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Fine-Tuning Argument vs Argument From Miracles

lumpen said:
Is it SPECIAL PLEADING to argue for the miracles of Jesus based on the 1st-century evidence (written accounts)?

Yes it is, as has been exhaustively detailed for you countless times now, but let's do it again. Everything you just argued can be equally applied to Joseph Smith or L. Ron Hubbard for that matter. Something that has also been exhaustively detailed for you countless times.

Which necessarily means that you MUST accept Scientology to be factual and Mormonism to be the most factual form of Christianity in existence, because it is the most recent and occurred in modern times under better circumstances in regard to recorded anecdotal testimony, etc., etc., etc.

You know this. Yet you keep pretending.

It is approaching clinical psychosis at this point that you keep regurgitating the same horeshit you ate ten seconds ago, while at the same time NOT UNDERSTAND WHAT SPECIAL PLEADING ENTAILS.

The second you say the witnesses to Joseph Smith's claims are in any way unreliable is the second you are engaging in special pleading.
 
lumpen said:
Is it SPECIAL PLEADING to argue for the miracles of Jesus based on the 1st-century evidence (written accounts)?

Yes it is, as has been exhaustively detailed for you countless times now, but let's do it again. Everything you just argued can be equally applied to Joseph Smith or L. Ron Hubbard for that matter.

Go on then. Do it.
Show us the 2000 year old manuscript evidence for L Ron Hubbard performing apparent miracles.


Something that has also been exhaustively detailed for you countless times.

Which necessarily means that you MUST accept Scientology to be factual and Mormonism to be the most factual form of Christianity in existence, because it is the most recent and occurred in modern times under better circumstances in regard to recorded anecdotal testimony, etc., etc., etc.

You know this. Yet you keep pretending.

It is approaching clinical psychosis at this point that you keep regurgitating the same horeshit you ate ten seconds ago, while at the same time NOT UNDERSTAND WHAT SPECIAL PLEADING ENTAILS.

Show your workings. Demonstrate how you come to the conclusion that supernatural ability claims made about Joseph Smith are exactly like the long standing claims made about Jesus.

The second you say the witnesses to Joseph Smith's claims are in any way unreliable is the second you are engaging in special pleading.

No. That's not special pleading.
Asserting that the evidence of L Ron Hubbard's supernatural deeds is not as strong as the historical evidence for Jesus' is the opposite of special pleading. Lumpenproletariat isn't asking for a hall pass on one historical claim that he wouldn't grant for another historical claim. He's arguing quite cogently that...'one of these claims is not like the other'
 
Go on then. Do it.
Show us the 2000 year old manuscript evidence for L Ron Hubbard performing apparent miracles.


Something that has also been exhaustively detailed for you countless times.

Which necessarily means that you MUST accept Scientology to be factual and Mormonism to be the most factual form of Christianity in existence, because it is the most recent and occurred in modern times under better circumstances in regard to recorded anecdotal testimony, etc., etc., etc.

You know this. Yet you keep pretending.

It is approaching clinical psychosis at this point that you keep regurgitating the same horeshit you ate ten seconds ago, while at the same time NOT UNDERSTAND WHAT SPECIAL PLEADING ENTAILS.

Show your workings. Demonstrate how you come to the conclusion that supernatural ability claims made about Joseph Smith are exactly like the long standing claims made about Jesus.

The second you say the witnesses to Joseph Smith's claims are in any way unreliable is the second you are engaging in special pleading.

No. That's not special pleading.
Asserting that the evidence of L Ron Hubbard's supernatural deeds is not as strong as the historical evidence for Jesus' is the opposite of special pleading. Lumpenproletariat isn't asking for a hall pass on one historical claim that he wouldn't grant for another historical claim. He's arguing quite cogently that...'one of these claims is not like the other'
So the claim is that because religion has accepted the Jesus miracle claims for 2000 years that they must be true? Since J. Smith's miracle claims are a little less than 200 years old they must be false?

I guess that means that the claims of the Buddha's miraculous feats must be even truer than the Jesus miraculous claims since they have been around and accepted as truth 600 years longer.

Or are you going to invoke special pleading that the Buddha's claims are too old?
 
It's the principle that holds true, not the specifics of what is claimed. Rational people don't believe "eyewitness" testimony about UFO abductions even though there are literally thousands of them available. We know that people lie.

But there are people who do believe these testimonies. They believe in spite of the lack of any corroborating evidence that the abductions occurred.

There is anecdotal evidence of Scientology endowing people with super brain power once they rid themselves of the Thetans that are commandeering their brainpower for their own use. There is sworn testimony (the witness of the 8) that Joseph Smith translated the Book of Mormon from ancient golden plates of "ancient origin and curious workmanship."

And there were people who believed Jesus performed these miracles in spite of the lack of any one making contemporary observations that such marvelous things occurred. Years later there were stories about supposed Jewish leaders who were amazed by these wondrous deeds, but somehow not one of them saw fit to make any note that it happened when it supposedly happened. Not one!

It only takes a few believers to propagate the belief across multiple generations and keep copying the scriptures long enough to get the ball rolling. It's how Mormonism started. It's how Islam started. It's how Christianity started. Anything else is special pleading. It has nothing to do with how long people have believed bullshit or how many people have been swayed by bullshit. Bullshit is still bullshit.
 
Show your workings. Demonstrate how you come to the conclusion that supernatural ability claims made about Joseph Smith are exactly like the long standing claims made about Jesus.
What miracles? That time Jesus ended hunger in Israel? How he cured everyone in Israel?

Oh wait... you are talking about those fleeting miracles. Such as bringing people back from the dead... and when I say that, I mean, three gospels each mention one different person being raised from the dead.
 
Go on then. Do it.

Oh no! A forceful challenge! :rolleyes:

We already have numerous times.

Show us the 2000 year old manuscript evidence for L Ron Hubbard performing apparent miracles.

We have FAR BETTER evidence than 2000 year old fairy tales, because as Lumpen illogically argued, evidence that is closer to the events is somehow better.

Demonstrate how you come to the conclusion that supernatural ability claims made about Joseph Smith are exactly like the long standing claims made about Jesus.

Joseph Smith lived in more modern times and therefore was subject to far greater informed scrutiny than could ever have been applied to two thousand year old ignorant fishermen, who were all so easily duped that Jesus had to actually admonish them against false prophets.

Joseph Smith’s claims were verified instantly and by first hand witnesses who gave sworn testimony to what they witnessed. They were the bestest most best best witnesses that could ever have walked the earth.

They all said they saw these things and others have lied about them and tried to destroy their credibility because they knew it was the truth and the devil always tries to destroy anything Joseph Smith said and they were the bestest best bestie best first hand eyewitnesses because of proximity and it’s all uncontested and we have the original transcripts of what they swore to that have never been changed!

The second you say the witnesses to Joseph Smith's claims are in any way unreliable is the second you are engaging in special pleading.

No. That's not special pleading.

Yes, it is because the EXACT SAME ARGUMENTS apply to all of the thousands of unknown changes made over the centuries to the NT claims.

Asserting that the evidence of L Ron Hubbard's supernatural deeds is not as strong as the historical evidence for Jesus' is the opposite of special pleading.

Asserting anything is anything isn’t the problem; it’s the support behind the assertion that’s the problem.

Lumpenproletariat isn't asking for a hall pass on one historical claim that he wouldn't grant for another historical claim.

Yes, he is doing exactly that. He is arguing, for example, that proximity of a certain number of years between an alleged event and someone writing an account of said alleged event has any relevance when it does not. If it did, then, again, Joseph Smith’s claims must all be the best possible claims as we have testimony of his claims that came within DAYS of them, not sixty to seventy years after like with the NT.

He's arguing quite cogently that...'one of these claims is not like the other'

So have at it then. Why doesn’t proximity support Joseph Smith’s claims, but it somehow does support NT claims?

He asserted that we know JS’s witnesses were unreliable. We don’t even know who claimed anything at all about Jesus, other than the confession from Paul that he never knew the guy and everything he “saw” was the result of a “vision,” which we know to be utterly worthless full stop. At best, we have one guy who never met Jesus and then one story—written at least forty years after the death of Jesus—that was likewise not written by an eyewitness and then his story gets revised a couple times decades later by others who were likewise not eyewitnesses.

We don’t know who any of these people actually were to any degree of certainty and we know that the first one’s story—“Mark”—has at least been tampered with (the ending) or otherwise changed.

We know too that thousands of copyists and counterfeiters have changed unknown dozens of things about the claims over the centuries.

And we know that people are fucking morons and will literally believe anything—such as the claims of an admitted science fiction writer who set about to deliberately make up a religion—so why in the world would ANY such claims be accepted for any reason at all? Emphasis on “reason.”

In short, ALL claims of fantastical beasties and miracle cures are identical to one another because they are all uncorroborated ANECDOTES. So, no matter what Lumpen writes, it he says THIS person’s anecdote is better than that person’s anecdote, he is engaging in special pleading.

All such claims are equally worthless and can only “evidence”—AT BEST—that someone saw something that they could not readily explain. It does NOT however prove that what they claimed to have seen actually happened.

It’s not possible for an anecdote to prove itself. Anyone claiming otherwise is engaging in special pleading.

Here, I’ll do it again since you’re such a disengenuous cult member, I claim that I am Jesus.

My claim proves I am Jesus.

5,000 people have all witnessed the miracles I performed yesterday.

Proximity and number of eyewitnesses proves my claim.

I am therefore Jesus.

Absolutely nothing about the above can be disproved by you or Lumpen and any attempts to do so are driven by the devil, thus further proving that I am your god.

There. I have just provided IDENTICAL EVIDENCE to the NT claims, only mine is better because of everything Lumpen argued.
 
What's more--and this is truly the most despicable thing about all of this--is that both you and Lumpen unquestionably know we're right, yet you keep desperately trying to defend your asinine beliefs. It's transparent and pathetic.

The truth of the matter is that you just want to believe whatever the fuck you want to believe. ALL of this blather is completely unnecessary, so, once again, it can only truly evidence the fact that you both have serious doubts and are just throwing up walls of text to prove something to yourselves or to otherwise reinforce your denial.

The whole point of religious faith is to believe in spite of the evidence that contradicts it.

So exactly who are you trying to convince? It ain't any of us.
 
The SPECIAL PLEADING rebuttal -- What about all those other "messiahs" who did the same miracles Jesus did?

The example of Sai Baba -- and L. Ron Hubbard, Joseph Smith, other modern comparisons

The example of Apollonius of Tyana -- and Buddha, Hercules, other ancient comparisons



(continued from previous Wall of Text)


Your entire response boils down to nothing more than special pleading.

He must be right, because my rebuttal to this is longer than his one-liner. And the longer statement is always wrong, which is the best argument that I'm wrong and he's right.

Is it SPECIAL PLEADING to argue for the miracles of Jesus based on the 1st-century evidence?

"Special Pleading" -- blogger debunks Christ-belief "argument from miracles": http://www.jefflewis.net/blog/2019/03/comparing_jesus_to_another_pur.html

With Koyaanisqatsi giving us no example of another miracle-worker to compare Jesus to, we have to go in search of someone else making this "special pleading" retort, to determine if there is a "special pleading" fallacy going on. But it's not enough to just name someone in the abstract, or give a laundry list of names (of supposed miracle-workers). One must provide the particular example of the "miracle" performed by the alleged miracle-worker:

Comparing Jesus to Another Purported Holy Man

In discussing religion with Christians, there seems to be this blind spot about the vast array of different religious beliefs out there. Many seem to see religion as a dichotomy - either Christianity is true, or religion in general is false. In many of their arguments, they just don't seem to even consider other religions (Pascal's wager is an obvious example of this blind spot). It results in many of their arguments being special pleading, but since they seem to be so unaware/dismissive of other religions, I'm not sure they even realize it's special pleading. But the end result is still that the arguments aren't particularly persuasive.

So, for some context, let's consider a different purported holy man besides Jesus. This man began a ministry and attracted many followers. According to his followers, he was prophesied in scriptures, and was God in the flesh. They claim he performed many miracles, including healings, levitation (somewhat similar to Christ's walking on water), making objects appear, changing water into other drinks (very similar to turning water into wine), . . . There are many claimed eye-witnesses to his miracles and these visions, and a written account of his life, including many of the miracles he performed.

"he was prophesied in scriptures"

(Let's get this out of the way first.)

There's a problem with this messianic claim for Jesus as being divine or superhuman. Here there might really be a "special pleading" fallacy committed, but not in the argument from miracles. The most famous Jesus prophecy fulfillment seems to be the Bethlehem birth, found only in Matthew and Luke, fulfilling Micah 5:1. This is very difficult to maintain without requiring the truth-seeker to accept the doubtful Matthew and Luke birth stories as divinely inspired, and infallible. Which is not necessary in order to establish that he performed miracle healings or that he resurrected -- for that it's only necessary to recognize the Gospel accounts as normal human writings, reporting observable facts in history, with normal elements of error mixed in with the historical fact. Also, the author of John believed that Jesus was not born in Bethlehem (Jn 7:41-43), so the prophecy-fulfillment argument is weak.

There might be similar problems connecting Jesus to the other Jewish prophecies. In most cases it seems necessary to accept the infallibility of scripture as a prerequisite to these prophecy-fulfillment claims.

But no infallibility of scripture is needed to establish the Jesus miracle acts as credible, and thus there's no "special pleading" fallacy in believing Jesus did miracles, showing his unique life-giving power and superhuman status. So even if there might be some logical fallacies, or flaws, or factual errors in some of the christology traditions/doctrines, this isn't so for the basic fact of the miracle acts, for which we have real evidence not dependent on any religious belief or premise other than basic science and normal historical documentation.

Of course within all the thousands (millions?) of Christ-belief factions, mysticizings, spiritualizings, theologizings, evangelizings, and offshoot sects and crusades, there's bound to be a few errors and contradictions and fallacies committed (like maybe a billion or so).

But for the miracle claims, it's "Just the facts, ma'am," so to make the "special pleading" case, our debunker must show us another example of a reputed miracle-worker for whom we have legitimate evidence, such as we have for Jesus in the Gospels. We're told here that Sai Baba is such a case, and some others are also named, but the evidence is not provided.

It's not enough to just give us a name (or many names) of someone said to be comparable to Jesus in the Gospels. We have to know what claim is being made, specifically, of their miracle deeds, and see the original source making the claim. The "special pleading" accuser always stops before that point, without giving us the examples of the miracle-worker's great deeds. Probably because he knows they are ludicrous and are not really comparable to Jesus in the Gospels.


Now, lest you think I'm referring to some ancient figure whose reputation grew legendary over generations, this man was born in 1926, and he . . .

But his reputation grew legendary over a period of 50 years or longer, through a long public career of preaching and displaying his charisma directly to thousands of disciples, and indirectly through modern technology to millions -- a modern advantage which he shares with several other popular gurus and celebrities, even demagogues, all of whom had talent and knew how to take advantage of the modern media. It is easy to explain how miracles were attributed to him by his intoxicated devotees, over his long career, even if the reports were fictional.

Such a popular celebrity cannot be compared to Jesus in the 1st century whose public life was only 1-3 years and had no modern media to establish a wide reputation.

. . . born in 1926, and he only died in 2011. His biography was written while he was still alive, and many of the eye witness testimonies are available on the Internet (such as https://www.quora.com/Has-anyone-felt-the-power-of-Sai-Baba-personally ).

There is no serious "miracle" claim at this link. There are many subjective feel-good experiences reported by the devotees, but nothing comparable to an ability to instantly heal the blind or the lame or lepers. Why can't the "special pleading" debunker cite one example of a real "miracle" claim here?


His name was Sathya Sai Baba, and he still has devoted followers.

Notice (above and below) that he doesn't cite any text or report or original source for any miracle act, meaning something which normal humans cannot do. Whenever these alternative miracle-workers are cited, we're never provided with the original reports. Instead we always have to rely on the debunker's paraphrase of what the Jesus parallel -- the "holy man" -- supposedly did. Why can't they ever give us the original source for the claim? i.e., a reported real miracle act seen by witnesses? for just one such claim?

It's not true that there are other examples of reported miracle-workers if you're not willing to give us the example, naming the particular miracle deeds they did, including the original source making that miracle claim.

Not L. Ron Hubbard, not Joseph Smith, not -- you name the guru -- if you refuse over and over to give us the original source, the text, the publication, QUOTE IT -- quote the text relating what the guru did, which witnesses saw and believed -- if you keep refusing to do this, then you cannot claim there is any SPECIAL PLEADING fallacy being committed. Until you give us that information, quoting the source for it, you have not shown that there are any other reported miracle-workers who are comparable to Jesus in the Gospels.

When will you finally cut the B.S. and give us that information about your alleged miracle-worker example/comparison?


Let's divide the examples into 2 categories, the modern and the ancient cases.

1) Modern cases (after 1500 AD): Sai Baba, also L. Ron Hubbard, Joseph Smith, TV evangelists, etc.

2) Ancient cases other than Jesus in 30 AD (before 1500 AD): Apollonius of Tyana, also Gautama Buddha, and many others.


1) modern cases

It's not good enough to just mention "miracles" but never give any example or tell us what is claimed to have happened or give the original source for it. A link, such as the above for Sai Baba, giving hundreds of feel-good testimonials, like promotionals for a multi-level marketing rally, does not give us examples of miracle acts comparable to that of Jesus raising the dead or giving sight to the blind.

The modern Sai Baba example:

https://www.quora.com/Has-anyone-felt-the-power-of-Sai-Baba-personally lists many "miracles" experienced by his devotees. 99% of his "miracles" are these personal vibes miracles, where disciples felt something from his presence, or also had something nice happen to them which they're sure he must have caused, although he was not present. In many cases they prayed to him for something, and then something happened which was an answer to their prayer, they thought. But it's all just their feeling that he must have done something, not an observable act which he performed.

Don't claim this character also did miracles, according to witnesses, without looking at the particular examples or listening to the disciples making these claims. You can't seriously claim these are similar to Jesus in the Gospels if you actually read them or listen to them. Read the claim first, or listen to it. These recorded testimonies are about subjective personal feelings only, not an actual unusual act being performed by the miracle-worker and witnessed by various observers.

This personal feelings phenomenon is obviously the main driving force behind the Sai Baba miracle claims, being a product of his charismatic effect on the disciples. But there might also be a few testimonials somewhere of claimed healing experiences, where they claim he did something, and then they recovered from an illness (perhaps instantly? like the ones healed by Jesus?). Maybe a "miracle" happened in this or that case? i.e., an observable act he did which cannot be done by normal humans?

If so, these are a tiny fraction of the total reported "miracles" of Sai Baba and are hard to find because they're drowned out and submerged under the vast flood of personal feelings "miracles" which totally dominate all the stories of him. Can someone provide a serious miracle claim? We have to keep an open mind about the possibility, but whoever claims those "miracle" acts happened and were witnessed has to give us the particular example, or the published report telling what happened.

Obviously there are millions of psychic-type claims which cannot be refuted (and maybe billions of others which can be refuted). But it's easy to explain miracle claims about a guru who has a longstanding reputation, developed over decades of preaching to his disciples and impressing them with his charisma. That alone can easily explain the claims (serious claims) even if the "miracle" never really happened but is only an illusion or fiction. But it cannot explain the case of Jesus in 30 AD.


What if someone other than Jesus also did a miracle?

If a miracle really did happen, a real act of power, like an unexplained medical miracle-recovery, that's fine -- there's nothing wrong with it -- it doesn't disprove the miracles of Jesus in the Gospels. Out of the millions of miracle healing claims in many cultures, over many centuries, maybe a small number are real -- maybe 1%, or .1%. There's probably no way a researcher could investigate all the claims, or a thousand of them, and confirm them -- proving some and disproving all the others -- by checking all the claimed facts, checking with all the possible witnesses, etc. But if they have evidence as strong as what we have in the Gospels, reporting the events, maybe the claim is true in that case. So let's have the particular case of a real miracle event, a superhuman act someone witnessed, and proceed from there. Why is no one offering any such example?

In general such claims can easily be explained as having been produced by the impact of the guru and his charisma, influencing his disciples over a long period of 20 or 30 or 40 years, and being publicized and promoted in the media -- even if the claimed miracle event per se is really fiction.

There are millions of personal-feelings "miracles" reported in testimonials to gurus like Sai Baba, and these are not about any observed "miracle" act but just that the guru made them feel good or gave them good vibes. Why do the disciples want to obscure the legitimate miracles, if they exist, with all these personal private feelings "miracles" which have nothing to do with anything observable or objective which a neutral observer could witness if it really happened?


What "miracle" do they say happened? Let's have the particular example.

Not just a general claim that so-and-so did "miracles" -- but the original source telling what happened in at least one particular case. This information about one case only is better than a sweeping claim about 100 or 1000 miracles that happened but no details of what happened.

So, anyone claiming there are "miracles" comparable to those of Jesus -- whether it's devotees claiming it, or a skeptic debunking all such claims -- must provide the particular examples, in which case they could still be right. But they must do better than just give their usual Jesus-debunk rhetoric. They must provide real examples of what happened, i.e., the original reports from the witnesses or those claiming the "miracles" happened. What we need is 2 or 3 specific examples of the miracle claims, telling us what the claim is, from those closest to the actual event, what exactly they claim to have seen or heard, from the original source. So far we are not getting any such examples.

And modern Christians also make similar claims of personal experiences. Or, just religious believers generally. Obviously there are modern claims made about Jesus doing "miracles" today, according to this or that believer, usually connected to their praying and their local church community, where they pray for each other, even do a healing ritual, and sometimes seem to get an "answer" which couldn't be a coincidence, they think. The same happened at the Asclepius temples in 400-300 BC, where worshipers practiced the prescribed rituals, and sometimes they got a good result which they thought the ancient god must have caused. In some cases they report a bizarre miracle happening.

So, if the evidence is provided, and the claim cannot be explained as mythologizing by the disciples who were influenced by the guru's charisma over 10 or 20 or 30 years of preaching, then maybe the claim is true. We need to see the particular example, the report of what happened. But those making these claims don't give us that information. Debunkers first have to make the case that these reported "miracles" really happened -- are reported to have happened -- before they claim there's a "special pleading" fallacy.

The possibility of a comparable miracle-worker cannot be ruled out, if those claiming it produce the original source for the claimed "miracle" event. The Sai Baba believers could provide this evidence if they choose. And yet they don't seem interested in doing this. They just like saying that the miracles do happen, and even that the evidence is better than for Jesus in the Gospels, but they stop there without going further to give any example.

Or, Gospel-debunkers insisting that evidence exists for other cases could produce the evidence, if it exists, give the example, cite the claim by witnesses, telling what they saw. But they never produce this evidence, quoting the source for it.


Ancient miracle tradition as the source for modern miracle claims

Generally what we see in all these cases, including also modern Christ-believers, are worshipers who went to their priest/evangelist/prophet/guru as devout believers, convinced that their prayer would be answered, persuaded by the popular religious tradition established over many centuries, transmitted down through hundreds of generations by their ancestors, promoted by their hierarchy or priesthood ordained through the ancient rituals or institutions. None of these reported miracle claims are about a recent "messiah" unconnected to the ancient religious institutions and rituals. They're always about a credentialed ordained prophet or priest acting according to the prescribed ancient established religious procedures.

Thus being rooted in the ancient religious traditions, it's clear what causes the belief in the modern miracle claims of gurus and televangelists and others performing before their audience of believers -- claims of being healed or getting some other answer to their prayers, even though it could all be fiction, as the belief is a result of normal mythologizing.

This is not what happened in the case of Jesus in 30 AD, who does not fit this standard pattern: the victims he healed were not his disciples who already believed in his power or in an ancient ritual he was performing on them. Though in some cases the victims had heard of him and hoped he would heal them, it was not through an ancient religious tradition that they acquired their belief, but through local rumors that he had exercised this power and had healed someone, perhaps even a large number at a gathering. They were not inspired by his charisma over some period of hearing him preach, but from rumors circulating about him, and they hoped these rumors were true.


Sai Baba: Historical religious teacher is turned into a miracle-worker.

Jesus Christ: Historical miracle-worker is turned into a religious teacher.


He had no longstanding reputation, such as Sai Baba did, but was only a recent figure, appearing a few days or weeks or months earlier, in the local region, with no established recognition, unconnected to any particular religious cult we can recognize in the accounts, except that various conflicting ideological and religious and philosophical ideas became attached to him in the later written accounts, ideas which he may or may not have spoken.

There's no clear connection of him to any specific religious tradition distinct from any others, especially nothing to do with miracles or healing gods, like all the other miracle healing claims are tied to a specific established religious miracle healing tradition. Had he been attached to some such ancient Jewish god or hero or teacher, it would have been Yahweh or Moses or Elijah or Solomon, which he would have named as his power source.

You can't claim he had any exclusive connection to the ancient Jewish god anymore than to an ancient Egyptian or Greek god or to the Gnostic gods (except that he was in a Jewish location, putting him closer to Jewish ideas than to these others). Ancient Jewish prophets are sometimes mentioned or quoted, but nothing showing any dependence on them for his miracle power. Some Greek and Egyptian and Gnostic symbols can also be found in the Gospel accounts.

This absence of any exclusive dependency on a particular ancient religious tradition makes it impossible to explain how people believed in his power if the described miracle acts never happened but are fiction. The common fiction claims in religion and mysticism can be explained as tied to a particular ancient miracle god, such as Krishna in the case of Sai Baba, who performed his acts in the name of those ancient Hindu deities. Here is a web page in which a Sai Baba seeker says he has to be convinced that Baba is not only LIKE Krishna, but actually IS Krishna. http://media.radiosai.org/journals/vol_14/01AUG16/I-am-not-like-Krishna-I-am-Krishna.htm -- He has to go through a questioning phase before he finally becomes a whole-hearted believer, when he becomes convinced that BABA IS KRISHNA HIMSELF -- the very same entity.

This is typical of the various prophets and gurus and "messiah" figures who are believed to do miracles. They must first establish their connection to the ancient miracle deity in whose name they act. Without this the worshipers would not accept them as genuine and believe the miracle claims. But the case of Jesus is different: there is nothing in the miracle stories requiring any such identification with a particular ancient miracle god.


Various symbols got attached to Jesus.

The label "messiah" and other Jewish symbols became attached to Jesus in order to explain who he was -- to satisfy the local population which was mostly Jewish. But his power was recognized first, and then explanations were sought from the ancient scriptures to try to explain his place in the context of the ancient beliefs.

The ancient beliefs don't really explain the reported miracle acts, which are not made a prerequisite in the earlier traditions/scriptures. Though Jesus the Teacher can be connected to earlier Judaism, Jesus the miracle-worker actually had little resemblance to the "messiah" figure described in the ancient Hebrew prophecies. Early 1st-century Jews creating a "messiah" figure would not have produced something like the miracle-worker Jesus of the Gospels -- Jews from this period had no interest in miracle claims -- nothing in the Dead Sea Scrolls, nothing in Philo the Alexandrian, nothing in any Jewish writings going back 200 or 300 or 400 years. And especially they would create no "Messiah" who ends up getting crucified, which was not supposed to happen to the Messiah.

The symbols attached to Jesus come from everywhere, not just from Jewish scripture. They come from Greek philosophy and from Egyptian mysticism and from apocalyptic literature, like Enoch and the Dead Sea Scrolls. The belief in his power came first, and then there occurred a need to find something ancient to attach him to, in order to give him an identity people would accept, rather than seeing him as an alien entity of some kind. And so those symbols became attached to him -- after he became identified as a miracle-worker, which happened first. This explains why other ideas than only Jewish ideas got attached to him. If he was only a Jewish hero, there's no way to explain why Greek-Roman-Egyptian-pagan symbols also got attached to him.


And I chose Sai Baba rather arbitrarily, because I've just happened to learn of him recently. There are many other purported holy men I could use for comparison, such as Ram Bahadur Bamjan, believed by some . . .

This is an outrageous example to offer -- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ram_Bahadur_Bomjon -- showing the depraved mindset of those who are desperate to find Jesus parallels from among the eastern mystics. The Sai Baba example has some respectability, or wide recognition, but this Bahadar example is a disgrace to include here. Why does a debunker-crusader have to sink to this level?

. . . believed by some to be the reincarnation of the Buddha; Sun Myung Moon, who claimed to be a messiah continuing Jesus's work and who wrote new scriptures (i.e. Exposition of the Divine Principle); Joseph Smith, a prophet who claimed to have visions of Jesus and visits from angels and who wrote his revelations into new scriptures (i.e. the Book of Mormon);

There are virtually no serious miracle acts reported about these figures in the literature. Whatever you can dig up will be more ludicrous than serious, but if you claim there's something serious, let's see the original source for it, quoting the original text here, rather than just giving a link. Why does no one ever do this, offering real examples?

Don't retort that there was such a source offered 3 years ago in a previous post -- those were debunked at the time -- give it again here, quoting the exact text relating the miracle event in question. (The Joseph Smith links provided earlier, 2 or 3 years ago, were of lengthy text walls which did not include the specific text for the particular miracle claim, or which obscured it within walls of text 10 times longer than anything I've posted. -- And cut out the silly nonsense about someone seeing a golden tablet! A golden tablet with goofy marks on it is NOT A MIRACLE! Stop it! Get serious! If you can't come up with something better than this, you're admitting that the Jesus miracles are the only ones for which we have serious evidence. -- So to be serious you must copy/quote the particular text relating the claimed miracle act, and only then can you claim to have cited something comparable to the Jesus miracle acts, for which particular original text is provided, reporting what happened in particular cases.)

Note that all the above examples are of gurus who first had to identify with an ancient miracle deity of some kind, in whose name they performed their acts. No one believed any of the miracle claims about them without first having this religious identity established, to connect him to the ancient traditions.


Stop the pretense, give real examples of miracle claims, citing the source!

As usual there are no examples offered of any of the miracles performed by these alleged miracle-workers. When no examples are given, but just a name, or list of names, it's really just a way to say: "See, there are other Jesus-like 'messiahs' also -- Jesus isn't unique!"

Thus the only purpose of giving these parallel "messiahs" is not to show that there is any evidence for them, which there is not, but ------ Oh, there IS evidence? -- but then why is none ever offered? Why do the debunkers only give the list of names but never give a particular example of the evidence, quoting the text reporting what miracle was performed by the prophet or teacher or "messiah" they're offering for comparison? ------ No, the only purpose is to express their hate toward the one case in 30 AD for which there really is evidence.

The truth here is that our "special pleading" debunker hates the fact that there is serious evidence for the Jesus miracles and virtually no evidence for any others -- he can't stand it that there is evidence in this one case only. If there really was evidence for the other ones he names, he would give the evidence for at least one of them, quoting the original source -- i.e., citing the source AND quoting the critical text relating the miracle act.

The "special pleading" outburst is just the debunker's frustration and whining at being unable to find other cases for which there is evidence similar to what we have for Jesus in the Gospels -- and it drives him NUTS!

He wishes there were other examples, but he can't find them because there aren't any. If there were any others he would give them, providing the source, quoting the text which reports the miracle claims. But if he does that he will only embarrass himself, because they are so silly. If there are other serious cases, let's see the example, from the original source, instead of the usual meaningless laundry list of names.

Which is all the Sai Baba example is -- Just one more name on a meaningless laundry list. You can see from the video page https://www.quora.com/Has-anyone-felt-the-power-of-Sai-Baba-personally what virtually all the Sai Baba "miracles" are --- just emotional outbursts from devotees expressing their subjective feelings. And admittedly there are many Christ-belief "miracle" claims too, of this same kind. All of them are based on a devotion to an ancient miracle tradition, to which the modern believer wants to add their personal feelings.

But the miracle claims about Jesus occurred without any connection to an ancient established miracle tradition, inspired only by actual events which happened at around 30 AD, with nothing earlier to explain them.


Ancient religious tradition, not evidence, is usually the source for miracle claims.

Devotion and subjective feelings toward the ancient traditions are not evidence either for modern miracles or for the ancient claims. We have real evidence for one ancient claim, Jesus in about 30 AD, reported in writings from the time. Though we can't rule out other possible cases of an unexplained happening, 99% of miracle claims are lacking serious evidence because it's too easy to explain them, or the evidence for them, as inspired more by the ancient tradition rather than actual miracle events happening. Possibly a psychic phenomenon investigator could gather evidence, question witnesses, etc., and actually make a good case that this or that reported miracle really happened or did not happen.

So for a serious case, similar to Jesus in the Gospels, we need a reported miracle-worker who appears from nowhere, not part of an ancient religious tradition, and not requiring many years of preaching in order first to inspire his devotees who then start claiming he did a miracle. A miracle-worker claim is far more credible in a case of someone doing his miracles without reliance on an ancient religious deity in whose name he performs his miracle, and without reliance on his charisma inspiring his disciples over many years. When those factors are so obvious, as they usually are, that explains the belief of the devotees, even though there was no real miracle act.

But if there are witnesses or reports saying it, and there's no other way to explain it as fitting the normal pattern, then -- who knows? maybe the only explanation is that the reported miracle really did happen.


Yes, there could be other credible cases of miracles.

But let's see the evidence, instead of the constant whining that Jesus can't be the only one.

And it's appropriate again to name here the one example from 100 years ago, of Rasputin the mad monk, for whom there is evidence that he healed a child from a blood disease -- or rather, brought relief to that child, who otherwise seemed to be dying, and who could not be helped by mainline medical doctors. There is evidence in this one case, from the historical record, which cannot be denied. It's documented that this case is real, based on standard historical records, but there is no consensus on what Rasputin did, or how he caused the child to recover -- and no consensus that it was "divine" or a "miracle" etc. There could be a medical explanation, but no one knows what it is, and there was no recognized medical science used in this case. This is an example of a legitimate case, of an apparent "miracle" act done in the case of one victim with a physical affliction. So the historical record here does not confirm that a "miracle" really happened, but rather, that something happened which cannot be explained and which cannot be ruled out as being a "miracle" of some kind.

There's nothing about the Jesus miracles in the Gospels which says there can be no other miracles or miracle-workers except this one case only. If there's good evidence for any others, then it's reasonable to believe them too. There could be some explanation from the realm of psychic phenomena in some cases, which might even explain the Jesus miracles -- it can't be ruled out. But it doesn't matter how it's explained. What matters is whether it really happened, and whether that same power could also produce eternal life, as claimed in Paul's epistles and John's Gospel. Though those two sources differ very much, they both agree that Christ's power included an offer of eternal life to believers. This is a reasonable hope if he actually did have that power, i.e., demonstrating it in the miracle acts. And this hope is not diminished by the possibility that similar acts elsewhere may have actually happened. But we know that in most cases such claims are fiction, based on false hope rather than evidence, because there are so many charlatans with charisma and power to deceive the gullible.

Debunkers who give us the laundry list of parallel miracle-workers -- Joseph Smith and Sai Baba and others -- never offer any examples of the miracles reportedly done by these other "messiah" figures. When the debunker is embarrassed to offer even one example of such a miracle claim, it's a clear indication that the particular miracle claims are probably ludicrous, and would be laughed at rather than taken seriously.

You can't get around this without finally breaking down and digging out the examples, doing the research, finding the alleged miracle event reported in the sources, about Sai Baba or Joseph Smith or Sun Myung Moon, and the others. As long as the debunker only says: Here's our laundry list of messiahs -- they also claim to have done miracles without giving any example and quoting the original source, then they are only expressing their exasperation at the evidence for the Jesus miracles and lack of evidence for the others. They are offended that there's evidence in this one case but a lack of evidence for the others. So when they insist that there must be others also, they are just throwing a tantrum, demanding EQUALITY of all miracle claims, because it's just NOT FAIR that there's only this one case of a miracle-worker and not any others.

No? -- Well then cut out the phoniness and give the other examples. The real "special pleading" is to keep claiming there are other examples and yet not to offer one, giving the source for it, so we can see for ourselves what "miracle" someone claimed happened.

That Jesus in the gospels is a singular case -- the only one for whom there is evidence -- is the only explanation as long as they continue to not offer the other examples, presenting the miracle claim, from the original source saying what miracle act was done by this or that Swami or Rama What's-his-name, Baba-Bagwan Bami-Shazami-Wowie-Ramjami. We know there's a long list of fancy Wiz-bang names -- Enough with the phony lists! let's have the particular reported miracle event itself, from the original source, telling us what they claim happened.


(this Wall of Text to be continued)
 
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The SPECIAL PLEADING rebuttal -- What about all those other "messiahs" who did the same miracles Jesus did?

The example of Sai Baba -- and L. Ron Hubbard, Joseph Smith, other modern comparisons


The example of Apollonius of Tyana -- and Buddha, Hercules, other ancient comparisons



(continued from previous Wall of Text)


Your entire response boils down to nothing more than special pleading.

Is it SPECIAL PLEADING to argue for the miracles of Jesus based on the 1st-century evidence?

"Special Pleading" -- blogger debunks Christ-belief "argument from miracles": http://www.jefflewis.net/blog/2019/03/comparing_jesus_to_another_pur.html

With Koyaanisqatsi giving us no example of another miracle-worker to compare Jesus to, we have to go in search of someone else making this "special pleading" retort, to determine if there is a "special pleading" fallacy going on. But it's not enough to just name someone in the abstract, or give a laundry list of names (of supposed miracle-workers). One must provide the particular example of the "miracle" performed by the alleged miracle-worker:

Comparing Jesus to Another Purported Holy Man

In discussing religion with Christians, there seems to be this blind spot about the vast array of different religious beliefs out there. Many seem to see religion as a dichotomy - either Christianity is true, or religion in general is false. In many of their arguments, they just don't seem to even consider other religions (Pascal's wager is an obvious example of this blind spot). It results in many of their arguments being special pleading, but since they seem to be so unaware/dismissive of other religions, I'm not sure they even realize it's special pleading. But the end result is still that the arguments aren't particularly persuasive.


Let's divide the examples into 2 categories, the modern and the ancient cases.

1) Modern cases (after 1500 AD): Sai Baba, also L. Ron Hubbard, Joseph Smith, TV evangelists, etc.

2) Ancient cases other than Jesus in 30 AD (before 1500 AD): Apollonius of Tyana, also Gautama Buddha, and many others.


1) Modern cases -- this category was dealt with in the previous Wall of Text.


2) ancient cases

Apollonius of Tyana, a contemporary of Jesus whose paragraph long mini biography is practically identical to Jesus's, but substituting Roman gods for the Jewish God (of course there are plenty of differences in the details);

Again -- for the 100th time -- there's ONLY ONE SOURCE for this 1st-century "messiah," and it's written 150 years later than the events reportedly happened. So this fails the test for miracle claims, which requires more than only one source, and that the sources be dated near to the time of the alleged events.

The same can be said of miracle claims about the Buddha and virtually all reputed ancient miracle-workers. BUDDHA lived around 500 BC, but there are no reported miracles in the writings until about 200 or 100 BC. The shortest possible time gap between the alleged events and the first written reports of them is 200 years. Of course the same is true about Hercules and Apollo and Zeus and Asclepius, and Krishna -- and all the others, about whom there is nothing for at least 1000 years after they lived, if they did live in history.

Apollonius of Tyana is an example of the explosion of miracle stories appearing in the literature after 100 AD. Before this there were virtually no miracle claims in the literature having any resemblance to this one (except that of Jesus in the Gospels which is a glaring contrast to all the others).

. . . and countless others (there's . . .

No, there's no "countless others" resembling anything like the Apollonius of Tyana example, which itself is mostly a copycat version of the Jesus miracle-worker in the Gospels written 100+ years earlier.

. . . (there's also a long list of people claiming to be the second coming of Christ).

Nevermind what they CLAIM "to be" -- what matters is what they did. Where is the evidence, or the reports of their miracle acts, from the original sources? Obviously there are millions of wackos "claiming" to be this or that. Both ancient and modern.


And let's not forget about urban legends, such as those found on Snopes, to show how untrue stories can spread very quickly to become believed by large numbers of people.

"large numbers"? This has to mean a million or more today, to be comparable to the number of Jesus believers in the 1st century. And there was no written account denying the miracles of Jesus at that time to offset our 4 (5) sources saying he did do the miracle acts. So all the published claims were that the miracles did happen, with no written account contradicting them, such as Lucian contradicts some charlatan miracle claims in the 2nd century. What modern case of this is there? What urban legend is there of a modern miracle-worker healing the blind and lepers and raising the dead, or similar miracle acts, and believed by a million people, and yet not denied in any sources, as there were no sources in the 1st century denying the Jesus miracle acts?


Now, if you're like me, you probably don't believe the miraculous claims about Sai Baba or any of these other purported holy men (or the urban legends on Snopes).

But there's a REASON not to believe those claims:

there's no evidence for them, or no serious evidence. If it's only disciples claiming it or witnessing it, who were influenced by the guru's charisma over many years, that is not serious evidence.


There are far more likely explanations to their claimed miracles than actual divine powers.

It doesn't matter what the "explanation" is if the claimed "miracles" didn't really happen but are only fiction. As they probably are if the needed evidence is lacking. Give us the examples, showing the evidence, from the original source for the claimed "miracle" event. Only then do we have anything requiring an explanation.

And we must not rule out the possibility that there might really be a few legitimate cases of an unexplained "miracle" event, having no explanation in science. In a few such cases there might really be evidence, but then in that case it actually offers some corroboration to the Jesus miracle power as something which is actually possible, perhaps happening in an isolated case here or there, and also happening on a large scale in the case of Jesus in the 1st century. So finding a rare exception somewhere doesn't serve the purpose of the debunker who insists dogmatically that no miracle events can ever happen, despite reports or evidence that they did happen in an exceptional case.


But it provides context for the early Christians. All these holy men did exist.

But for 99.9% of them there was no "miracle" act, but only the charisma of the holy man. This and other factors explain why they were believed and why fictitious miracles were attributed to them, in a mythologizing process, e.g., Gautama Buddha whose miracle myths evolved over a 200-year period or longer. Unlike Jesus in the Gospels who cannot be explained as a product of mythologizing.


Their followers did and still do sincerely believe the miraculous stories and claims.

But then why does no one ever quote for us the original source for the stories or claims? WHAT "stories and claims" do they believe? How do you know there are any "miraculous stories and claims" if you can't tell them to us, quote the source for them, give us the "stories and claims" themselves? You can't just keep repeating that there are "claims" just like those about Jesus, and yet continually withhold from us the "claims" themselves.

What's the reason/evidence for their belief? like the written accounts we have for the miracle acts of Jesus? If there's real evidence for the "miraculous stories and claims," they should be able to provide that evidence, publishing it for us, and quoting it so others too can believe it. We can easily explain why those indoctrinated mesmerized disciples "sincerely believe" the claims, as a normal response by the devotees to his long career of preaching and inspiring them. Where's the evidence for it, the reports or testimony to what happened, from someone claiming knowledge of it or having seen the evidence, who can tell us what happened and provide us the source for it? including sources indicating that there were non-disciples also present?


Their scriptures have been preserved faithfully.

Then why can't you quote from them to show what the claim is, so we can see the evidence? Why do you have to hide the evidence for it if those claims are being made and are published for everyone to read? Tell us what "their scriptures" say about the miracles, or what miracle event they claim happened. It's not true that there's evidence in "their scriptures" if you're not willing to quote from those scriptures and show us that evidence.


Jesus is just one of many such holy men.

Then quote for us at least one reported miracle act those other "holy men" did, so we can see that Jesus is "just one of many" who did such things. Why do you have to be led by the hand to show us the evidence, the example, of the reported miracle claim? What do we have to do to get it out of you? E.g., the following is an example of a reported miracle act:

(Mark Ch. 2) -- 2 And many were gathered together, so that there was no longer room for them, not even about the door; and he was preaching the word to them. 3 And they came, bringing to him a paralytic carried by four men. 4 And when they could not get near him because of the crowd, they removed the roof above him; and when they had made an opening, they let down the pallet on which the paralytic lay. 5 And when Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralytic, "My son, your sins are forgiven." 6 Now some of the scribes were sitting there, questioning in their hearts, 7 "Why does this man speak thus? It is blasphemy! Who can forgive sins but God alone?" 8 And immediately Jesus, perceiving in his spirit that they thus questioned within themselves, said to them, "Why do you question thus in your hearts? 9 Which is easier, to say to the paralytic, 'Your sins are forgiven,' or to say, 'Rise, take up your pallet and walk'? 10 But that you may know that the Son of man has authority on earth to forgive sins" --he said to the paralytic-- 11 "I say to you, rise, take up your pallet and go home." 12 And he rose, and immediately took up the pallet and went out before them all; so that they were all amazed and glorified God, saying, "We never saw anything like this!"

You see -- here's a reported miracle act, from the ancient written record -- so the "special pleading" debunker-crusader must give us something also reporting a miracle act, from the time of the claimed miracle, reporting what happened. What's the problem with giving us such an example, if there are supposed to be so many of them?

So if Jesus is "just one of many" who had such power, let's see a reported case from those "many" others, similar to the above, showing the report of it. How long will they continue to just claim it without giving any example, or any evidence, giving the original source for the claim? How many times must we ask them for the example before they finally break down and do a little homework? Are the examples there or not?


As one more bit of context, consider the religious landscape at the time Christianity was getting started.

Yes, let's consider that landscape: it was DEVOID OF MIRACLE STORIES in all the literature of the time. There was NO interest in miracle stories at that time. You can't find one in all the literature leading up to 30 AD. Not in the Dead Sea Scrolls, not in the Jewish writings after 300 BC -- nor in the Greek and Roman literature either. In Jewish writings you have to go way back to 600 BC to find any miracle claims. So, how is it that in a context of NO miracle claims we get this sudden rash of miracle stories about Jesus, out of nowhere, at a time when nothing of miracle claims can be found in the large body of religious literature?

In the Greek-Roman culture all the miracle inscriptions about Asclepius have disappeared by 200 BC, putting a total end to any new miracle claims from the pagan sources.

So there's the "religious landscape" at the time the Jesus miracle claims appeared --

no reported miracles anywhere

-- and yet suddenly we see the most extreme onslaught of miracle stories ever, popping up from nowhere, in this one case only. Why?


The early converts to Christianity would have been Jews or Roman pagans. Many Jewish people already believed in the God of the Old Testament and in prophecies of a coming Messiah, so the challenge in their conversion would have been convincing them that Jesus was the fulfillment of these prophecies.

But he really was not such a fulfillment, for 99% of Jews, because the "Messiah" was supposed to successfully overthrow the existing power structure and replace it with a new structure. And Jesus did not do this, so he evidently was NOT the "Messiah" the Jews were expecting. They did not expect any "Messiah" who would be crucified. So we cannot explain why Jews would convert to Jesus. And yet something happened which caused many of them to proclaim him "Messiah" and also "Savior" and "Son of God" or "Son of Man" and other titles, and also to anticipate his return and establishment of the new Kingdom. How can this be explained? It cannot be. ---- Unless he resurrected and did the other miracle acts -- in which case there is an explanation for it.


The Roman pagans already believed in many gods and miracles, so the challenge in converting them would have been limiting them to believing in one God.

There's no reason to believe that Jesus or his followers had any power to cause any such change in their beliefs (if Jesus did no miracle acts). So here also there's no explanation how any Romans or Greeks would have been converted to believing anything different. I.e., without the miracle acts done by him there's nothing about him that would have converted any of them.


The early Christians wouldn't have been trying to win over skeptical atheists and agnostics, or people who doubted the supernatural in general.

Some of them would, or did. The Apostle Paul tried to win over some skeptical Athenians, according to Acts 17:

[conclusion of Paul's sermon]: 30 The times of ignorance God overlooked, but now he commands all men everywhere to repent, 31 because he has fixed a day on which he will judge the world in righteousness by a man whom he has appointed, and of this he has given assurance to all men by raising him from the dead." 32 Now when they heard of the resurrection of the dead, some mocked; but others said, "We will hear you again about this." 33 So Paul went out from among them. 34 But some men joined him and believed, among them Dionys'ius the Are-op'agite and a woman named Dam'aris and others with them.

This sermon reported in Acts, even if it's a Luke composition, is credible as reflecting how Paul tried to win over Greeks who were skeptical of supernatural claims. Some scoffed and others were convinced by him.

It's a reasonable possibility that some such skeptics were won over because of his claim that Jesus had resurrected. If this was believed by many, and if Paul could show some evidence for it, from oral reports circulating, or from witnesses or from those close to the event, this could convince some who otherwise would not believe such a claim. This indicates that there were many reports of this event to the point that some skeptics found it difficult to disbelieve the claim.


For someone who grew up believing in the labors of Hercules, it wouldn't have been too difficult to believe that someone else walked on water or turned water into wine.

Yes it would have been very difficult to believe some recent miracle-worker did any such thing if it was only fiction. The only reason anyone believed in the miracles of Hercules is that this was an ANCIENT legend based on centuries of mythologizing. Virtually no one in the Roman culture believed in instant "messiah" - type miracle-workers popping up here or there. All the charlatans were rejected and ridiculed by the general population, including by the poor masses. They believed only in the ancient gods and heroes, not in any recent charlatan "god-man" popping up and claiming to do miracles. They found it very difficult to believe such claims and regarded them as hoaxes. But in the case of Jesus many of them did believe, which can be explained if there was real evidence in this case which made it different from the others.


It's one thing to claim to have writings that faithfully represent the beliefs of a religious sect, or even the overall life and times of a religious leader. It's quite another to claim that these writings are completely true, including all the divine claims and miracles.

They don't have to be "completely true" in order for the reported Jesus miracle events to be credible. These accounts are evidence that those events did happen, regardless if there's also a fictional element in the writings. We can rely on these writings to determine the events, just as we rely on other writings of the time, all of which contain both fact and fiction. We can use the writings to determine what happened even though they're not "completely true" -- because otherwise we'd have no source for determining any of the (ancient) historical facts, and we'd have to toss out half of our known historical record.


Jesus and Sai Baba can't both be God, so for any arguments about the divine aspects of Jesus and the New Testament to be convincing, you shouldn't be able to turn around and use similar arguments on Sai Baba and his biography, or any of these other religious leaders to prove their divinity.

You aren't able "to turn around and use similar arguments" because we do not have similar written accounts reporting miracle acts for Sai Baba and the others. If those published written accounts exist, let's see them and see how credible they are. We can explain why Sai Baba's disciples believed he could do miracles, because they were mesmerized by his charisma over many years of being exposed to his preaching, not because they witnessed any real miracle acts. Years of legend-building from his devotees can explain how they acquired this belief in "miracles" done by him, because they already worshiped his god Krishna, because his charisma and magic tricks inspired them over many years of a long career, and because at an early age he proclaimed himself an avatar reincarnation of the popular ancient god and then preached and won over disciples for many decades.

Nothing like that can explain how Jesus became an instant miracle-worker "messiah" in only 1-3 years of public exposure. So the factors explaining the modern Sai Baba, whose reputation spanned more than 50 years of preaching and inspiring devotees, cannot explain the 1st-century Jesus miracle-worker who had no wide reputation or status in 30 AD when he was eliminated.


If an argument could be used to claim the divinity of both, then it must be a flawed or incomplete argument (unless you do think they're both God).

But the argument cannot be used to claim "the divinity of both." The "miracle" explanation applies only in the case where there is no other explanation why anyone believed he had superhuman power or "divinity" or "messiah" status. In the case of Sai Baba we have a normal explanation, based on mythologizing, while in the case of Jesus there is no normal explanation.


To put it another way, when listening to the arguments from apologists, you would do well to consider how these arguments might sound if being applied to a different holy man like Sathya Sai Baba, and whether you would still find them convincing.

We should consider that, and when those arguments are applied to Sai Baba they are not convincing because we can easily explain why his devotees falsely believe he did miracles, due to his charismatic impact on them over many decades. The "miracle" stories (assuming they even exist, since no one is presenting any of them for us to consider) can easily be explained as fiction in his case -- or just as emotional outbursts, like in the video earlier -- but not in the case of Jesus in the 1st century, whose public career was only 1-3 years, and who had no widely-recognized status or reputation in 30 AD, and further had no mass media to spread his reputation.

The evidence about "miracles" is: Jesus must have performed miracle acts which were witnessed by observers other than his disciples, because we have the unusual written accounts from the time documenting these events, and these cannot be explained unless those actual healing acts really happened, including the Resurrection.

But also: There are reported cases of miracles, throughout history, from many religious believers of different cultures and traditions, Christian and non-Christian, and there's generally no way to corroborate them or demonstrate evidence for them, such as we have for Jesus in the Gospels. Probably 99% or more of the miracle claims are fictitious, but if some are true, that confirms that "miracle" events do sometimes happen, similar to those of Jesus in the 1st century, which is a singular case where a large number of "miracle" events are compressed into one brief historical episode, and there are no other cases of one person doing a large number of miracle acts confirmed with evidence.


---

As a side note, this entry began life as an introduction to a review of Lee Strobel's The Case for Christ. I'm not sure if I'll be able to bring myself to finish the book and the review, but I didn't want this intro to languish in my drafts folder, so I figured I'd adapt it into a stand alone post. Just in case I never get around to a full review, I'll say that Strobel's book isn't very convincing. The apologists he interviews engage in a lot of these special pleading type arguments.

"a lot" of what? How about an example of just one. So far we've been given no legitimate example of one "special pleading type" argument. Increasing the number, expanding the quantity to many or "a lot" or a million doesn't mean much if we are not provided one single case alone, with the essential details of what the logical flaw is, or the mistake, or the contradiction or fallacy being committed.


And despite Strobel's touting of his journalism credentials, the book is very biased, with practically no expert rebuttal to the apologist's claims. If you're . . .

Of course every book on this subject has its flaws and its bias and its selecting of "experts" who confirm the bias. No book ever published on this was without bias and flaws. We're concerned here with one kind of flaw, the "special pleading" fallacy in the argument from miracles, i.e., the Jesus miracles for which we have evidence from writings near the time of the alleged miracle events. But so far no debunker is offering us a serious example of another miracle-worker for whom there is evidence. There is no "special pleading" fallacy being committed unless we have such an example, showing what alleged miracles happened, giving the source for the claim, so we can compare that to Jesus in the Gospels.

. . . claims. If you're interested, here's a pretty good review on The Secular Web:

The Rest of the Story, by Jeffery Jay Lowder https://infidels.org/library/modern/jeff_lowder/strobel-rev.html

This lengthy review covers a lot, and yet it ignores the important matter of the other reported miracle-workers to be compared to Jesus in the Gospels. So by omitting this essential part of the refutation, it fails to rebut or refute any "special pleading" argument for the miracles of Jesus.

Again, there is no "special pleading" fallacy being committed unless someone gives a serious example of another reputed miracle-worker, including references to the particular miracle acts someone claims happened. We have to see the original claim, by someone knowing about it, near the time, reporting what was seen or experienced by witnesses.

There is a repeated failure to give us the other examples, other acclaimed miracle-workers, citing the source, text, publication containing the information describing the alleged miracle acts. As this continues on and on, religiously claiming they exist but never giving us any example, other than a meaningless laundry list of names (of supposed miracle-workers) with no original source, we have to conclude that there are no serious examples. The wish, and dogmatic insistence, that there must be these other examples, but with none ever offered, and only angry outbursts that the examples have been given a million times, can only be taken as further evidence that there are no other examples. If they exist, someone will offer them, and for once cite the original sources.

Until then, the only fallacy being committed is that of the out-of-control debunker, snorting that the Christ-believer is committing the "special pleading" fallacy.
 
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For all the time and effort that goes into trying to prove that Jesus existed and did what he did, it still just comes down to hearsay and word of mouth put into writing decades after the described events.
 
Is it SPECIAL PLEADING to argue for the miracles of Jesus based on the 1st-century evidence?

Yes. As you demonstrate in your very next paragraph:

With Koyaanisqatsi giving us no example of another miracle-worker to compare Jesus to, we have to go in search of someone else making this "special pleading" retort, to determine if there is a "special pleading" fallacy going on. But it's not enough to just name someone in the abstract, or give a laundry list of names (of supposed miracle-workers). One must provide the particular example of the "miracle" performed by the alleged miracle-worker

That is literally the definition of special pleading:

Special pleading (or claiming that something is an overwhelming exception) is a logical fallacy asking for an exception to a rule to be applied to a specific case, without proper justification of why that case deserves an exemption.

Your only "answer" to the question of justification has been:

Again -- for the 100th time -- there's ONLY ONE SOURCE for this 1st-century "messiah," and it's written 150 years later than the events reportedly happened. So this fails the test for miracle claims, which requires more than only one source, and that the sources be dated near to the time of the alleged events.
...
Again, there is no "special pleading" fallacy being committed unless someone gives a serious example of another reputed miracle-worker, including references to the particular miracle acts someone claims happened. We have to see the original claim, by someone knowing about it, near the time, reporting what was seen or experienced by witnesses.

You have arbitrarily made up this idea that a miracle claim "requires" anything at all, let alone "more than only one source and that the sources be dated near to the time of the alleged events," but even worse is the fact that we have NO sources for the NT claims and NONE of them was written near the time of the alleged events! Not a single one.

Paul cannot be considered a source by his own confession. In spite of all of these miraculous events that were supposed to have occurred while Paul lived in Jerusalem--including the dead rising out of their graves ffs--he somehow never met or saw Jesus in person. Everything he claims comes from a "vision" he alleges he had, so he can't be considered a source on that fact alone.

Mark (and by extension and for similar reasons, all of the gospels authors) the earliest NT author that some have claimed was actually there with Jesus, likewise cannot be considered a source because:
  1. we have no idea who he actually was,
  2. he relates events and allegedly verbatim quotes/conversations that he could not possibly have been present for or overheard, let alone remembered for nearly forty years before writing them down,
  3. the events he does relate--such as Pilate committing traditional treason by inexplicably letting Jews decide which convicted murderer/seditionist leader against Rome he is going to set free AND deciding, at the same time, what the hell, I'll torture and murder a man I have just found completely innocent (and know the San Hedrin betrayed) because it will make the Jews he's there to brutally subjugate happy for no comprehensible reason,
  4. we know there have been centuries of copyists and outright forgers that have added and changed known and unknown elements of his story, and, most importantly,
  5. we know that the Jesus stories were all first related orally before they were ever written down.
Iow, we have no reliable providence of the chain of story telling over the decades up to when whoever Mark was wrote what he wrote and certainly no chain of changes since.

So we don't even have ONE reliable source that recorded the entire story first hand as it happened, let alone anyone doing so "near" the date of it actually happening.

Once again and always, you are simply wrong. Over and over and over and over again. Always demonstrably, objectively wrong.
 
You have arbitrarily made up this idea that a miracle claim "requires" anything at all, let alone "more than only one source and that the sources be dated near to the time of the alleged events," but even worse is the fact that we have NO sources for the NT claims and NONE of them was written near the time of the alleged events! Not a single one.

An interesting side-effect of this arbitrary qualification Lumpenproletariat throws out as if everyone just agrees that this is the way things are is that the entire book of Acts must be discarded as hogwash. It contains little else besides miracles and there are no corroborating books. But I'm sure there's an exclusion that applies here.
 
Once again and always, you are simply wrong. Over and over and over and over again. Always demonstrably, objectively wrong.

This behavior of mindlessly repeating the same flawed argument over and over for a period of more than two years is grossly aberrant even by Christian apologist standards. Who is the poster trying to convince? And how could he possibly believe that persisting in this behavior is going to yield different results the next time he repeats the argument?
 
But I'm sure there's an exclusion that applies here.
nit necessarily. Lumpy does not try to justify the entire Bible. Just the healing mirackes in the plagiarized gospels. With those, Jesus' access to divinity is established. Other accounts can be tossed, as long as those remain with his special authentication system.
 
The origin of the Jesus miracle stories VS. the origin of ancient miracle legends generally

To dogmatically dismiss the evidence for the Jesus miracles and arbitrarily assign ALL miracle claims to the fiction category is based on impulse, not science or facts.


Once again, your walls of text say nothing, other than to tautologically confirm the fact that fiction is fictional.

Last night I had a vision that Jesus appeared before ten thousand people to tell them he was not a god and that there are no miracles.

How do you know it was the same "Jesus" who reportedly did miracles 2000 years ago? Your vision may have happened just as you say, but it has nothing to do with the Jesus of the Gospels in the 1st century. My Walls of Text are about that historical figure, not about present-day visions someone has.


That is identical to what Paul did; claimed he had a vision.

No, he claimed to know of the historical Jesus person of that time, and he wrote his interpretation of that person, saying we can receive eternal life from him, because he had risen back to life. Paul's "vision" alone would mean nothing if he had not been contemporary to Jesus and had contacted others who had known him, so the Jesus he describes to us is the same one that others saw directly. It doesn't matter if Paul's "vision" might differ partly from what the others thought. We don't have to worry if his interpretation is better than theirs, or not as good. We need the general picture -- that Jesus had power, even enough to overcome death, and that he offered eternal life to believers.

That's the basics. Then of course there are many interpretations of it, and no one has figured out all the details of it. And a million "visions" people have had since then, including yours, probably add nothing further that's necessary, though everyone is entitled to their special insights. To have any credibility your new insights require more than just claiming to have had a "vision" of someone you're giving the name "Jesus" to.

Paul's credibility is not his "vision" per se, but his close connection to the events back then, giving him better knowledge of what happened, or closer view of it. Without his writings as a source, we today would know much less, as we're largely dependent on his reports, or his interpretation. A believer today has to rely on Paul, just as history students are dependent on witnesses from the time of the events, who have extra credibility or authority to tell us what happened, beyond any "visions" and any need for an infallible source. Just like a witness at a trial has extra credibility but still can be mistaken.


That is the full extent of his “authority” on the matter; a vision he claimed he had.

Whatever you call it, it's all any report of any historical event is: a "vision" Herodotus or Thucydides etc. had of the events. Calling it a "vision" doesn't change the fact that the writer of the time knew of the event and could explain it better, and interpret it, and can serve us today as our source for it.

Paul was there at the time that the Jesus events happened, so he knew of it and is one of our witnesses to that historical event, meaning his explanation of it has more credibility than anyone later making claims about it. Likewise the Gospel accounts have more credibility. So we have to rely on those 1st-century reports of what happened. Anything 100 or more years later has much less credibility, and 1000+ years later even less.


Which means that by your illogic, I am now an authority on Jesus and since . . .

Only if you're claiming you were there, in the 1st century, near to the events, and can show us evidence of it to establish your credibility. The documents of Paul and the Gospel writers have been authenticated as dating back to the 1st century. We need similar authentication of you as having been there at the time before you can be an authority on it.

Why don't you cut out the horseplay and get serious.

. . . and since visions in and of themselves have no chronological time component to their efficacy, I am now . . .

It's not the "visions" of Paul which give him authority, but his presence there at that time. His writing is about a historical person from the time about whom he had insights or interpretations to offer us, which you can call "visions" or some other term, but they have credibility because he was there to know of the events. He knew of the Resurrection and gives us his interpretation of it. Anyone else's contemporary account of what happened would be just as authoritative as Paul's.

We have to give credibility to his interpretation of what happened, or the meaning of it, but some of his theology could be mistaken. So he's a source we rely on to tell us of this "good news" from that time, but that doesn't make his interpretation infallible. We should accept his interpretation overall, that Christ offers us eternal life, because of his power. But that doesn't mean all his explanation has to be accurate. It also contains his subjective understanding of it, or his opinion. It's not his "visions" we rely on, but his proximity to the "good news" event which happened, so that he's in a position to understand it as well as anyone else at that time, and to present it to us.

. . . I am now the most reliable source on Jesus because I live contemporaneously to you.

Your silliness is helping to prove my point -- the evidence is that the historical Jesus did miracles, and you can't come up with anything to show otherwise, so you have to resort to this kind of babbling nonsense.

You are totally reliant on Paul and the Gospel accounts for your information. Without those sources you would know nothing of Jesus -- i.e., the person who appeared in history back then and reportedly did the miracle acts. That's the only Jesus of any concern here, not someone who appeared only in "visions" and nowhere else. Your "visions" of Jesus have no connection to that historical figure. But you're entitled to your interpretation of the events and can use the same 1st-century sources to promote your interpretation. Paul's interpretation has to be given more credibility than yours, because he was there and had better knowledge of the events.


That is what you are arguing. Chronological proximity to an event somehow having more relevance in regard to the efficacy of the event having happened as claimed.

Yes, the "event" back then 2000 years ago, meaning your "visions" are NOT credible as a source for it, but the Gospel writings and the epistles of Paul are credible sources for those events, because of their chronological and locational proximity.


Or better still, twelve of my friends claim I am the “second coming” of Jesus and I right now confirm that fact. The evidence of this are the wars and rumors of wars and the anti-christ (Trump) on the throne and the fact that only I know the hour and day and I come like a thief in the night, blah blah blah.

I'm dialing 9-1-1 for you right now. Just wait there until help arrives.


Because I just made that claim — me, a primary source, even, and not the far less reliable anonymous . . .

Where are the published reports describing your miracle acts? or connecting you to Jesus in the 1st-century who did miracle acts according to all the written sources we have about him? Everyone is a "primary source" for their own visions and hallucinations and delusions, but what sources do we have for miracle acts someone did? Until you provide that evidence, of someone having performed miracle acts, you're not a source for anything that relates to Jesus in the 1st century.

Who cares if you're a source for your own delusions today? Again, if you're asking for help, to save you from committing suicide or something, there's probably a hotline you can call, or 9-1-1 might help.

. . . far less reliable anonymous and countless others in between my making the claim and decades later someone writing it down — and . . .

Our sources for the Jesus events are closer to the events than most of our sources for the ancient historical events. So if you claim to be a better source for the Jesus events, then you also claim to be a better source for Julius Caesar and Vespasian and Hadrian etc., and we should rely on you for ancient history rather than on the books at the library etc.

Again, it's 9-1-1 you need to tell your "visions" to. They'll know the best procedure to deal with it.

. . . someone writing it down -- and according to your illogic of chronological proximity to the original claimant, my claims are true and are the most reliable historical accounts.

I have them on the phone now -- what's your location?


You are, after all, RIGHT NOW reading my claims that I JUST made, so therefore, you are a day or two distant (if not a few hours distant) from the original statement of claims, so therefore what I claimed and what you witnessed by reading my claims proves that I am the return of Jesus.

Only if we accept your nutty premise that ancient written accounts are not credible, for any historical events, meaning there is no historical record of anything. And also your dogma that no miracle claims of any kind can ever be true despite any evidence or written record saying the miracle event happened. You are demanding that everyone submit to these dogmas you impose as a premise to believing anything. And it's not true that we must submit to your dogmas, or the dogmas of your modern debunker guru which you take on faith, without question. We can accept the testimony of ancient written accounts to tell us what happened, as being a reliable source for the ancient events, even though there are also doubts about some of the claims made. Those doubts do not mean all those ancient accounts have to be tossed out and have no credibility, as you're insisting.


And there are three hundred thousand witnesses who saw me appear before them and there is a whole website dedicated to debunking any such claims -- called Talk Free Thought -- and my claim has never been debunked there, therefore my claim must be true and these are the most reliable sources, so I command you to throw everything else away.

That is how ridiculous is your argument.

Only if we have to accept your premise on faith, which is that ALL miracle claims must be false, ipso facto, regardless of any evidence that a miracle event happened, such as testimony of it in documents from the time. Your dogma is that NO miracle claim can ever be true, and NO miracle event can ever have happened, regardless of any evidence that a miracle event did happen in a particular case.

But you're wrong that ALL miracle claims are equally false. The claim that a miracle happened is more likely to be true if there is evidence, such as multiple reports of it, in sources near to the event, and it's the lack of such evidence which requires us to reject most such claims. I.e., it's this lack of evidence which makes those claims false, not simply that it's a miracle being claimed.

Contrary to claims for which there is no evidence, there are other cases, such as Jesus in the Gospels, where there is evidence, because of the written reports from the time -- unlike for virtually all miracle claims from ancient times when there is typically no written record of the event near to the time when it allegedly happened, but only ancient traditions which evolved over many centuries. Events not reported until centuries later are much less credible than ones reported 50 or 100 years later. 50-100 years later is a typical time gap between an historical fact and our earliest source reporting the event, for historical events in ancient times.

If you insist that such reports of the event are not evidence that it happened, then you're tossing out 98% of all our accepted ancient historical record. It is not "ridiculous" to argue that we do have reliable evidence of the ancient historical events and that the history books and history classes are not fraudulent but are based on legitimate evidence from the ancient written reports of what happened, which is what the Jesus miracle events are based on. If this is a "ridiculous argument," it means that virtually all our claims for ancient history events are "ridiculous" and you're on a crusade to eliminate all those history courses and books.


It takes exactly zero time to make shit up.

Sure, one person could make up anything in .5 seconds. But it took centuries to make it up AND get it believed widely and published in written accounts. That required centuries of mythologizing to gain popularity and win status and recognition for the miracle legends or fictions being made up by someone. Of course any individual can "make up shit" instantly, but no one believes it or publishes it. We're talking about claims which were believed and recorded in writing, which does not happen for miracle stories made up by someone. The only miracle fictions people believed were those of the ancient deities, which evolved over centuries of legend-building and mythologizing. No miracle stories other than those were believed and recorded in written accounts.

To just "make up shit" is not what's difficult and requires time -- rather, what's impossible is to make up shit which many people then believe and gets recorded in written accounts because educated persons thought it was believable and therefore worth recording. We have no cases of miracle claims being believed and circulating in less than 100 years from when the miracle reportedly happened.

The ancient popular belief in miracles or miracle gods and deities required centuries to evolve. You can't name any exception other than Jesus in the Gospels, whose miracle acts are reported and believed in 4 (5) accounts dating from 25-70 years after the events reportedly happened. There are no other cases even close to this (in proximity of the reported events to the written accounts). 99.9% of the population rejected claims of recent miracle-workers, recognizing them as charlatans, so that the only miracle claims ever believed were about alleged events from many centuries earlier and finally appearing in written accounts 1000+ years after the miracle events allegedly happened -- or maybe 500 years in some cases.

Until you finally address this point, your outburst that "it takes exactly zero time to make shit up" is just your incoherent impulse erupting out of your disregard for the facts about the ancient popular legends. You must deal with two questions: 1) When did the claimed miracle reportedly happen? and 2) What is the date of our earliest source for it? As long as you keep refusing to deal with this, you're babbling to yourself incoherently. It's not enough to just say there are miracle claims -- you must also ask at least these two questions for each case.


It takes less than a roundtable game of telephone (are you old enough to remember that game?) for an original statement to be corrupted and interpolated into something completely different.

But then EVERY statement in the ancient historical record has to be tossed out, because it got corrupted and interpolated into something completely different than the original statement. So then you must reject ALL the ancient history record. It's not true that we have to reject all statements in ancient written documents just because statements can be corrupted and interpolated.


Iow, it literally only takes ten seconds for an oral account passed around a living room table, ffs, to get completely changed and embellished and distorted, let alone what would happen to the same story told and retold over decades by . . .

And so therefore most of the (ancient) historical record is fiction, based on telling the same story over and over before it finally got recorded in writing decades and generations later. Again, toss out ALL history, not just the Gospel accounts.

. . . and retold over decades by primarily gullible, ignorant people who already believe in such things as resurrection and gods and healing powers . . .

No they did not believe such things. People in the 1st century believed LESS in all those than people 500 years earlier did, and less than people after 100 AD. This period of history is arguably the LEAST gullible and LEAST miracle-believing of all periods including today. There are no reports of any resurrections and healing acts from any miracle-workers in the period before the Gospels were written. And there's nothing -- EVER -- reporting miracles being performed on a scale such as we see in the Gospel accounts (possible one exception being Elisha in II Kings, written about 600 BC, 250 years after the reported events, in one source only).

There is a tiny amount of miracle tradition earlier ("tiny" compared to the 1st-century reported Jesus miracles), and some praying and ritual healing claims at the Asclepius temples 300 BC and earlier. This reflects a very small credibility, in the period prior to Jesus, toward miracle claims, which were confined to religious practices done privately among worshipers only, compared to Jesus in the Gospels who did the acts in public locations before mixed audiences and unconnected to the worship of the ancient deities.

And from 200 BC to 100 AD there is NO MIRACLE ACT reported anywhere -- at Asclepius temples or anywhere else -- outside the Gospel accounts. Because those "ignorant people" generally did NOT believe such things happened, regardless of some priests and worshipers at temples. You can't find any evidence of it -- no reported miracle acts in any of the writings. At best there are only a few references to very ancient gods and heroes from 1000+ years earlier. NO RECENT miracle-workers recognized in any writings.

ALL THE EVIDENCE is that the miracle beliefs/claims began at about 100 (90) AD and no earlier -- they start appearing in written accounts ONLY from that time and after.

So it's not true that the people of the 1st century were "gullible, ignorant people who already" believed in resurrections and healing miracles. That claim is a completely false outburst unsupported by any evidence from the literature of the time. You can't cite any source for that other than some 20th- or 21st-century Bible-basher debunker pundit, who has nothing from the ancient literature to offer as evidence for it.

. . . ignorant people who already believe in such things as resurrection and gods and healing powers and the like.

Will you ever get beyond just blurting out these impulses and provide some facts from the historical record for it?

You can't cite any source for this. You're the one "making up shit" or just spewing out shit your debunker guru spoon-fed to you and which you take on faith, without questioning it. It can be shown that people of other periods, before and after, believed in such things far more than those of the 1st century AD and 200-300 years earlier.


But what's worse is that you're actually talking about two different stories. One is about a group of seditionists who evidently caused a series of social disturbances culminating in the burning of Rome and who were formed by or once led by a martyred leader named "Chrestus" or the like.

The other story is either Roman propaganda or that leader's follower's martyr mythology about him.

No, it's more than only these two stories. It's at least a dozen different stories or versions or interpretations of what happened. Any description of some such seditionist group must explain what was special about the Jesus person that so many different factions gathered around him to make him their hero-martyr-messiah-savior.

The best explanation is that he did perform the miracle acts, including the Resurrection, because this explains not only the "two different stories" you're giving, but also the many other "stories" or versions of it. Without those miracle acts he did, there's no explanation where these different versions of the "mythology" came from, and also why "the Romans" or his followers would create a martyr mythology about him. And you can't explain why seditionists or anyone else joined his movement, unless you mean only a dozen or so idiots of no consequence, in which case they would never have received mention of any kind in any written accounts, as 99% of such dissident groups did not.

So you're leaving everything unexplained.


So you've got mentions of a seditionist cult of radicalized Jews (what we would call "terrorists" today and certainly from the Roman perspective) doing some shit . . .

You mean the direct followers of Jesus, when he was still alive.

But you're not explaining why anyone joined this cult, or followed him, and why this cult is reported in any written accounts. There were hundreds of seditionist cults which got no mention in writings, or got mentioned only negatively, in reports which were unsympathetic to them, because in any writings mentioning them such terrorists were condemned as criminals led by a charlatan, if there were any mentions of them at all. You're not explaining why only this cult got special attention in the historical record of the time, in writings which were sympathetic. And again, it's really "cults" plural, as there were many Jesus communities divergent from each other.

In all other cases of any such cults getting mentioned in writings, the writers were unsympathetic toward them and called them criminals led by charlatans.

. . . doing some shit in the lead up to what became a full blown revolution . . .

But you can't say what shit they did that they should get any special attention and be favorably reported in the written accounts, when there were many other such cults which received no mention at all in any written accounts, or which received only very brief negative mention in accounts describing them as criminals led by charlatans.

You can offer no explanation how this cult (i.e., these cults plural), and only this one, was different than all the others and received special attention.

. . . a full blown revolution (and subsequent slaughter of the Jews by the Romans, who then wrote the history) and the mythology apparently . . .

No, not "THE history . . . THE mythology" -- what we have are histories, mythologies -- PLURAL. Several versions of what happened and what it was about.

. . . and the mythology apparently created by that cult and in regard to their martyred leader.

You mean "mythologies" plural, many different versions and explanations, so there had to be more than one source which produced the "history" or "mythology" of the cult. You cannot identify only one source as creating/writing the accounts or the history and mythology of it.

The 4 Gospels do not offer only one history or mythology, but 4. And to these must be added the Paul epistles, so there are at least these 5 different histories/mythologies to explain. And really even more, as the Gospel accounts contain some separate elements in them which differ from the others. Plus there are other possible accounts as well, such as the Gospel of Thomas (or parts of it) which might date from the 1st century. So you must identify more than five different entities who "wrote the history" and "mythology" of the cult (cults). It makes no sense to say "the Romans" alone wrote it, even if some Romans wrote part of it. And even "the Romans" are not a cohesive single entity. WHICH Romans wrote the "history" and "mythology"? There were many Roman factions.


At best. Which still puts you exactly at fictionalized accounts of a non-divine, natural being and his non-divine, natural exploits.

No, what we have is the opposite of fictionalized accounts, because fiction is unified into one story, not a confused mixture of conflicting elements, such as our 1st-century accounts of Jesus the miracle-worker. Fictional accounts are not created by a group of conflicting elements which come together to create one story of a cult and its exploits.

Your explanation does not fit the facts about one martyred hero, but about several. If you were right, there would be several such martyrs in several stories, not just one. We'd have many separate stories about a series of seditionist leaders, all martyred, each acting according to the faction creating that version of a martyr cult. There is no unified story emerging from the accounts they have produced about Jesus the miracle-worker, but several separate stories -- some promoting gnosticism, others promoting dissident Jewish militancy, others pro-rabbinic Jewish, others pro-Ebionite Jewish, others pro-Pharisee, others pro-Qumran, others eschatological and apocalyptic, and still others pro-Roman viewpoints. It's impossible that all these factions could have come together to produce the accounts we have, as a single group. The accounts we have must have come from separate sources, in conflict with each other, not one united group or entity.

So your theory is wrong unless you identify who were the different groups who promoted these different versions -- not just "the Romans" as if that is a clear distinct identifiable entity -- and you must include an explanation why they all converged on this one martyr leader only, this Jesus person, instead of giving us several different martyr heroes, with each one fitting the ideological bias of the story creators.


Aka, mythology. Aka, fiction.

No, you mean mythologies, fictions -- PLURAL. Even if the accounts are fiction, we have MORE THAN ONE FICTION, MORE THAN ONE MYTHOLOGY here in our accounts.

Until you explain this confusion of different versions of the story, the only explanation is that something NON-fiction must have happened, and differing factions then converged on this one event and each gave a different interpretation of it. You cannot imagine that all these different factions voluntarily came together to discuss this, like the Paris Convention, and came to agreement on all the different elements to decide what to include in the story.

There is one unifying element they all seemingly agreed to -- the Jesus miracle-worker. Which makes no sense if it's fiction. There is no reason why all these differing factions would agree together to create this single Jesus miracle-worker fiction, to be promoted to the world and yet they're each promoting their respective and conflicting agendas.

This one factor, the Jesus miracle acts, must have been a given, produced by the real historical facts, and not something they all agreed to in harmony with each other, which is unthinkable.

Rather, what happened is that they all attached to this historical fact, each group on its own, without any convention of them all coming together to hash out their differences or find common ground -- the part in common was already there, given, dictated to them by the real events. They had this one historical fact as a given, with no consensus reached about it, because it was just there, in all the evidence or reports about it which could not be dismissed, and then to this fact or real historical event, circulating out of anyone's control, each faction added its own version of the truth to explain it.

The facts of the Jesus miracles came first, and then came all the interpretations and "visions" and theologizings and "histories" and mythologies and whatever other ingredients we find tossed in by the many different explainers.
 
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If you insist that such reports of the event are not evidence that it happened, then you're tossing out 98% of all our accepted ancient historical record.
You're STILL flogging this line of bullshit?
How'd the number get up to 97%, Lumpy?

Seriously, what does that number represent? Do you actually want to maintain that virtually the only things Historians use to fill in textbooks is finding where someone wrote down a historical account?
Or do you only imagine that that's how history works?

I'd really like to see the math behind this claim.

But even if it were true, if this charge stood up to scrutiny, how do you imagine this playing out? We suddenly decide to accept YOUR favorite miracle stories, because you're holding the history of the Roman Empire hostage? That the criteria for accepting history be relaxed until your myth is accepted as fact?

Or would we just edit all history books to add "Maybe..." at the beginning of every chapter? And stamp "Even less likely..." on ever page of your bible?
 
The miracles of Jesus are not word puzzles, but reported events 2000 years ago, for which there is evidence.

If a miracle is defined as 'inexplicable', then any . . .

That's not the only way to define it. Rather, it can be defined as unexplained by our known science, or by our current state of knowledge, or by our accumulated knowledge based on our experience up to now.

. . . then any event we can explain as having a god as a cause is by definition not a miracle.

No, "inexplicable" doesn't mean it couldn't be explained as caused by a god. It means unexplainable by anything we know of within our current science. It includes the meaning that there's no cause we know of other than God (or a god) having caused it. Or, only God causing it could be the explanation, and nothing else.

The "inexplicable" definition cannot be twisted around to turn "miracle" into a self-contradictory term, or as something impossible based only on the words, or the semantics. You cannot refute the Christ miracles with word games about the meaning of "miracle" or "inexplicable" or "impossible" or "supernatural" etc. All these words have a place in the arguing, but there's no easy way out of the argument by just defining a word in some way as to make all "miracle" claims ipso facto impossible.

So there's no quickie universal instant miracle-refuter formula in the definitions or logic.


Either that, or the existence of miracles proves that the concept of god has no explanatory value.

No, "god" or "God" has explanatory value in the sense that this means there is a power, i.e., superhuman power, which is able to cause events which human power cannot cause. Obviously there are many events we can imagine which humans cannot cause, but "God" could cause them. So this has "explanatory" value, by saying that the power exists to do something, even though humans don't have such power. I.e., such as power to give eternal life. Power to heal, cure physical affliction such as is described in the Gospel accounts. The only question is whether Jesus actually did perform those acts. The empirical evidence is that he did, and the "explanation" is that he had superhuman power.

So the only disproof of it is to refute the evidence we have, from the accounts we have from the time, just like written accounts from the time are our evidence for all historical events.


Either way, theism is contraindicated.

Perhaps some "theism" ideologies can be "contraindicated" by this kind of logic. But not the claim that miracle acts -- superhuman acts -- were performed, as indicated in the evidence, showing that this superhuman power exists. If so, it's "good news" because it means the possibility of eternal life.

So the only possible flaw is in whether it really happened, and then also whether that power might be great enough to go beyond only the miracle acts which happened then -- i.e., whether that power extends to us all, as a possibility to gain eternal life. So you could argue that whatever that power was which he demonstrated, it couldn't go any farther than just an ability back then, 2000 years ago, to cure some persons then, and also to produce his own resurrection after he had been killed -- and that's all it is, going no further than that.

That's really all the fallacy which can be argued. I.e., the evidence has to be greater, for a miracle claim; and then also, if somehow those miracles really did happen, that's all there is to it, with nothing further than just those miracle acts back then.

Otherwise there's no error, or flaw in the logic. The facts are there, in the written accounts from the time, like for any other historical events, except in this case we have much more evidence than required for ordinary events, so the requirement for some extra evidence (for miracle claims) is met, unlike miracle claims generally, for which there usually is not evidence. And of course one can always insist that the quantity of evidence has to be even greater still, so that these 4 (5) sources are still not enough.

So there are counterarguments, but not just the semantical word-game arguments claiming there's a logical contradiction somewhere in the "miracle" terminology.
 
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