's all we need from you. Tell us when Mithra lived, what he is said to have done, and when the written accounts are dated. It's not rocket science.

It is so ludicrous to compare the Jesus stories in the Gospels to ancient legends like this one for which there is no serious evidence. Is this all you can come up with?


The King Arthur legends.

Maybe some of them are true. But we can dismiss the miracle stories, because there's no source for these until 400+ years after the alleged events.

But there's no reason to dismiss "King Arthur" as fictional. Maybe he did exist, but under a different name. This example shows that many of the legends can be partly factual as well as fictional. They are not 100% fiction.

But the "King Arthur" sources are too far removed to be taken as serious evidence for miracle claims.


Every story to have ever been told about any of the Greek and then Roman gods, Egyptian gods, . . .

All these too are far removed, as possible real events, from the written record about them. At least 1000 years for all of them. Maybe several thousand years. It's very difficult to establish the likely date of the events, if they happened. They might be partly true stories, but we have no serious evidence for the miracle events. They are laughable as comparisons to Jesus in the Gospel accounts.

The Jesus miracle events, if they happened, took place at around 30 AD, and we have written sources for these events from 55 AD to 100 AD. A total of 4 (5) separate sources.

This is the kind of information we need from you about these other miracle events you claim we have evidence for in the ancient world. So far you're "O for 5."

. . . the Buddha...

"O for 6."

All the miracle stories about the Buddha were written at least 300 years later than the alleged events happened. These (fiction) miracle claims can be easily explained as a result of legend-building over that time span.


Whatever literature it might be, the Gospels should be placed alongside it and judged by the same standards and given the same presumption of credibility/non-credibility, for that "genre" of literature

It is. They are all mythological; fictions--just like every Stephen King novel--that may borrow real life names and figures and places, but which depict fantastical, magical events/attributes that are fictional; did not actually happen; lies; whatever other word you want to use for "This event never really happened and/or this person does not actually have any supernatural abilities" etc.

You know, just like a Stephen King novel?

So you admit that your theory falls flat without using the 20th-century example of Stephen King as your only example.

You're saying that if Stephen King had lived in the 1st century, we today would have scrolls of his, reporting similar miracle stories to those in the Gospels, and millions of believers in the Stephen King miracle stories would have formed various religious cults, similar to "the Church" over these 2000 years.

A much better theory is that "Stephen King" did exist in the 1st century (and 2nd and 3rd, etc.), but such potential writers never got published, because most people didn't believe such sensationalist stories -- like they don't today, but in those days such stuff did not get published, unlike today when every imaginable bizarre story gets published. 2000 years ago they did not have the luxury to publish such entertainment.

That's a better explanation of the Stephen King literature as fiction which could be published in modern times but could never have been published in ancient times.

That's why we need a serious example from you, taken from ancient times rather than the 20th-/21st-century.


So, once you've identified an example of "similar" literature, then we can figure out what the "special pleading" rhetoric is about

It's painfully simple and does not require any such examples.

translation: you have no serious examples to offer.


Special pleading is when you say that YOUR shit doesn't stink while everyone else's does, just because you say so.

No. MY "shit" is ancient accounts of events, identified to be at a certain time and place in history, for which we have legitimate written accounts, like we have for many historical events. But "everyone else's" is lacking in evidence, as you have shown.

You're pretending to give comparable examples and obviously have none. Your only examples are of reported miracle events many centuries prior to any written account of them, always leaving a long period during which mythologizing could easily occur and create the miracle legends.

So your definition of "special pleading" is that there is evidence for one, but no evidence for the other, and the side having the evidence is thus engaging in the sin of "special pleading." Well, I plead guilty to the sin of offering evidence for my belief in those events and citing the lack of evidence for the other beliefs, such as the examples you have offered.


What reason is there to exclude ANY literature from this category

From "fiction"?

No, from the category of all literature making claims about past events having happened. There are millions of such documents claiming something happened in the past. All those documents should be considered together, including the Gospel accounts, which make such claims, and they should all be considered and critiqued and studied to determine which events really happened and which reported events are fiction.

But for some reason you want to arbitrarily exclude from this consideration and criticism this one group of documents, the Gospels, suppressing anything they claim, excluding them from the discussion, censoring their content as out of bounds, because they have to be fiction only, regardless of any evidence which might show otherwise.


No reason at all, as that is what it is.

So these accounts must be condemned as fiction, out-of-hand, regardless of any evidence, and censored from any discussion of what events happened 2000 years ago.


We should rely on ALL such documents for history, and then, in particular cases we can still judge that this or that claim in the document is erroneous. And there are NO documents which are 100% reliable.

"Reliable" as in "the claims of magical beings and magical attributes are real"?

Some of the events may have really happened. Others not. We can look at each one to determine the truth in each case. We don't need to censor the whole document and suppress everything in it because of your dogmatic premise that it all has to be fiction, because it's dangerous to probe into such questions and to doubt the debunker-pundits who are authorized to prescribe to us what is wholesome for us to believe and what is not.


No, there are none. Magic isn't real.

Clear?

Yes, don't ask questions, don't probe any further, accept the debunker dogma about these ancient accounts which say some things which are not supposed to be said.

Got it.
 
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If real Magic was possible, people raised from actual death, someone who can actually walk on water, actually turn water into wine at will, etc, etc, there should be some indication of that possibility in the physical world....not just what is said in old scrolls or folklore. Yet there is not. We only have old scrolls and folklore.
 
Lumpy said:
*snip irrelevant nonsensical special pleading rantings* It's reasonable to read the Gospels as partly fact and partly fiction

Ok. Copy and paste verbatim every section that is fiction in GMark and explain how you know it is fictional.
 
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The early Church did not destroy evidence of any alternate Messiahs, burn books, suppress evidence to disprove the Gospels, and other such rubbish.
Depends on what you mean by 'early'. Notice that I specified "when Christianity was the state religion of the late Roman Empire"- but you should also go read Acts 19:19. Book burning was certainly not the invention of Christianity; but they did plenty of it. For instance see http://www.jesusneverexisted.com/theodosius.html:

In January 381 Theodosius issued the first of fifteen edicts directed against heretics and pagans. Over the course of the next forteen years, the master of the Roman world, chosen by God, sanctioned the destruction of non-Christian temples and sanctuaries; the burning of heterodox writings; and the exile or execution of recalcitrant polytheists and all who refused to believe, or at least to profess, the truth. Though never entirely eliminated, sectarian Christians lost possession of their churches and were forbidden even to assemble together.

I do grant that the Orthodox Church and other 'sectarian Christians' were not as fanatical about destroying pagan and heretic writings as were Catholics. But many of the early Catholic Church fathers bragged about how they persecuted pagans and heretics, destroyed their temples and churches, and burned their writings.

See also http://www.badnewsaboutchristianity.com/ca0_suppress.htm-

Other important historical texts also suffered from tampering. For example Josephus recorded that a Judæan revolt (the First Jewish Revolt of AD 66) had been triggered by the killing of James, the brother of Jesus. The relevant passage does not occur in surviving manuscripts of Josephus, but authoritative Christian sources (both Eusebius and Origen) quote it. It would appear that the passage was edited out of the text by the Pauline line, which had an interest in minimising the importance of James.

We know of many so-called heretics only through the works of their Christian enemies. The works of Helvidius are lost, and we know of them through the writings of St Jerome. Jerome thought that virginity was better than marriage (the line that came to be regarded as orthodox), while Helvidius held that Mary and Joseph had had a normal married life and that Jesus had younger brothers and sisters. As Jerome's line came to be orthodox his ideas are well documented while those of Helvidius are not. Similarly, we know of Gnostic ideas mainly through the writing of their mainstream Christian enemies. Marcion's ideas for example, or a distorted version of them, are known through Tertullian's work Against Marcion. Marcion's own writings are "lost", destroyed by the rival Christian faction that we now call orthodox. When Gnostic writings are recovered, as at Nag Hammadi in Egypt, it frequently turns out that Gnostics did not believe what "orthodox" critics said they believed. And of course in their writings the roles are reversed. The Gnostics see themselves as holding the true line, while the line that is now held to be orthodox is represented as merely another heretical faction*.

As Christian doctrine developed, important early Christian writers came to be regarded as heretical, and their writings were destroyed. In this way the mainstream Church sought to root out any suggestion that its own version of orthodoxy was flawed. For example the book known as 1 Enoch was once regarded as scripture. It failed to be accepted into the biblical canon in the West, and was subsequently "lost". In the Ethiopian Church, however, it was accepted as scripture and so survived to be rediscovered by Western Christianity in modern times. Numerous gospels and letters, also "lost", are referred to in surviving documents. Origen mentioned a Jewish apocryphal work called the Prayer of Joseph, which might have shed considerable light on Jewish ideas about semi-divine men, but it has been "lost"*. Origen was a prolific writer but was himself later condemned as a heretic. Consequently, not one of his scriptural commentaries has survived in full.

Eusebius refers to writings by one Symmachus that cast doubt on the gospel attributed to Matthew* — writings that have since been "lost". He also mentions the neo-platonist Porphyry, who is known to have written fifteen volumes against the orthodox line, exposing the scriptures as fraudulent (he knew what modern scholars have independently discovered, for example that the book of Daniel could not have been written when it was purported to have been ). He also pointed out that the apostles could hardly have been infallible if they quarrelled with each other as the New Testament said. His works were banned as soon as the Empire became Christian , and all fifteen volumes were "lost". Writings explicitly opposed to Christianity were also destroyed. The work of Aulus Cornelius Celsus, Truth Established, has also been "lost". Our knowledge of it comes from Origen's attempt to refute the book's arguments in Contra Celsum. Similarly we know of the Emperor Julian's criticisms of Christianity in his treatise Adversus Christianos only because of Cyril of Alexandria's attempts to refute them.
 
And just for shits and giggles, I'm plowing through your entire post to find anything else (beyond "certainly there is some fiction") of any substance...

And, after considering ALL the facts, it's not unreasonable to put the Jesus miracle acts into the "fact" category, though there is some doubt, as there is usually doubt about many of the ancient events.

So you are claiming that the "miracles" attributed to Jesus actually happened--i.e., a non-fiction--and that some of the "ancient events" are what's in doubt? I want to be VERY clear on what you're claiming is non-fiction as opposed to what you will be detailing as fiction.

Skipping more irrelevant nonsense to:

The question is whether or not the magical events/people/situations depicted in the stories actually happened.

Some of it did and some did not. For the "miracle" claims we need extra sources.

"Extra sources" meaning coming from outside of the cult? And are you trying to claim that someone retelling someone else's story constitutes a "source," extra or no?

As it stands, there is only one "source" we could point to for the passion narrative and that's whoever originally made it up. We can't even point to whoever wrote GMark (widely regarded as the first to write the story down) as we don't know who he was and, as you indicated, it is assumed (not proved; assumed) that he wrote it around 70 CE, which is alleged to be about forty years after Jesus' death.

We can't point to Paul as a secondary source, since, by his own admission, he wasn't there and claimed he saw a "vision" which is useless, particularly since his "vision" contradicts the story as written in GMark (there is no resurrection in Gmark; it ends with a young man sitting in Jesus' tomb claiming Jesus was "risen"--which does not mean resurrected--and is down in the town so go say hello).

The later synoptics are just retelling the story from GMark, which is itself supposedly a written version of a story told among the cult in the "oral tradition" years prior.

Iow, we don't know who the source of the story originally was, we only know what later writers have claimed they were told about the stories. It's hearsay based on hearsay based on...


Well then, if you want to get serious and narrow it down from simply a "set of stories" to something more specific

To something that would prove the claims of magic were actual and not simply made up cult bullshit like thousands of other cult claims before and after.

These are "stories" claiming something happened

Yes, and the "something" they are claiming are magical things and beings that we know aren't real and could not have actually happened.

If you claim you saw a ghost, all anyone can do is say, "Ok, that's what you claim you saw." It doesn't matter if you then told a hundred other people and they all then said, "Lumpy claimed he saw a ghost."

Hell, even if one hundred people stepped forward in unison and all claimed they saw the same ghost on the same night doing the same things, that still does not just automatically prove (a) ghosts exist or (b) that what they saw actually was a ghost.

It doesn't matter how many centuries have passed in regard to the claims, so why do you keep insisting that it matters?

We have to examine ALL the claims to determine what really did happen.

You keep repeating this tautology as if (a) there is an original claim (there isn't) and (b) we haven't already examined the claims. We have. The claims made in the NT are hearsay; anecdotal; primarily anonymous; made by people already in the cult; include fantastical, magical beings and abilities and events; and without any physical corroboration or sources from outside the cult.

Those are ALL reasons to reject any claims made in the "stories."

Yeah, again, we know. This doesn't make them unique at all. Every Stephen King novel gives the date and location of the events and the names of certain historical figures, like Presidents and Celebrities, thus placing the reported events into a particular time and place.

So there's evidence that the particular Stephen King events really did happen?

Yes. There really was a President of the United States (several of them in fact); and children have actually walked on railroad tracks and found bodies; and gone to proms; and drunk soda called Pepsi....

And it's corroborated in multiple sources

Thousands of sources corroborate the existence of a state called Maine and Pepsi and Presidents and proms...

like the miracles of Jesus are reported in 4 (5) sources?

Oh, I'm sorry, are we now talking only about magical, supernatural events, because which 4 (5) sources reported miracles of Jesus? You'd better not say Mark, John, Matthew or Luke (or Paul), because not a single one of them are sources. None of the authors--whoever they were--were there, so the best you could possibly say is you have only four anonymous authors who each wrote their version of a story told to them by someone else.

That's not a source. A source is someone who actually witnessed the event or at least can present corroborating evidence for the claim that an event occurred. Saying, "Someone told me it happened" in no way constitutes corroborating evidence.

If it did, then I am your God, because this guy you don't know said so.

If the evidence is all there, then maybe the event really did happen.

And if I said, "It was a story told by somebody else's grandparents, that I heard from somebody else who also heard it from somebody else and I just wrote it down from my own memory"?

Does he say President Clinton was pounced on by a monster and eaten, and the "Bill Clinton" we saw later was really an impostor? planted by aliens from somewhere? What's the scenario? If there's evidence that it happened, then give us the evidence. Where are the accounts of it?

And if that were the exact story I was told and then told you and I said, "I don't have any evidence that it happened, you'll just have to accept my word for his word that it happened and I heard it from 500 other people, but none of them wrote it down, just me"?

The rest of your post is just this same sophistry repeated so I'll go back to reiterating you must copy and paste from GMark (I'll make it easy for you and limit it to just one of the gospels) exactly what is fictional and detail how you know that it is.
 
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Btw, Lumpy, in case it isn't obvious already, I will be repeating this until you do it, so to save us all time and bother, do it : copy and paste from GMark exactly what is fictional and detail how you know that it is.
 
Some of it did and some did not. For the "miracle" claims we need extra sources.

"Extra sources" meaning coming from outside of the cult? And are you trying to claim that someone retelling someone else's story constitutes a "source," extra or no?
Yes and no.
When it comes to Joseph Smith's miracles, Lumpy is skeptical about the attestations of people who were part of Smith's cult, and for good reason.
When it comes to the Jesus Miracles, Lumpy is certain that non-cultists transmitted the stories orally, with great precision, until someone finally got around to writing them down.
And the gospels are multiple sources, so the y corroborate each other. That's how he explains bits apparently copied one from another, that different people wrote different recordings of the real events.
It doesn't matter how many centuries have passed in regard to the claims, so why do you keep insisting that it matters?
That's part of Lumpy's special-case approach to religious texts.
Stuff recorded too soon after an event (J. Smith) is almost certainly influenced by the con man who pretended to perform the miracle.
Stuff recorded way, way too long afterwards has almost certainly been influenced by mythmaking. People exaggerate stories when they tell them over certain amounts of time, but they would not lie or exaggerate during a magical window that Lumpy has identified.
This is a period long enough after the event that only eyewitnesses will still be talking about it, but before anyone will dare introduce fictitious details, because if they did, eyewitnesses would be around to say, "Hey! That did not happen!"

Liars are apparently much like bacteria.
Where floor-dwelling amoebas observe a ten-second rule before they attack dropped food, liars observe a time period before they will contaminate a story with myth...
 
like the miracles of Jesus are reported in 4 (5) sources?

Oh, I'm sorry, are we now talking only about magical, supernatural events, because which 4 (5) sources reported miracles of Jesus? You'd better not say Mark, John, Matthew or Luke (or Paul), because not a single one of them are sources. None of the authors--whoever they were--were there, so the best you could possibly say is you have only four anonymous authors who each wrote their version of a story told to them by someone else.
Yeah, Lumpy also likes the shifting goal post game. Sure there are 5ish major writers of the NT (not counting the people who used Paul's name to create more Pauline letters). However, there are not 4(5) sources that "reported miracles of Jesus". Lumpy likes to also spend time suggesting that having multiple writers repeating the same general story is important. Ergo, he's willing to toss out the whole magical Jesus birthing narrative as it is just from Matthew and Luke. Yet, the Gospel of John only shares 2 miracle (non-healing) stories with some of the other Gospels (feeding of 5000; and walking on water). So it really doesn't add another source for Lumpy's Miracle Max healer. Neither does the Pauline letters. Sure the letters talk of the death/resurrection story, but not the oh so Lumpy Miracle Max healer part. So it is really down to 2(3) sources. And Lumpy really doesn't like the 2 Source Hypothosis
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two-source_hypothesis
 
Btw, Lumpy, in case it isn't obvious already, I will be repeating this until you do it, so to save us all time and bother, do it : copy and paste from GMark exactly what is fictional and detail how you know that it is.

You also might try quoting exactly which of the verses and tales from GMark are definitely or probably historical, and demonstrate why we should agree with your opinions.
 
Btw, Lumpy, in case it isn't obvious already, I will be repeating this until you do it, so to save us all time and bother, do it : copy and paste from GMark exactly what is fictional and detail how you know that it is.

You also might try quoting exactly which of the verses and tales from GMark are definitely or probably historical, and demonstrate why we should agree with your opinions.

Let's see him first cut and paste a fictional event and detail exactly how he knows it's fictional. We don't want to overburden him.
 
Overburden Lumpenproletariat??

:hysterical:

But yes, I agree. I also am curious to know how he recognizes what is fictional in the scriptures. I suspect there's fewer verses he'll call fiction, than there are verses he'll claim are historical.
 
There were no Christian Church bookburnings (in the early Church).

No written sources for any of these modern bookburning claims.


Depends on what you mean by 'early'. Notice that I specified "when Christianity was the state religion of the late Roman Empire"- but you should also go read Acts 19:19.

This was not "the Church" but individuals spontaneously burning books on divination. I explained this earlier, but you didn't pay attention. "The Church" did not burn any pagan books or heretical books.

It was a normal practice to destroy books on divination because many of these were dangerous. Nothing to do with pagan beliefs or heresies.


Book burning was certainly not the invention of Christianity; but they did plenty of it. For instance see http://www.jesusneverexisted.com/theodosius.html:

This gives no sources from the time. Modern writers only. No evidence from that period. No statement from Theodosius ordering any books to be burned. Temples and statues, yes, but nothing about destroying heretical writings.


I do grant that the Orthodox Church and other 'sectarian Christians' were not as fanatical about destroying pagan and heretic writings as were Catholics. But many of the early Catholic Church fathers bragged about how they persecuted pagans and heretics, destroyed their temples and churches, and burned their writings.

Those are lies. There are no sources from the period which you can cite (about burning any writings).



You can cite millions of modern fanatics who tell these lies. They have no evidence from sources of the period.

There was only the one case of a pagan temple in Antioch which I mentioned earlier which was burned and had a library inside it. There is no other case in any of the literature giving any evidence of any bookburning by Christians. You just believe your modern debunker-gurus who say this with no evidence for it. You believe it because you want it to be true, not because of any facts based on evidence from the period.


We know of many so-called heretics only through the works of their Christian enemies. The works of Helvidius are lost, and we know of them through the writings of St Jerome. Jerome thought that virginity was better than marriage (the line that came to be regarded as orthodox), while Helvidius held that Mary and Joseph had had a normal married life and that Jesus had younger brothers and sisters. As Jerome's line came to be orthodox his ideas are well documented while those of Helvidius are not. Similarly, we know of Gnostic ideas mainly through the writing of their mainstream Christian enemies. Marcion's ideas for example, or a distorted version of them, are known through Tertullian's work Against Marcion. Marcion's own writings are "lost", destroyed by the rival Christian faction that we now call orthodox. When Gnostic writings are recovered, as at Nag Hammadi in Egypt, it frequently turns out that Gnostics did not believe what "orthodox" critics said they believed. And of course in their writings the roles are reversed. The Gnostics see themselves as holding the true line, while the line that is now held to be orthodox is represented as merely another heretical faction*.

Millions of writings perished because no copies were made. No evidence that Christians destroyed any of them. You can't cite one source from the period giving any evidence of it.


As Christian doctrine developed, important early Christian writers came to be regarded as heretical, and their writings were destroyed. In this way the mainstream Church sought to root out any suggestion that its own version of orthodoxy was flawed. For example the book known as 1 Enoch was once regarded as scripture. It failed to be accepted into the biblical canon in the West, and was subsequently "lost". In the Ethiopian Church, however, it was accepted as scripture and so survived to be rediscovered by Western Christianity in modern times. Numerous gospels and letters, also "lost", are referred to in surviving documents. Origen mentioned a Jewish apocryphal work called the Prayer of Joseph, which might have shed considerable light on Jewish ideas about semi-divine men, but it has been "lost"*. Origen was a prolific writer but was himself later condemned as a heretic. Consequently, not one of his scriptural commentaries has survived in full.

Eusebius refers to writings by one Symmachus that cast doubt on the gospel attributed to Matthew* — writings that have since been "lost". He also mentions the neo-platonist Porphyry, who is known to have written fifteen volumes against the orthodox line, exposing the scriptures as fraudulent (he knew what modern scholars have independently discovered, for example that the book of Daniel could not have been written when it was purported to have been ). He also pointed out that the apostles could hardly have been infallible if they quarrelled with each other as the New Testament said. His works were banned as soon as the Empire became Christian , and all fifteen volumes were "lost". Writings explicitly opposed to Christianity were also destroyed. The work of Aulus Cornelius Celsus, Truth Established, has also been "lost". Our knowledge of it comes from Origen's attempt to refute the book's arguments in Contra Celsum. Similarly we know of the Emperor Julian's criticisms of Christianity in his treatise Adversus Christianos only because of Cyril of Alexandria's attempts to refute them.

For all the above, there is not one source from the period supporting any claim about the Church or Christians burning any writings by heretics.

If you have such a source, quote from it, instead of only from your modern debunker-guru-crusaders. Nothing you cite from the period says the Christians destroyed any books. Of course many writings were lost because they perished. So what? No one thought they were worth preserving.

You have only modern authors who make these bookburning claims, with no evidence for it. You believe them and do not check to see what it's based on.
 
And Lumpy still thinks the only resource for historians is to find where someone wrote down what happened...
 
 Book burning
Christian burnings

And many that believed, came and confessed and shewed their deeds. Many of them also which used curious arts, brought their books together, and burned them before all men: and they counted the price of them, and found it fifty thousand pieces of silver.[2]

After the First Council of Nicea (325 AD), Roman emperor Constantine the Great issued an edict against nontrinitarian Arians which included a prescription for systematic book-burning:

"In addition, if any writing composed by Arius should be found, it should be handed over to the flames, so that not only will the wickedness of his teaching be obliterated, but nothing will be left even to remind anyone of him. And I hereby make a public order, that if someone should be discovered to have hidden a writing composed by Arius, and not to have immediately brought it forward and destroyed it by fire, his penalty shall be death.
As soon as he is discovered in this offense, he shall be submitted for capital punishment....."[3]

According to Elaine Pagels, "In AD 367, Athanasius, the zealous bishop of Alexandria... issued an Easter letter in which he demanded that Egyptian monks destroy all such unacceptable writings, except for those he specifically listed as 'acceptable' even 'canonical'—a list that constitutes the present 'New Testament'".[4] (Pagels cites Athanasius's Paschal letter (letter 39) for 367 AD, which prescribes a canon but does not explicitly order monks to destroy excluded works.[5][original research?]) Heretical texts do not turn up as palimpsests, scraped clean and overwritten, as do many texts of Classical antiquity. According to author Rebecca Knuth, multitudes of early Christian texts have been as thoroughly "destroyed" as if they had been publicly burnt.[6]
Burning of the Library of Alexandria
Main article: Destruction of the Library of Alexandria

The stories surrounding the loss of the great Library of Alexandria include:

Emperor Aurelian's (270–275 AD) sack of Alexandria in 272 AD, which badly damaged the section of the city which housed part of the library.
Supposedly (but incorrectly) the religious riots aimed against pagan temples and their rituals in 391 AD, sanctioned by decree of Emperor Theodosius I and led by Coptic Pope Theophilus.[7]

"Much of its downfall was gradual, often bureaucratic, and by comparison to our cultural imaginings, somewhat petty."[8] (Compare: El-Abbadi, M. (1990). The Life and Fate of the Ancient Library of Alexandria. Mayenne, France: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, for tales of survival of the collection, in part, into the era of the Caliphate.)
Burning of Nestorian books

Activity by Cyril of Alexandria (c. 376–444) brought fire to almost all the writings of Nestorius (386-450) shortly after 435.[9] 'The writings of Nestorius were originally very numerous',[10] however, they were not part of the Nestorian or Oriental theological curriculum until the mid-sixth century, unlike those of his teacher Theodore of Mopsuestia, and those of Diodorus of Tarsus, even then they were not key texts, so relatively few survive intact, cf. Baum, Wilhelm and Dietmar W. Winkler. 2003. The Church of the East: A Concise History. London: Routledge.
Burning of Arian books

According to the Chronicle of Fredegar, Recared, King of the Visigoths (reigned 586–601) and first Catholic king of Spain, following his conversion to Catholicism in 587, ordered that all Arian books should be collected and burned; and all the books of Arian theology were reduced to ashes, along with the house in which they had been purposely collected.[11][12] Which facts demonstrate that Constantine's edict on Arian works was not rigorously observed, as Arian writings or the theology based on them survived to be burned much later in Spain.
Burning of Jewish manuscripts in 1244

In 1244, as an outcome of the Disputation of Paris, twenty-four carriage loads of Talmuds and other Jewish religious manuscripts were set on fire[by whom?] in the streets of Paris.[13][14]
Burning of Aztec and Mayan manuscripts in 1560s

During the conquest of the Americas and in the aftermath of the encounter between European and indigenous American civilizations, many books written by indigenous peoples were destroyed. There were many[quantify] books written by the Aztecs in existence at the time of the Spanish conquest of Yucatán in the 16th century.[citation needed] However, most were destroyed by the Conquistadors and the Catholic priests, with the exception of the work of the priest Bartolome de la Casas. In particular, many books in Yucatán were ordered destroyed by Bishop Diego de Landa in July 1562. De Landa wrote: "We found a large number of books in these characters and, as they contained nothing in which were not to be seen as superstition and lies of the devil, we burned them all, which they (the Maya) regretted to an amazing degree, and which caused them much affliction." Ironically, most of the books that were destroyed by the Europeans were biased and based upon the Aztec people's version of the history of the region.[citation needed] The Aztecs had previously conquered the area and destroyed many of the Mayan books and documents.[citation needed]

And that's just from a single Wiki article, Lumpy. Spend some time looking into it yourself; as I said, plenty of early Christians actively bragged about how many pagan and heretical books they burned. Some bragged about burning people. Do you think for a moment that they'd hesitate to burn anything that didn't reflect their own dogma, whatever that happened to be?

You should also read the Wiki article on the Nag Hammadi library. Those Gnostic manuscripts from the 3rd and 4th centuries were found buried in a sealed jar. Why do you think some priest or monk went to such effort to hide them, if they weren't in grave danger of being seized and destroyed?
 
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