Lumpenproletariat
Veteran Member
- Joined
- May 9, 2014
- Messages
- 2,701
- Basic Beliefs
- ---- "Just the facts, ma'am, just the facts."
Thom Hartmann Slogan --- "Corporations are not people."
Why are Corporations not people, for purposes of the law and our Rights under the First Amendment?
Below is a summary of the Citizens United Case, which is where this controversial slogan got started. According to Talk-Show host Thom Hartmann, it's because of this one case that the "Middle Class" in America is being destroyed. Because this one Supreme Court ruling has opened the floodgates to the Super-rich to bribe politicians in order to reduce taxes on the rich, thus causing the very high national debt and leading to huge spending cuts and destroying programs needed by the bottom 90% of the population -- such as education, health care, transportation, infrastructure, etc.
_____________________________
summary of Citizens United (taken from Google Search -- "What is the Citizens United Case about?")
_________________________________
Someone needs to explain why corporations are not "people" -- as intended in the 1st Amendment, which reads: "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances."
So "right of the people" and "abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press" are the words which apply. The "people" are to be free to speak and publish or print (including video/audio recordings, films, etc.) without gov't suppression. The argument used by Progressives like Thom Hartmann is that this freedom is not to be extended to corporations because they are not "people" (as understood in the phrase "right of the people").
Does this make sense? Does it make sense to say that a group, like a corporation, is not "people" and so therefore is not entitled to 1st Amendment rights?
It seems that most "Progressives" are making this claim. That because a corporation is not people it is not therefore covered by the 1st Amendment. Does this make sense?
Why are Corporations not people, for purposes of the law and our Rights under the First Amendment?
Below is a summary of the Citizens United Case, which is where this controversial slogan got started. According to Talk-Show host Thom Hartmann, it's because of this one case that the "Middle Class" in America is being destroyed. Because this one Supreme Court ruling has opened the floodgates to the Super-rich to bribe politicians in order to reduce taxes on the rich, thus causing the very high national debt and leading to huge spending cuts and destroying programs needed by the bottom 90% of the population -- such as education, health care, transportation, infrastructure, etc.
_____________________________
summary of Citizens United (taken from Google Search -- "What is the Citizens United Case about?")
The Citizens United case, decided by the US Supreme Court in 2010, centered on the question of whether the government could restrict corporations and unions from spending money on independent political advertisements. The non-profit group Citizens United wanted to release a movie criticizing Hillary Clinton during the 2008 Democratic primary, but the Federal Election Commission (FEC) argued that a law limiting corporate and union spending on political ads applied to the film. Citizens United argued this restriction violated their First Amendment right to free speech. The Supreme Court ultimately agreed, ruling that the government could not limit corporate and union spending on independent political ads.
Here's a more detailed breakdown:
The Issue:
Citizens United wanted to use their funds to produce and distribute a film criticizing Hillary Clinton, who was a candidate in the 2008 Democratic primary. The FEC argued that the film was an "electioneering communication" under the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (BCRA), which prohibited corporations and unions from using their general treasury funds for such communications.
Citizens United's Argument:
Citizens United claimed that the BCRA's restrictions on their spending violated their First Amendment right to free speech, arguing that they should be able to spend as much money as they want to express their political views, according to the Brennan Center for Justice.
The Supreme Court's Ruling:
The Supreme Court, in a 5-4 decision, sided with Citizens United, ruling that the government could not restrict corporations and unions from spending money on independent political ads. The Court reasoned that such restrictions violated the First Amendment's protection of free speech.
Impact:
The Citizens United decision has had a significant impact on campaign finance, allowing corporations and unions to spend unlimited amounts of money on political advertising, as long as they do not coordinate with a candidate or campaign. This has led to the rise of Super PACs and other groups that can raise and spend unlimited amounts of money on political campaigns.
_________________________________
Someone needs to explain why corporations are not "people" -- as intended in the 1st Amendment, which reads: "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances."
So "right of the people" and "abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press" are the words which apply. The "people" are to be free to speak and publish or print (including video/audio recordings, films, etc.) without gov't suppression. The argument used by Progressives like Thom Hartmann is that this freedom is not to be extended to corporations because they are not "people" (as understood in the phrase "right of the people").
Does this make sense? Does it make sense to say that a group, like a corporation, is not "people" and so therefore is not entitled to 1st Amendment rights?
It seems that most "Progressives" are making this claim. That because a corporation is not people it is not therefore covered by the 1st Amendment. Does this make sense?
Last edited: