What do all mythic heroes other than Jesus Christ have in common? -- There's NO REASON TO BELIEVE their alleged miracles.
(continued)
And when we say also that the Word, who is the first-birth of God, was produced without sexual union, and that He, Jesus Christ, our Teacher, was crucified and died, and rose again, and ascended into heaven, we propound nothing different from what you believe regarding those whom you esteem sons of Jupiter.
Justin Martyr - First Apology Chapter 21
to repeat the above:
And when we say also that the Word, who is the first-birth of God, was produced without sexual union, and that He, Jesus Christ, our Teacher, was crucified and died, and rose again, and ascended into heaven, we propound nothing different from what you believe regarding those whom you esteem sons of Jupiter.
Justin Martyr - First Apology Chapter 21
Those "gods" were not real people, or, any of them that were historical persons lived many centuries before any sources we have about them. Where are the actual historical persons who were mythologized into miracle-working gods within 50 years of the time when they lived?
What does that have to do with whether or not the story is true?
Once again, the claim about the event is more credible if the source reporting it is closer to the time when the event allegedly happened. The evidence for the Jesus miracles is from 30-70 years after the reported events. This is much better evidence than some mention of gods based on traditions going back 1000 years or more.
The Jesus miracles are more likely real events because there is credible evidence for them. They are reported much the same as other historical events that we assume did happen. I.e., they are reported in documents near to the time of the reported events, unlike the pagan myths.
So you can't put the Jesus miracles in the same category as the pagan myths for which there is no evidence. You can't offer this Justin quote as evidence for the pagan myths because those pagan events, if they happened, date far back at least 1000 years before Justin. Any real evidence for them has to come from that earlier period.
You apparently offer this quote --
And when we say also that . . . Jesus Christ, our Teacher, was crucified and died, and rose again, and ascended into heaven, we propound nothing different from what you believe regarding those whom you esteem sons of Jupiter.
-- as equating Christ belief with pagan beliefs. This is nothing more than a simplistic "Gotcha!" argument. Possibly Justin could be faulted here for saying something he didn't really mean -- "we propound nothing different" etc. But so what? Even if he's in error, that doesn't address the question whether the miracle events really happened.
You're ignoring the whole point that he's trying to make, which is that Christians are not guilty of any crime for holding their beliefs anymore than pagans (or "poets and philosophers") are guilty for holding their beliefs. To make this point he argues as follows:
If, therefore, on some points we teach the same things as the poets and philosophers whom you honour, and on other points are fuller and more divine in our teaching, and if we alone afford proof of what we assert, why are we unjustly hated more than all others? For while we say that all things have been produced and arranged into a world by God, we shall seem to utter the doctrine of Plato; and while we say that there will be a burning up of all, we shall seem to utter the doctrine of the Stoics: and while we affirm that the souls of the wicked, being endowed with sensation even after death, are punished, and that those of the good being delivered from punishment spend a blessed existence, we shall seem to say the same things as the poets and philosophers; and while we maintain that men ought not to worship the works of their hands, we say the very things which have been said by the comic poet Menander, and other similar writers, for they have declared that the workman is greater than the work.
http://earlychristianwritings.com/text/justinmartyr-firstapology.html
He is defending Christian belief as being just as legitimate or legal as the teachings of the "poets and philosophers." Obviously he doesn't mean to equate the two, but only to defend Christians against some attacks and accusations made against them.
Similarly,
In the first place [we furnish proof], because, though we say things similar to what the Greeks say, we only are hated on account of the name of Christ, and though we do no wrong, are put to death as sinners;
He obviously does not mean to say that Christ belief is the same as those of "Greeks" or pagans, but rather that it is equally innocent, or no different in terms of being criminal or deserving hate or punishment in response. He is complaining that a belief connected with the "Christ" name is punished for that reason only, just for this label, even though it is no more criminal than another belief which is "similar" except for the name.
But clearly he is not saying the Christ belief is really "similar" or on a par with the pagan belief. You might catch him saying this as misspeak, for bad wording, but you're not so empty-headed as to think Justin really means to equate the two belief systems. Surely you have enough sense not to base your argument on a poor choice of words by this writer.
He says many other points to make it clear that Christ belief is based on real facts, or actual historical events, for which there is evidence, whereas the pagan beliefs are artificial and fiction. He makes this clear many times.
He uses the Hebrew prophecies as part of his proof that the Christ beliefs, or events, are real, and on this point one could disagree. His citation of Hebrew prophets might be mistaken, but this is not the point.
The proper evidence for the Christ events is the recent record, in the gospel accounts, which are from near to the time of the events. Whereas there is no evidence, or written record, of the pagan events, other than traditions about events from 1000+ years earlier, so there are no documents going back near to the time of the actual events, if they happened.
And of course Justin has the "demons" creating the stories, for which you can superficially giggle at him, but the meaning is that the stories are fiction, not true, and that's his legitimate point, which you ignore with your poking fun at him.
So your Justin Martyr quote here serves no point other than the entertainment of poking fun at him, and to ambush him with this "Gotcha!" quote does nothing to make your case about the Jesus events having any dependency on the pagan myths, or having less credibility because of some alleged "similarity" to those pagan myths. You've not established that any such "similarity" or dependency exists.
Your "Gotcha!" quote here is not some admission to anything serious, like you've caught a Christian making a "smoking gun" disclosure of something that was being denied. What do you think this quote proves?
What matters is whether Jesus has or had power, like is described in the gospel accounts. Did he do those acts or not? This quote does nothing to answer that question.
You can't rely on this 2nd-century AD writing as a source for the pagan myths, from 1000+ years earlier, and show some "similarity" to the accounts of Jesus in the gospels. We can't determine from this text what the pagan beliefs were. Other than that Hercules was strong and Asclepius was a healing god, etc.
Every culture has its pantheon of strong hero gods or gods one prays to for healing and other favors. Just because the Romans/Greeks had theirs -- i.e., these "gods" were in their religious culture -- doesn't mean that any later claim about a strong person or about a healer must have been derived from the Roman or Greek god who was strong or did healings.
Some of the gods also quarreled, but that doesn't mean every quarrel among humans was derived from gods who quarreled.
There is nothing in the Christ events which is traceable to the pagan myths.
Even if you turn up some superficial "similarity" it proves nothing. It casts no doubt on the credibility of the Jesus miracle events or shows any dependency of these on the pagan myths. Whatever you come up with is petty and superficial, which is why you won't give any example, because it would be a silly comparison. You know there's no serious pagan "parallel" in your Justin quote.
All Justin really shows here is that he knows lots of pagan myths and also lots of Hebrew scriptures/prophecies, and he mixes and matches these up in various ways to draw Christ prophecies out of it.
What really matters is that there's credible evidence for the Jesus miracle events, but it's not Justin's point to present that evidence. Perhaps it was obvious -- the recent written accounts existed, it was clear. And there were no written accounts for the miracle acts of the pagan gods, but only reference to oral traditions going back 1000+ years earlier. Justin attributed it to "demons," but it was obviously the mythologizing process, the storytelling over many centuries, that explains those pagan myths.
It is quite possible that "Jesus" never actually lived as such.
You could say that equally about many historical figures we all assume existed. It's possible that none of them existed and that all recorded history is a pack of lies/fictions. Again, this is really your best argument against the historicity of Jesus. I.e., no historical events ever really happened -- they are all fiction. There's your real argument that Jesus "never actually lived as such."
Claiming that these stories were within 50 years of his life is irrelevant . . .
No, not "within 50 years of his life" but
WITHIN 50 YEARS OF THE REPORTED EVENTS -- The alleged events are connected to a point in time, i.e., in the gospel documents enough is given to date the events to within 5-10 years, i.e., to a date when they reportedly happened, i.e., to an alleged date when they allegedly happened. For the document to be credible, that reported date needs to be close to the date of the document or source, not 100-200 years prior to the document which is our source for the event.
. . . because we don't actually have a life to reference it to.
We're not referencing it to "a life" but to a date in the historical chronology. 30 AD is a reference point, which is determined from the documents.
Just as for any historical event we rely on the date given by the documents in order to date the reported event, so the Jesus miracle events have to be dated somewhere from 25-35 AD, i.e., this is when they
reportedly happened, regardless that someone might snort back "Yeah but it didn't really happen at all, so there IS no such date" etc. --
nevermind that! We're talking about the
reported or alleged date when it allegedly happened, whether it really happened or not. There IS such a date or reference point.
And the 50 years, or 40 years, is a relatively SHORT time period, compared to other reported events -- i.e., events usually are not reported that soon in the documents. Especially not miracle claims which are usually centuries later, like the claims about Perseus and Horus and Zeus and so on.
It's not having "a life to reference it to" that's important, but having a date for the reported events, and then comparing that date to the date of the documents reporting the events. If that is a relatively short time span, the credibility of the document, or of the report, is increased. I.e., it is stronger evidence for the event than if that time separation were much longer.
Put simply: The miracle claims of Jesus are much more credible because they appear in 30-70 years after they reportedly happened, whereas those of the "gods" are not reported until centuries later, usually more than 1000 years later (if those "gods" existed at all, i.e., maybe they were normal humans who were later mythologized).
We know for a fact that the earliest mentionings of Jesus in the authentic Pauline epistles provide absolutely no time frame and no geographic place in which Jesus lived.
It wasn't Paul's purpose to provide such biographical information, but we do have the time frame for the resurrection event which he attests to. And he names witnesses we know of for whom there is a time frame.
The gospel accounts do provide the time frame and geographic location. And these are relatively close to the reported events, in comparison to other reported events which we believe did happen and which are given their time frame in the documents which report them, and which are generally farther separated from the date of the documents than the Jesus events are separated from the date of the gospel accounts.
Thus it is silly to make a fuss over the time frame and geographic place of Jesus. This is better documented than is the case for most other events which we routinely believe happened.
We know that those details did not start getting written about until at least 30 years after they allegedly occurred. That leaves plenty of time for stories to get made up.
No, not miracle stories recorded in multiple documents -- you can't name an example of this. An ORAL report might become tainted with stories that are made up, but not written documents, in the 1st century. Writers did not waste their time on rubbish. They were vastly more selective than today and published documents only on subject matter which was worth preserving and had credibility.
You cannot give any examples of stories being recorded in multiple documents which were "made up" within 50 or even 100 years. Single-source stories perhaps, like epic poetry from a famous author being subsidized by someone rich. But we don't see a fictional miracle-worker hero emerging in 4 or 5 different documents in only a few decades, and not one which became widely believed to have been a real historical figure.
That some of the pagan myths attached themselves to the Jesus figure leaves unanswered the question: WHY did these myths get attached to him? Why did the pagans want to attach their myths or symbols to Jesus? There had to be something there, an object or entity, that they identified as desirable to attach their symbols to. What was that object and why did they choose this as something to attach their symbols to?
The Jesus myth was popular.
The ONLY myth that was popular? There were no others? Why? Why is there not one other popular myth which also got published in multiple documents?
It had been marketed quite successfully (probably by Paul).
Why weren't any of the other myths marketed successfully? There's no evidence that the Christ cult(s) had any exceptional marketing ability. Marketing is nothing if you have no product. What was his "Jesus myth" product? Who was this secret cabal of promoters and why did they choose to apply their amazing one-of-a-kind marketing skill to this unimportant unknown would-be cult?
Myths about the gods required centuries to evolve into something popular. How did this unimportant "Jesus myth" become popular in less than 50 years?
Why not parlay some of that popularity into personal profit?
What popularity? You're just assuming there was some popularity as a given, but not explaining how Paul was able to turn a nobody into a deity, which people started attributing miracle stories to. You have to explain where the "popularity" came from, not just assume it as a given.
Of course Paul wanted profit, but doesn't EVERYONE? So this doesn't explain why Paul was successful and others were not. Why did the "Jesus myth" become popular? or why did it sell while others did not?
How was this "myth" a better product than all the other hundreds of myths floating around? Why did Paul choose THIS PARTICULAR myth to sell instead of another one?
The answer is that Jesus already had a reputation as a miracle-worker. As long as this reputation was credible, the "Jesus myth" would sell, and anyone who could connect to this "myth" would increase their influence, or gain followers, or customers.
Unless you have a better answer, it is that He already had a unique unprecedented reputation as a miracle-worker and so they switched or expanded their myths/symbols to him, because his already-existing reputation then gave stronger credibility to those myths/symbols, and they were more credible being attached to him than to the previous "gods" to which they had been attached earlier.
See above for a better answer. The Jesus myth was marketed successfully and popular enough to . . .
No, you're not answering why ONLY THIS myth was marketed successfully, or was "popular enough."
The question is: why did Paul choose THIS myth to market rather than any of the hundreds of others? Why did he waste his talent on this nothing cult which was NOT popular at first when Paul joined it and had a dead guru who was a nobody at the time, killed long before he had gained any wide recognition?
There were thousands of myths to sell, and there were thousands of good salesmen to market those myths. Why did ONLY THIS one myth succeed in becoming a popular miracle-worker myth recorded in documents unlike any other miracle-worker myths?
You can't credit the success to the marketing. You can't seriously claim that this one myth only was able to succeed, with all the good marketers out there and all their equally good myth products, and say Paul chose this one myth for no reason, and because of this one fluke choice he made, and being the greatest salesman in history, he then cooked up the grandest hoax that was ever perpetrated. No, this is not a serious explanation.
A much more credible explanation is that he had a far superior product to begin with. He had a "Jesus myth" based on a reputed miracle-worker who already had enough credibility so as to make this product easy to sell.
It was the "Jesus myth" that made Paul successful or popular, not the selling talent of Paul that made the "Jesus myth" popular.
The "Jesus myth" was popular anyway,
even without Paul. It was spreading to the Greeks and Romans regardless of Paul. It was his
writings which had the real impact on the later spread of the Christ cult(s), not his personal trips to found new Christ communities.
. . . generate some cross-breeding. But the Jesus myth took much more than it gave, as the story of Perseus and the powers of Bacchus, Asclepius and Poseidon were appropriated by its adherents.
If there were any truth to this talking point, you would provide an example of the pagan story that was "appropriated" by the Christ-believers. You would cite the original source for one of these and show the similarity. You have nothing about Perseus or Bacchus etc. to offer other than empty sloganism -- which you have absorbed uncritically from 21st-century sources only.
Everything you keep repeating about Perseus et al. is only empty sloganism until you provide the original text account of these stories and show the similarity and dependency of the "Jesus myth" upon those stories.
There is nothing -- absolutely nothing -- in the Jesus myths that requires that any of it happened in order for it to have been written down as it appears today.
Yes there is something that requires that it happened: If they didn't happen, then they are fictions which emerged
TOO EARLY after him for them to be a result of normal mythologizing. None of the other persons who were mythologized into dieties had this happen to them within such a short time after they lived, including getting published in documents within 50 years, or even as soon as 20 years.
Too early!?! If they didn't happen then "too early" is meaningless.
No, it means too close after the
alleged date that the
alleged events took place.
Once again, the time reference means the time indicated in the documents. You cannot deny that the documents, gospel accounts, exist and that they give a time frame for the events. And we have reasonable dating of the documents. So we can compare the date of the documents to the date of the reputed event
whether the event happened or not.
So the "too early" is meaningful. It means the time between the date of the documents and the date of the reputed events. The latter date is about 30 AD. And the existing documents date variously from 65 AD to 90 or 100 AD. Or 50-60 AD for the Paul epistles.
This time span is too short for the events to be fictional, because the mythologizing process requires a much longer time span than this. Especially for a figure who had no status or pubic recognition and was active publicly for 3 years at most.
There is no statute of limitations on how quickly a myth can fabricate.
You cannot name ANY miracle myth that was fictional and emerged this soon in the documents (other than possibly some wacko cults later than 1900 AD). There is a limit on how short this time can be, because it's not true that people are the zombie idiots you're assuming, who spontaneously swallow any wacko charismatic who pops up in front of them -- it does not happen, despite your slander of 1st-century Greeks and Romans as being mindless cattle who stampede to the first charismatic cowboy charlatan who fires off his gun.
Combine an excellent cult leader with an audience motivated to listen and you've got the makings of any story imaginable, no matter how ridiculous.
Again, this delusionalism of yours is refuted by the fact that there is NO OTHER CULT than the Christ cult(s) who ever pulled off such a miracle-story hoax as you're suggesting. If the audience could be so easily manipulated and stampeded by the "excellent cult leader" guru charlatan, then
there would be hundreds of Jesus-like cults from the first century, each with its own published "gospel" accounts, instead of this one only.
You consistently fail to explain why there is ONLY ONE such hoax cult rather than dozens. Your explanation supposes a mythologizing process which would have produced dozens of other Jesus-like cults, which is not the case. There's only this one for which we have serious evidence for the events.
(to be continued)