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120 Reasons to Reject Christianity

- There was never anything even close to the Noah Deluge fable
- The Tower of Babel fable...is well babel BS
- Moshe and his Exodus fable is at least 99.9% BS
- The whole conquering of Canaan is largely made up
- There was never any day the Earth stood still for Joshua
- The sun wasn’t set back 10 degrees for Hezekiah

These are just assertions without evidence.
Aren't you guilty of lazy gainsaying? ...did so, did not, did so, did not, yes, yes, yes...no, no, no.
Sound familiar?

To all of those above claims I can simply reassert the original claims of the bible.

...Typical liberal Christian theology has a workable escape clause...

I don't need an escape clause. I've got the bible. I'm not running away from anything in that book
 
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These are just assertions without evidence.
Why did you only quote the bullet points, not "Yet archaeology, geology, and history provide significant counter-narratives to the below fairy tales:"

Do you disagree that geology, for example, not only finds no evidence of Noah's Deluge, but the geologic record actually counters such a tale?

To all of those above claims I can simply reassert the original claims of the bible.
How is 'Simply reassert' different from 'lazy gainsaying?'
 
Lion IRC, I notice you stopped quoting me when it got tough.

I notice you haven't taken issue with any of my rebuttals. Thanks.

...Feel free to show where my scenario is incompatible with the evidence we have.

I pointed out that your Jesus 'scenarios' were just paraphrasing the actual text. Yes, Jesus was zealous. Yes He was itinerant. Yes, His early followers were regarded as a cult. Yes, His disciples had what they felt was sufficient reason to think He had risen.

To the extent that you brought up Saul of Tarsus, what about his story needs defending? I though Jesus was the target of your biblical skepticism. If you want to attack the historicity of Paul you're on very thin ice!
 
Why did you only quote the bullet points, not "Yet archaeology, geology, and history provide significant counter-narratives to the below fairy tales:"

Because the bullet points were concrete assertions.
Even I can claim that archaeology, geology, and history backs up the bible. *yawn*

Do you disagree that geology, for example, not only finds no evidence of Noah's Deluge, but the geologic record actually counters such a tale?

Yes! Of course I disagree with that opinion.

To all of those above claims I can simply reassert the original claims of the bible.
How is 'Simply reassert' different from 'lazy gainsaying?'

It's not! That's exactly my point.
It's a nil-all-draw for two people to be sitting there gainsaying backwards and forwards.

im-right-youre-wrong.jpg
 
These are just assertions without evidence.
Aren't you guilty of lazy gainsaying? ...did so, did not, did so, did not, yes, yes, yes...no, no, no.[/]
Sound familiar?

Not at all. I assume that you are aware of the multitudes of Universities and science centers that have massive amounts of research done on earth’s geological history? Many Christians (and even C.S. Lewis) consider much of the OT fabulous tales to be fables with perhaps something still within it to teach a Christian. So before pointing out details, I wanted to get at least a vague idea of which particular flavor of Christianity you are trying to defend.

Keeping things simpler, I'll just talk about Noah's purported worldwide Deluge. There is very excellent science that can accurately look at the records of the ice caps in Antarctica going back 740,000 years; and coral reef records from the Australian Great Barrier Reef and others, going back almost 100,000 years; and roughly a 10,000 year continuum of tree ring research. And these records would be devastated by anything approaching a worldwide flood. It would not be missed, overlooked, or misunderstood. So not only could this Deluge not happen when the Bible claims due to human records, but it could not have happened at all in any way resembling the tale as told, due to the earths records. Unless of course, if there was a conspiracy of deities? Therefore, either Genesis is factually wrong, or Noah's flood is a fable, or the gods are having fun with us, or the reality of human sensory perception has no meaning.

Is it your view that 99% of all geologists and other scientific fields are confused, deluded, lying, or ???

To all of those above claims I can simply reassert the original claims of the bible.
You can as you wish. However, I do not see how you can assert that there is “no mutually exclusive historical counter-narratives to the contrary”.

...Typical liberal Christian theology has a workable escape clause...

I don't need an escape clause. I've got the bible. I'm not running away from anything in that book
LOL…Liberal Christians have this bible thingy as well. They just have a differing theological/hermetical approach to it.
 
Do you disagree that geology, for example, not only finds no evidence of Noah's Deluge, but the geologic record actually counters such a tale?

Yes! Of course I disagree with that opinion.
Interesting phrasing.
Most biblical literalists tend to understand that science does disagree with the biblical account of the flood, but offer up all sorts of ideas about why that would be.
So, you think that science DOES support the Flood story?
 
Not at all. I assume that you are aware of the multitudes of Universities and science centers that have massive amounts of research done on earth’s geological history?

Yes.

...Many Christians (and even C.S. Lewis) consider much of the OT fabulous tales to be fables with perhaps something still within it to teach a Christian.

Yep. I know.

... So before pointing out details, I wanted to get at least a vague idea of which particular flavor of Christianity you are trying to defend.

CS Lewis' mere Christianity - for which no particular or strict interpretation of the Noachian Flood account is required one way or the other.

Of course I can happily defend the Noachian Flood account either way you want to interpret events, or 6 day creation, or a literal Adam and Eve if you want.

Trust me you won't 'win' a bible study argument with me.

...Keeping things simpler, I'll just talk about Noah's purported worldwide Deluge. There is very excellent science that can accurately look at the records of the ice caps in Antarctica going back 740,000 years; and coral reef records from the Australian Great Barrier Reef and others, going back almost 100,000 years; and roughly a 10,000 year continuum of tree ring research.

Yes, yes, yes. No issue with that.

And these records would be devastated by anything approaching a worldwide flood....in any way resembling the tale as told,

There is your problem. You can interpret the Flood account in a way which does directly contradict the apparent geological/biological record as measured by modern science OR you can interpret it in a harmonious way. What you can't do is claim that the science disproves God. And if you think God exists you MUST reconcile what the bible says with whatever other (scientific) facts you hold as true.

...Is it your view that 99% of all geologists and other scientific fields are confused, deluded, lying, or ???

No.
And as I have said above, neither I nor CS Lewis nor Francis Collins are required by the biblical flood account to think that.

To all of those above claims I can simply reassert the original claims of the bible.
You can as you wish. However, I do not see how you can assert that there is “no mutually exclusive historical counter-narratives to the contrary”.

Don't just keep repeating the claim. Show me!

...Typical liberal Christian theology has a workable escape clause...

I don't need an escape clause. I've got the bible. I'm not running away from anything in that book

LOL…Liberal Christians have this bible thingy as well. They just have a differing theological/hermetical approach to it.

Yep.
 
So, i was forced, simply forced to think of Lumpy today.

I have a book about travel writing, which opens with a description of Marco Polo's accounts of China and other lands to the East.

Marco was employed by Kublai Khan for more than 20 years, traveling around China on various missions for the Mongol administration, writing detailed accounts of the place he went, what the people did, how they practiced their religion, and some of the sexual practices.
His accounts of his travels would be fairly trustworthy, one would expect.
There could be no generations of 'mythologizing' in the transmission of his accounts as they were dictated by him, not orally transmitted across time and distance.

These accounts would be far better, historically, than anonymous accounts of what Jesus did, written down an unknown time after he supposedly did them.

So what made me think of Lumpy were some of the animals described by Marco Polo.
The unicorn, for instance. They live(d?) on Java, were nearly the size of an elephant, had boar-shaped heads, and big black horns in the middle of their foreheads. They didn't gore with the horns, though, they attacked enemies with the big spikes on their tongues.
...According to Marco Polo, who witnessed these things on his travels.

He did not witness a griffin, though he does write about them. Big birds the natives of Mogadishu call ruchs that hunt elephants by carrying them up into the air, dropping them to break the elephant's bones, then landing on the carcass to eat their fill.

But he was in direct contact with the natives of Andaman. They were a race of men with heads that perfectly resembled those of mastiffs.

It's probably also worth noting that in all his travels, all the times he crossed China going back and forth, he never once mentioned the Great Wall of China.

Funny that.

One would almost think that people could, I dunno, make things up. And write them down as facts, though they don't stand up to any sort of analysis when compared to other historical accounts/documents/etc. And there not be any sort of minimum or maximum time required for adding fantastical elements to the account. Not even a generation.

Weird.
 
Marco Polo was a Christian.
Both he and the Gospel writers understood that lying (bearing false witness) was against Gods commandments.
Are you accusing Marco Polo of lying?
 
Are you accusing Marco Polo of lying?
I don't see any reason why i would not...?

I'm saying that he wrote about things which historians would reject as not being true, for a number of reasons including a lack of evidence FOR some claims, and positive evidence AGAINST some claims.

I can't say whether it was a lie, a delusion, something that USED to be factual but somehow magically changed since his time, or maybe an encoded message to the future whereby some Polo Apologist may yet discover the true import of the Andaman natives, or the ruchs, or the total absence of any reference to the Great Wall of China.

But my money is easily on 'made shit up' unless and until such time as someone can prove otherwise.


Marco Polo was a Christian.
Both he and the Gospel writers understood that lying (bearing false witness) was against Gods commandments.
J'ever watch Happy Days? There's an episode where The Fonz is thinking of marrying a girl. He's telling the guys about how she meets all of his requirements for a bride. One being that the girl is a virgin.


Fonz: "She's a virgin."
Richie: "How do you know she's a virgin?"
Fonz: "She told me."
Richie: "How do you know she was telling the truth?"
Fonz: "Hey, virgins don't lie."
 
Lion IRC said:
Trust me you won't 'win' a bible study argument with me.

Nobody has ever 'won' an argument with anyone about anything. A man convinced against his will remains a man who's unconvinced still. Still yet, the more unfalsifiable your claims about your particular interpretation of the NT scriptures are, the more immune to gainsay they are. No surprise there. The creation myths detailed in Genesis 1 and 2 are (when interpreted literally) incompatible with modern science. The moment one begins symbolizing this verb and turning that detail into a metaphor all bets are off. Science doesn't deal with metaphors and interpretations.
 
Aren't there a few other European explorers of Marco Polo's time who visited China and made no mention of the Great Wall?

Maybe they didn't think of it as particularly "great" at the time. Maybe the self-effacing Chinese didn't think of it as "great" either.
 
Aren't there a few other European explorers of Marco Polo's time who visited China and made no mention of the Great Wall?
Visit? Polo spent 20 years crossing back and forth, according to him, reporting the terrain, the government's operations, the habits of the population, the beasts of the field, and so on. It is a marked oversight in the body of his work.
 
...Many Christians (and even C.S. Lewis) consider much of the OT fabulous tales to be fables with perhaps something still within it to teach a Christian.

Yep. I know.

... So before pointing out details, I wanted to get at least a vague idea of which particular flavor of Christianity you are trying to defend.

CS Lewis' mere Christianity - for which no particular or strict interpretation of the Noachian Flood account is required one way or the other.

Of course I can happily defend the Noachian Flood account either way you want to interpret events, or 6 day creation, or a literal Adam and Eve if you want.

Trust me you won't 'win' a bible study argument with me.

...Keeping things simpler, I'll just talk about Noah's purported worldwide Deluge. There is very excellent science that can accurately look at the records of the ice caps in Antarctica going back 740,000 years; and coral reef records from the Australian Great Barrier Reef and others, going back almost 100,000 years; and roughly a 10,000 year continuum of tree ring research.

Yes, yes, yes. No issue with that.

And these records would be devastated by anything approaching a worldwide flood....in any way resembling the tale as told,

There is your problem. You can interpret the Flood account in a way which does directly contradict the apparent geological/biological record as measured by modern science OR you can interpret it in a harmonious way. What you can't do is claim that the science disproves God. And if you think God exists you MUST reconcile what the bible says with whatever other (scientific) facts you hold as true.
I never claimed that science disproves god(s) or the blind watch maker. What I said, was the below.

Though I have no idea which one of dozens of major theological Christian flavors you hold to... The God-breathed Bible theological construct (GBBT) has a serious problem in that your Jesus often cited what we now call the OT as valid and real. Yet archaeology, geology, and history provide significant counter-narratives to the below fairy tales:

- There was never anything even close to the Noah Deluge fable

In your responses to Keith & Co and myself, I am not quite sure if you are being cagey or not. If one’s belief is that the Bible is God-Breathed, essentially with no human introduced error or foibles, then I don’t see how it could be considered harmonious with modern science.

This is a pretty good summary of what many evangelicals who believe in a God-breathed Bible think the Bible says about the Noah Deluge story (as if you need a description of such views…):
http://www.biblestudytools.com/dictionaries/bakers-evangelical-dictionary/the-flood.html

Maybe you think the Bible is merely God inspired. But then I wouldn’t know, as you really haven’t said much about your theological POV.
 
This is a pretty good summary of what many evangelicals who believe in a God-breathed Bible think the Bible says about the Noah Deluge story (as if you need a description of such views…):
http://www.biblestudytools.com/dictionaries/bakers-evangelical-dictionary/the-flood.html

This description further leaves open the following interpretations:
Uersality of the Flood. One of the most controversial aspects of flood theology concerns the extent of the flood. Three major positions are taken: (1) the traditional, which asserts the uersal, worldwide, nature of the deluge; (2) limited flood theories, which narrow the scope of the flood story to a particular geographical location in Mesopotamia; and (3) nonliteral (symbolic) interpretation, which suggests that the flood story is a nonhistorical account written to teach theological truth. Against the third interpretation, we have already discussed the historical nature of the flood. Of the two first positions, the limited flood theories rest primarily on scientific arguments that set forth seemingly difficult physical problems for a uersal flood. These problems are not insurmountable given the supernatural nature of the flood; numerous recent scientific studies also provide a growing body of evidence for diluvial catastrophism instead of uniformitarianism. Only the traditional uersalist understanding does full justice to all the biblical data, and this interpretation is crucial for flood theology in Genesis and for the theological implications drawn by later biblical writers.

Which of these represents your belief in the flood story?
 
The gospel accounts are as reliable for the historical events as other sources we routinely accept.

But there were eyewitnesses present at the reported events. And the original reported events, in oral form, were eyewitness accounts. Not written, but oral, which the later written accounts were based upon.

But we don't have access to the 'original' eyewitness reports, do we?

Without those, we cannot compare the later, written accounts of an event and determine if there were details lost, added or changed.

So, the accounts we have access to are not eyewitness accounts, nor can they be considered eyewitness accounts.
You mean, do we have the eyewitnesses available to question? No, 1985-year-old people are difficult to arrange an interview with.

Thus you are forced to invent odd and rather fatuous "superior standards" to make your favored account seem more likely.

What is my "superior standard"? that an extra source helps confirm or make more credible the first source?

Don't two separate sources for the miracle acts of Jesus make it more credible than if there's only one? or 3 make it more credible than if there's only 2?

Two anonymous accounts do not make each other more credible, no.

And which Papal Bull is your source for this pronouncement?

How about ONLY ONE anonymous account? Is that more credible than 2?

Here's an anonymous account/source -- Royal Frankish Annals which is relied upon for the history of Charlemagne's reign. It apparently has lots of miracle stories in it:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Royal_Frankish_Annals
Miracles aid Charlemagne and his men, and the grace of God leads him to victory; mostly ill portents surround Louis, such as an omen in the stars supposedly foretelling his army’s defeat at the hands of Count Aizo, and the sudden collapse of a wooden arcade atop him in 817.

Indeed, such references to striking natural phenomena, strange happenings, and miracles become increasingly common
in the annal entries for the 9th century. In addition to astronomical oddities, such as eclipses, the supernatural begins to enter the account, . . .

Scholz regards this preoccupation as a reflection of a belief in a divine will and control of history. Many of the worse omens also parallel growing dissatisfaction with Louis the Pious, which immediately after the end of the annals spilled into civil war between him and his sons. Divine intervention through the relics of saints play an important role as well, with mention of Hilduin’s translation of the relics of St. Sebastian to the Abbey of St. Medard, and Einhard’s transport of the relics of SS. Marcellinus and Peter into Francia. A more detailed account of Einhard’s procurement of the relics exists in his Translation and Miracles of Marcellinus and Peter.

And these anonymous annals contain obvious propaganda elements:

The annalists pay particular attention to the military campaigns of the Carolingian kings, justifying their actions in terms of a grand narrative of Carolingian peacekeeping and conquest in the name of expanding the Christian faith.

and

The Annals are believed to have been composed in successive sections by different authors, and then compiled.

I.e., like the N.T. gospel accounts.

The depth of knowledge regarding court affairs suggests that the annals were written by persons close to the king, and their initial reluctance to comment on Frankish defeats betrays an official design for use as Carolingian propaganda.

So here we have an ANONYMOUS account, containing miracle stories, and published as a propaganda tool to promote a reigning dynasty during the Middle Ages when people believed in miracles as much as any other period of history.

So is this source rejected because it's "anonymous"? No.

Though the information contained within is heavily influenced by authorial intent in favor of the Franks, the annals remain a crucial source on the political and military history of the reign of Charlemagne.

So this source is not rejected just because it's "anonymous" and contains miracle stories and has a bias to it.

If we had 1 or 2 additional anonymous sources like this one, giving some of the same information, wouldn't that additional source add further credibility to the information? If the content of one source is credible, doesn't the addition of another similar source increase that credibility? Why don't additional sources always add extra credibility, even if they are anonymous?


You do not get far in court if your testimony is 'this one guy, he told me.'

Yes you do get far. That testimony is admitted in many situations. And much of known history is based on this kind of testimony/evidence.

All historical facts are known because someone told us in documents. Sometimes we know something about the author, and other times we don't know.


Two people testifying to what 'some guy' told them about an event does not increase the credibility.

Yes it does increase the credibility. If the one source by itself is credible, then another similar source reporting the same information adds credibility to the first source.

If we had an additional source like the Royal Frankish Annals, and it gave some of the same information, that would increase the credibility of that information. The Gospel accounts are similar to the Royal Frankish Annals, because they are compilations of several anonymous sources/authors, they are not unbiased but promote a cause, and they contain miracle stories.

And yet the Royal Frankish Annals are "a crucial source on the political and military history" of the Franks. So, why are the Gospel accounts not also a "crucial source" for the events about Jesus near 30 AD? And why doesn't it add to their credibility that we have 4 accounts rather than only one? Why doesn't it make these accounts more credible than if we had only one, just as it would make the Royal Frankish Annals more credible if we had additional accounts like them?

Don't you think if a newly-discovered source, like a further Royal Frankish Annals document, should CONTRADICT something in the already-known anonymous source, then that would be taken to cast doubt on the credibility of the latter source (concerning the part that is contradicted)? Well if so, then why wouldn't it be taken as INcreasing the credibility of the earlier source if the new source is found to CONFIRM that earlier source?

How can you seriously say that the 2nd source does not increase the credibility over only one such source? Your rejection of anonymous sources is based entirely on prejudice against the gospel accounts as sources. You can't name any other anonymous document that is rejected as credible for this kind of reason.

You are creating a rule/standard for credibility which applies only to this one group of writings, the N.T. gospel accounts, based only on your ideological bias against these writings and your crusade for them to be excluded from history. Except for this crusade, you would not be demanding this standard for excluding anonymous documents.


So you think having extra sources does NOT add credibility to an account?

I think if they're not credible sources, they can't be used to confirm each other, no.

But what makes them not credible? Do you claim the Royal Frankish Annals are not credible, even though Wikipedia says they are "a crucial source on the political and military history of the reign of Charlemagne"? They are a "crucial source" despite being propagandistic and containing miracles and being compiled from anonymous authors.

What makes the Gospel accounts any less credible than the Royal Frankish Annals?


I.e., part of the "superior standards" -- having more than one source about the same event(s) helps to increase the credibility -- You reject that standard as "fatuous"?

Since you only apply it to the gospels, yes.

That's a nutty answer. Who says it applies only to the gospels? Obviously it applies equally to ALL documents of any kind.


Since that doesn't work for vampires, yes.

It DOES work for vampires. It applies equally to ALL topics. If the subject matter is something weird, then more than one source is needed, and more doubts are raised than if it's something normal. So one is more skeptical, and the credibility is less. But the existence of extra sources which confirm each other makes the claims more serious and credible, and one has to check more closely than if there's only one source.

What's the definition of "vampires"? Sometimes there is a weird event, but the interpretation or explanation of it is not credible, or is incoherent. The extra sources make it more necessary to look into it to determine if something strange might have really happened.

If 50 people report a UFO, isn't that a more credible report of something odd in the sky as opposed to only one reporting it? Or, do you think there is never anything odd that happens, ever? So if it's odd, it absolutely could not have happened, no matter how many witnesses there are or how many sources report it?


Since that method would not have worked for Washington's Cherry Tree story, despite it being in multiple history books, yes.

That method does work for Washington's Cherry Tree. Maybe the legend is true. How do we know it's not true?

Suppose an additional source turns up, from early, BEFORE any other source for the story, and this new source is confirmed as genuine, and it confirms the original story.

There is no such source? And therefore we must assume the story is fiction? But this proves the point, i.e., that two sources make it more reliable than only one, because this reasoning is based on the premise that extra sources make it more reliable. Part of the evidence that the story is fiction is the fact that there is no original source for it other than the one which was proved false and upon which all the others were based.

So your cherry tree example proves you wrong and illustrates the point that extra sources make a story more credible (as long as those extra sources are not based on an original source shown to be false).

So, if there's ONLY THIS ONE SOURCE that is proved false, and all the others are based on it, that's the "proof" that the story is fiction. So ONLY ONE SOURCE is evidence that the story is fiction, whereas if there were 2 or 3 other original sources, not derived from the disproved source, then the credibility of the story would be increased. Thus, additional sources increase the credibility. Your cherry tree example helps illustrate this point.

Your claim that the story is fiction is based on the principle that having ONLY ONE source makes it less credible, and especially if this one source itself is discredited. Your theory that the story is fiction would be undermined if it could be shown that some of the books are NOT based on this one discredited source but have a different source.


A widespread story is no better than a widespread story.

That's all any historical event is -- just a widespread story.


Your counting them as 'multiple independent accounts' is fatuous.

They are separate accounts, probably dependent on still earlier accounts. And it's obvious that Mt and Lk are both dependent on an earlier single document and also on Mk. Some dependency on earlier accounts does not undermine their credibility as separate sources. They need not be absolutely separate in an extreme sense in order to be credible.

If the events reported are true, then it's perfectly normal for there to be some connection between them, such as a common reliance on the earlier sources.

There is no basis for insisting dogmatically that the gospel accounts are not separate sources. Are you insinuating that they were once the SAME source, and then some scheming Christian clique of editors surreptitiously divided them up as some kind of trick to con us into believing that they were written separately?


And you haven't yet shown that multiple history books makes the cherry tree story more credible.

Yes they do make it more credible. However, the credibility decreases if it can be shown that all of them are dependent on one earlier source which is proved to be false.

But if that were not so, and all we knew is that we have these separate sources, without knowing where they got the story, then the story would be more credible. The only reason those sources for the story are not credible is that we KNOW they come from a certain earlier source, and we KNOW that this earlier source is false.

All this supports the principle that more sources make a story more credible, and nothing about this discredits that principle. It just reduces the credibility back down if we know additionally that those sources are all based on an earlier false source.


And you reject all those scholars who say that because Sallust concurs with Cicero it increases the credibility of Cicero's judgment?

Ah. But that's a little different, isn't it? We know who Sallust and Cicero were.

But we don't know who the authors of the Frankish Royal Annals were, and yet they are reliable as sources for history. Not knowing the author's name does not make the source unreliable. And if we have additional reliable sources, those increase the credibility of the reported events. Two sources make it more credible than only one, and 4 make it more credible than only 2 or 3.

You've given no reason why having 4 accounts for the Jesus events does not make it more credible than if we had only one account.


And when they wrote.

We do know approximately when the gospel accounts were written. Knowing this precisely to the exact year is not necessary to establish the credibility. There's doubt about the exact dating of many of the historical documents that we accept as reliable.


That's completely different than the gospels.

But it's not different than the Frankish Royal Annals, which are reliable. And there are also many other documents of doubtful authorship and yet which are accepted as reliable. You've given no reason why the gospel accounts cannot be accepted as credible. Though the miracle stories are doubted, this does not make the accounts unreliable for determining the history, anymore than they make the Frankish Royal Annals unreliable.


You ignore the ACTUAL standards historians use, . . .

What historians say additional sources don't add to the credibility if the sources are reliable but happen to be anonymous?

. . . and just pretend that multiple attestations are enough, even of anonymous accounts.

There is nothing to discredit anonymous accounts per se. If we had additional accounts similar to the Frankish Royal Annals, reporting the same events, these would add credibility to that source. Even though they'd all be anonymous. Being anonymous does not subtract from the value of having the extra sources.

You can't name historians who say that having additional anonymous sources does not increase the credibility. E.g., that having something in addition to the Frankish Royal Annals would not add further credibility, even though it's "anonymous."


Then get all upset that your gospels fail actual historical analysis.

What does "fail actual historical analysis" mean?

These are not infallible sources. They are legitimate sources for history, just as the Royal Frankish Annals are legitimate sources and have credibility. None of the sources is totally accurate, and individual reports in any of the sources can be doubted. ALL the sources "fail historical analysis" if this means they contain no errors or distortions or exaggerations.

You must do better than just throwing around loose language like "fail actual historical analysis" which is gibberish.


And similarly you would reject the idea that the testimony of a witness is supported if a 2nd or 3rd witness agrees with the first one?

"Yeah, this guy... I don't know his name, i seen him around, he said that he SAW the accident, and what happened, is..."

Much of the historical record that we accept is this kind of testimony. You think an historian investigating an event would discount a witness because he says "I seen him around, and this guy, he comes up to me -- BIG motherfucker -- and he says . . ." etc.

There's nothing wrong with this kind of testimony for determining historical facts. You take the testimony that exists, however vulgar it sounds, and try to figure out what probably happened. This is perfectly legitimate as a source for historical events.


You don't have eyewitness testimony to offer.

The vast vast majority of history is NOT from eyewitness testimony (prior to modern times). I.e., the writer of the document was not an eyewitness. We assume the information ultimately traces back to eyewitnesses, but it always comes to us indirectly, from an author who had some source or report tracing back ultimately to those who experienced it directly.


So in other words, the fact that both Cicero and Sallust say there was a conspiracy to kill some of the senators and stage a coup says nothing about whether there was any such conspiracy, because this common element might have been invented?

No. We have two identified authors. So when i dismiss unattributed writings of unknown date, written for unknown purpose, . . .

They cannot be dismissed just because they are anonymous. The Royal Frankish Annals are not dismissed even though they are anonymous. We don't need to know the authors in order for the accounts to be credible.

And we do know the approximate date for the gospel accounts, and we know as much about the purpose they were written for as we know for most documents that we accept as sources for history.

. . . that's completely apart from Sallust and Cicero.

No, it's the same because in both cases we have acceptable sources for the events, and the addition of the extra source(s) makes the reported events more credible than if there were only one source.


So, no 2nd testimony confirming the earlier testimony adds any credibility to the 1st one because what they agree on could have been "invented"? Isn't the likelihood of the latter REDUCED by the existence of the 2nd testimony confirming the 1st one?

You continue to pretend that the gospels offer eyewitness testimony.

No, nothing requires that. The writers/editors themselves were not eyewitnesses.


They do not.

But what the writers/editors report might have originated from eyewitnesses. We can't know this, obviously. There are virtually no facts of history that we can prove came from eyewitnesses. It's reasonable to assume, with doubt, that the anecdotes originated from eyewitnesses. And if they did, that doesn't mean there's no error in them. We can reasonably assume there is some error -- the same as with most historical facts we know.


Until you grasp this, every time you compare them to eyewitness testimony, you look foolish.

This is not "comparing" them to eyewitness testimony.

Having extra sources increases the credibility, regardless whether the sources were eyewitnesses or not.

You acknowledged that Cicero and Sallust agreeing on some points increases the credibility. But they were not eyewitnesses to most of the points they agreed on. Being contemporary to the events is not the same as being an eyewitness to them. The increase of the credibility due to having extra sources does not apply only to eyewitness testimony. It applies to any case of having extra sources, even if the writers are getting it indirectly from the reports of others.

E.g., Tacitus and Suetonius both report the alleged miracle healing of Vespasian. Even though this might be fictional, still, the extra source reporting this does increase the credibility of the story. Maybe something did happen that was interpreted as a healing. But neither author was an eyewitness. The two sources reporting it does make it more likely that something happened, maybe a coincidence, or whatever -- it was interpreted as a miracle healing act.

The whole thing could still be completely fictional. But having the extra source reduces the likelihood that it's fiction.


(to be continued)
 
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The gospel accounts are as reliable for the historical events as other sources we routinely accept.

(continued)

So virtually all historical documents have to be disregarded, because we don't have accounts from disinterested observers around who didn't write anything about it. So the history books are virtually all useless, because they exclude all those accounts that weren't written. "Fascinating."

Strawman. Look, if you don't understand what i'm saying, just say so.

Maybe we can draw a picture or find a you-tube?

Is there a you-tube on the topic of "disinterested observers" which would clarify it? There are probably a million "disinterested observers" for every event that has been written about and passed down to us. Are you not saying that the absence of reports from "disinterested observers" makes it impossible to determine what really happened?

What was your point about the "disinterested observers"?

But there were eyewitnesses present at the reported events. And the original reported events, in oral form, were eyewitness accounts. Not written, but oral, which the later written accounts were based upon.

But we don't have access to the 'original' eyewitness reports, do we? Without those, we cannot compare the later, written accounts of an event and determine if there were details lost, added or changed.

We can determine some of that. We can compare differing accounts of the same event and determine what kind of changes took place in the text, and these comparisons can help us answer questions about what happened.

No, they do not. We have no way to tell if any of the common elements were invented or not. We cannot compare them to the accounts of disinterested observers, or an account which was not subject to the Christian efforts to edit the historical record (such as all the gnostic gospels which were destroyed because they were gnostic gospels.)

Leaving aside this fiction that gnostic gospels were destroyed, for which there is absolutely no evidence, what are these accounts of "disinterested observers" that we cannot compare to, and what is it about them, or about their absence, that prevents us from reasonably determining what happened back then by using the gospel accounts, and any other available source, relating to the Jesus events of about 30 AD? Why can't we use the sources we do have to draw reasonable conclusions as to what happened?


Going on and on, in an attempt to make an 'argument by absurdity' when you clearly don't grasp the significant points is just 'absurdity.' Not an argument.

You seem to be saying that the absence of other evidence makes it impossible to draw conclusions from the evidence we do have. But isn't it always true that there is an absence of other evidence, for any historical facts? We can always wish for additional evidence, can we not? And it would always be better to have more. But does that prevent us from still using what we do have to draw some conclusions?

Why can't we draw conclusions about the Jesus events, despite the absence of other hypothetical evidence that we would like to also have? We obviously do this for other historical events, so why can't we also do this to determine these Jesus events, even though there are the unknown and doubtful elements which could emerge from additional evidence if only it existed? Yet, even without that additional evidence, can't we reasonably determine what happened?


. . . or an account which was not subject to the Christain efforts to edit the historical record (such as all the gnostic gospels which were destroyed because they were gnostic gospels.)

(First, your history needs to be corrected: Gospels were "destroyed" only in the sense that they were not preserved,

Wrong. They were actively hunted down for the express purpose of destroying them.

There is no evidence for this. You cannot cite any source for this other than modern theorists and Bible-basher crusaders. None of the modern sources for these claims ever provide any evidence dating back before 1000 AD. It is not until the Reformation period that there are any cases of documents being destroyed. Certain heretics were hunted and killed, but there's no record of any writings being destroyed.


I honestly can't tell if you're just unaware of this aspect of early Christian history, or actually trying to cover it up. But dismissing it, that's not advancing your credibility.

You and others continue to make this charge about writings being destroyed by Christians, but you never provide any source for this, other than modern 20th- and 21st-century crusaders.

The only evidence for any Christian bookburnings is one item written in about 1100 AD, which quoted a 7th-century source which claimed a pagan library in Antioch was burned in 364 AD. If this event really happened, it was a rioting mob which burned the temple of the pagan emperor Julian. Some of the rioters tried to rescue some of the books, because these were not the target.

This is all covered earlier in http://talkfreethought.org/showthread.php?3071-120-Reasons-to-Reject-Christianity/page107


And what was in those lost gnostic gospels that has been eliminated?

Since we only know of some of them by the titles (mentioned in those reports of their purposeful destruction), we don't know.

There are no such "reports" -- this is a lie. You can't produce any source for this. You need to stop believing every word programmed into you by that Jesus-debunker mythicist crusader you worship and instead do some checking on this. The sources for these falsehoods do not exist.


What did those gospels tell us about Jesus that conflicts with the canonical gospels? Your point presumably is that these writings would undermine the credibility of the canonical gospels. But how do you know that?

My point is that you claim the Jesus gospels survived because they're somehow special.

No, they survived because they were written and preserved by being copied. Whereas the documents you're talking about were never written. They are fictional. Or, the ones that were written finally rotted and are lost, because they were not copied, but then others have survived. None were ever destroyed by Christians.

And there's no reason to believe anything written conflicts significantly with what we have in the canonical gospel accounts. What the extra writings did was expand on the gospel accounts, adding mystical interpretations and also fabricating new legends.


They survived because they were approved by the people in power.

No, all documents that survived did so because they were copied. The ones not copied perished.


People who did not tolerate dissent.

They persecuted some heretics, but they did not destroy writings.


Some of the gnostic gospels also contain miracle stories about Jesus. But the important question is: Why did gnostics want to put their teachings into the mouth of Jesus?

You must answer this question if you're serious about the importance of these gnostic gospels. Why did they choose Jesus as their mouthpiece? Why was he so special that they thought it necessary to use him in this way?

The only reason i brought them up was because you are ignorant of so much history, esp. the parts that do not support the monotheology you've tried to attach to Jesus and early Christains.

Why do you always misspell the word "Christian"? (I usually correct it.) Does that have a symbolic meaning?


The gnostics could have chosen someone else to transmit their teachings.

We just don't know that they did not. Remember that whole 'we don't know the contents because the early Christains destroyed them' bit?

It's obvious you believe this myth about Christians destroying books only because you want to believe it. You have no evidence whatever for this belief. So you are just choosing what to believe based on your feelings.

But by contrast, there is some evidence for the Jesus miracle events. There are documents attesting to these miracle events, whereas there is no evidence that the Church or Christians conducted bookburnings or any destroying of books (prior to the Reformation period). So don't preach about the lack of evidence for the Jesus miracles. There is at least some evidence, in the form of written documents saying it happened, written near the time of the events, whereas you believe these bookburning legends even though there is no evidence at all. Nothing in the historical record about it.

Think about that when you try to tell us what the gnostics wrote and why.

Think about what? these stories that your mythicist celebrity pundit makes up and which you believe uncritically without checking?

Here we go again: I'll pay a $50 donation to this website TFT if you can provide any evidence based on a source prior to 1000 AD, showing that the Church or Christians did any bookburnings (not counting the alleged Antioch library burning in 364 AD and not counting the incident in Acts 19:19).

You're preaching at me to "think about" something that never happened.


So why is it that in all the gnostic gospels it's this same Christ person who is presented as the holy sage or God Incarnate who reveals the Truth to the listeners?

Pure fantasy. A rather self-serving interpretation of DATA YOU DO NOT HAVE!

NO ONE DOES!

What fantasy? What I'm saying is that the Gnostic gospels are mainly about the same Jesus Christ figure that the canonical gospels are about. You think they're not about him? Shall we go through them one by one? These "gospels" are not about some Jesus parallel figure who also did miracles in competition with the Jesus miracles and which the Christians had to destroy. They are about the same person, speaking to his disciples, sometimes depicted as doing miracles, other times just preaching. Much of the same stuff as in the canonical gospels.

Though they are excluded from the canon, this does not mean there was persecution of the writers or destruction of the writings. Many normal orthodox writings were excluded. That doesn't mean anything was destroyed or burned. Many of the excluded writings were still endorsed anyway by the Church and were recommended as good reading.


This same mythic hero figure is always there -- no one else.

Ummmm....I'm going to reiterate: Bullshit. This flight of fancy offers evidence that you don't have to reach conclusions you already hold. You're testifying to the contents of gospels no one's seen for about 1900 years.

We have several of the gnostic gospels, and all of them present the same Christ person and no other mythic figure in competition with him.

And you wonder why a skeptic might not accept your interpretation of history as being the 'best' answer? Laughable.

Let's go through the examples of Gnostic gospels listed by Wikipedia.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gnostic_Gospels

  • Gospel of Thomas -- entirely sayings of Jesus, many similarities to the gospel account sayings. Some differences, but nothing contradicting the canonical gospels

  • Gospel of the Lord, or Gospel of Marcion, http://gnosis.org/library/marcion/Gospel1.html -- all based on the Gospel of Luke. It contains 2 of the Jesus miracle healings from Luke.

  • Gospel of Truth, http://gnosis.org/naghamm/got.html -- This is all about Christ, though the language throughout is about "the Father," and Christ is identified at the beginning:
    That is the gospel of him whom they seek, which he has revealed to the perfect through the mercies of the Father as the hidden mystery, Jesus the Christ. Through him he enlightened those who were in darkness because of forgetfulness. He enlightened them and gave them a path. . . . He was nailed to a cross. He became a fruit of the knowledge of the Father.

    All these Gnostic gospels are about explaining the connection of Jesus to God, and they give various mystical interpretations, like this example. There is no other mythic hero figure offered in competition with Jesus.

  • Gospel of Judas, http://www.nationalgeographic.com/lostgospel/_pdf/GospelofJudas.pdf -- This is mainly conversations between Jesus and Judas, in which Jesus gives additional spiritual insights not in the canonical gospels. Obviously this is the same Jesus of the canonical gospels, but expanded upon. This Christ is the source of all the Truth presented.

  • Coptic Gospel of the Egyptians, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holy_Book_of_the_Great_Invisible_Spirit
    The main contents concern the Sethian Gnostic understanding of how the earth came into being, how Seth, in the Gnostic interpretation, is incarnated as Jesus in order to release people's souls from the evil prison that is creation.
    So here it's about Jesus again, but that he's an incarnation of an earlier god Seth. So it's still all about interpreting who this Jesus figure was.

    Why are these gnostic writers so obsessed on this Jesus Christ figure? If there were other mythic hero miracle-worker legends around to choose from, why is it that they choose only the Jesus figure for their myth hero?

  • Trimorphic Protennoia, http://gnosis.org/naghamm/trimorph.html -- heavy mystical language, some references to "Christ" and to "the Father" and the virgin birth and much language patterned after the Gospel of John. All doubt that it's the same Jesus Christ referred to is removed by the statement at the end:
    As for me, I put on Jesus. I bore him from the cursed wood, and established him in the dwelling places of his Father. And those who watch over their dwelling places did not recognize me.
    So this also is an earlier god of some kind, a mystical cosmic entity, who appeared in the form of Jesus Christ. Who is this earlier gnostic god? S/he introduces him/herself at the beginning:
    I am Protennoia, the Thought that dwells in the Light. I am the movement that dwells in the All, she in whom the All takes its stand, the first-born among those who came to be, she who exists before the All.
    So these Gnostic gospels are revelations of some kind which explain Jesus as an incarnation of some gnostic cosmic figure, with sometimes heavy spiritual/ethereal language.

  • Gospel of Mary, http://gnosis.org/library/marygosp.htm and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Mary -- Mary receives some special teachings from Jesus, which she relates to Peter and other disciples.

  • Gospel of Philip, http://gnosis.org/naghamm/gop.html -- Whatever the message of this Gospel is, it's about Jesus Christ again, trying to explain something that the writer thinks is not understood properly:
    Some said, "Mary conceived by the Holy Spirit." They are in error. They do not know what they are saying. When did a woman ever conceive by a woman? Mary is the virgin whom no power defiled. She is a great anathema to the Hebrews, who are the apostles and the apostolic men. This virgin whom no power defiled [...] the powers defile themselves. And the Lord would not have said "My Father who is in Heaven" (Mt 16:17), unless he had had another father, but he would have said simply "My father".
    Also:
    "Jesus" is a hidden name, "Christ" is a revealed name. For this reason "Jesus" is not particular to any language; rather he is always called by the name "Jesus". While as for "Christ", in Syriac it is "Messiah", in Greek it is "Christ". Certainly all the others have it according to their own language. "The Nazarene" is he who reveals what is hidden. Christ has everything in himself, whether man, or angel, or mystery, and the Father.
Now do you understand who the Christ really was? It's all right here, in these early Gnostic gospels that the early Church wanted to ban because it's so subversive. And you think the early Christians or the Church went on a bookburning campaign to eliminate these dangerous ideas?

The above are all the writings listed as "Gnostic Gospels" in this wikipedia site https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gnostic_Gospels . Every one of them, without exception, is focused on the Jesus Christ figure of about 30 AD, trying to give an alternative explanation of who he was, saying he was the embodiment of some earlier cosmic entity of some kind.

There's no evidence whatever that these gnostic gospels were about anything other than this, such as about any other mythic miracle hero competing with Jesus, and which had to be destroyed by Christians as some kind of rival to the Christian Jesus whose monopoly on Deity status would be threatened by such rivals.

There were no such rivals, no bookburning campaigns to eliminate any such mythic hero legends, no crusades to eliminate these rival messiah savior cults. They did not exist, other than the normal hundreds of nobody charlatans who, in a few cases like Simon Magus, did manage to get a minor mention here or there, but were not taken seriously.

How do you explain why ALL the gnostic gospel writers chose this Jesus Christ figure to be their miracle mythic deity figure? Why were there no other mythic figures chosen to play this role? if they existed? or were taken seriously by anyone?
 
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(continued)

Originally Posted by Keith&Co.

....in November, 2014. Don't you have more recent comments to occupy your time?
I mean, didn't you reply to all this once already? And weren't those replies properly replied to?
Are you avoiding dealing with the rebuttals by revisiting very, very old comments?
 
Lumpenproletariat:

Thanks for making our point so well. Charlemagne is an example of someone who is well attested in the historic record through archaeological evidence, a wealth of non-apologetic documentation as well as the anonymous (and quite apologetic) document to which you appealed. We even have coins with his image:

225px-Charlemagne_denier_Mayence_812_814.jpg


The anonymous document about Charlemagne is culled for historical information, rejecting the miracles.

If you want to go to an example that more closely resembles your Jesus myth, look no further than King Arthur. Here's an example of what appears to be an historical figure with numerous legendary (and written) tales. But his historicity is debated.

The Jesus myth is much more like King Arthur than Chrlemagne. The stories about him that we have today could easily have been written about a completely fictional character. There are no artifacts (much though they proliferated during medieval times). There is nothing but an anonymous story that gives the appearance of having been inspired by a dude named Paul who was channeling a heavenly voice. Numerous oral traditions sprung up about this character, some got written down over a span of many decades, eventually 4 were codified by the Council of Nicea in 325.
 
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This description further leaves open the following interpretations:
Uersality of the Flood. One of the most controversial aspects of flood theology concerns the extent of the flood. Three major positions are taken: (1) the traditional, which asserts the uersal, worldwide, nature of the deluge; (2) limited flood theories, which narrow the scope of the flood story to a particular geographical location in Mesopotamia; and (3) nonliteral (symbolic) interpretation, which suggests that the flood story is a nonhistorical account written to teach theological truth. Against the third interpretation, we have already discussed the historical nature of the flood. Of the two first positions, the limited flood theories rest primarily on scientific arguments that set forth seemingly difficult physical problems for a uersal flood. These problems are not insurmountable given the supernatural nature of the flood; numerous recent scientific studies also provide a growing body of evidence for diluvial catastrophism instead of uniformitarianism. Only the traditional uersalist understanding does full justice to all the biblical data, and this interpretation is crucial for flood theology in Genesis and for the theological implications drawn by later biblical writers.

Which of these represents your belief in the flood story?
I think it is a fable, and doesn't teach any "theological truth". However, if one thinks the Bible(s) is God-breathed, and essentially without human introduced errors I don't find a rational way to consider this fable to be anything other than a literal world wide deluge of water, and this link's argument from this particular perspective is generally appropriate:

(1) the trajectory of major themes in Genesis 1-11 creation, fall, plan of redemption, spread of sinis uersal in scope and calls for a matching uersal judgment; (2) the genealogical lines from both Adam ( Gen 4:17-26 ; 5:1-31 ) and Noah ( Gen 10:1-32 ; 11:1-9 ) are exclusive in nature, indicating that as Adam was father of all preflood humanity, so Noah was father of all post flood humanity; (3) the same inclusive divine blessing to be fruitful and multiply is given to both Adam and Noah ( Gen 1:28 ; 9:1 ); (4) the covenant ( Gen 9:9-10 ) and its rainbow sign ( Gen 9:12-17 ) are clearly linked with the extent of the flood ( Genesis 9:16 Genesis 9:18 ); if there was only a local flood, then the covenant would be only a limited covenant; (5) the viability of God's promise ( Gen 9:15 ; cf. Isa 54:9 ) is wrapped up in the uersality of the flood; if only a local flood occurred, then God has broken his promise every time another local flood has happened; (6) the uersality of the flood is underscored by the enormous size of the ark ( Gen 6:14-15 ) and the stated necessity for saving all the species of animals and plants in the ark ( Gen 6:16-21 ; 7:2-3 ); a massive ark filled with representatives of all nonaquatic animal/plant species would be unnecessary if this were only a local flood; (7) the covering of "all the high mountains" by at least twenty feet of water ( Gen 7:19-20 ) could not involve simply a local flood, since water seeks its own level across the surface of the globe; (8) the duration of the flood (Noah in the ark over a year, Gen 7:11-8:14 ) makes sense only with a uersal flood; (9) the New Testament passages concerning the flood all employ uersal language ("took them all away" [ Matt 24:39 ]; "destroyed them all" [ Luke 17:27 ]; Noah "condemned the world" [ Heb 11:7 ]); and (10) the New Testament flood typology assumes and depends upon the uersality of the flood to theologically argue for an imminent worldwide judgment by fire ( 2 Peter 3:6-7 ).

So the question for Lion IRC, is just what theological POV he has relative to his holy book.
 
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