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Free Will And Free Choice

... the combination of the processing/selecting and preferring along with one's consciousness of it is what is meant by "free will."

What does being conscious of a decision bring to the equation that makes it free?

If there's no awareness or consciousness, then "free" doesn't matter. An entity without any awareness or consciousness does not want or desire anything. Being "free" applies only to conscious entities which want something, and if they are allowed to pursue what they want, we say they're "free," but if they're prevented, then they are not free.

Whether an entity is free might very well matter, even if it is not consciously aware, if the word is being used within a proper context. Such as when a rock is free to roll downhill, or a weed is free to take over a garden. Of course if you bring external restraint or coercion into the equation then you've established a proper context within which delineated types of behavior is nominally considered to be free.

Conscious awareness of one's wants and desires doesn't automatically confer freedom. In fact the opposite can be true. Ask a Buddhist monk. We can be prisoners of our desires, whether we are conscious of them or not.

But without any awareness of anything, or without any consciousness, it's neither free or non-free. Without that awareness, i.e., without the caring or desiring or wanting, then it doesn't matter what happens to that entity. Nothing about it matters if there's no entity that cares or wants or desires. If the entity can suffer pain, that means it has awareness or consciousness about that pain which it wants not to happen.

You've made a good moral case for why we value conscious life. And that we value it more than non-conscious life. I get that. There's solid reasons for doing so. Our society wouldn't function very well unless we did. But it's too general a statement to say it doesn't matter what happens to any and all non-conscious entities. And conscious awareness still doesn't seem to determine whether it's free or it isn't.

You can call it free will and I'll concede that this is what most people define as free will, but what is actually meaningful about calling it free?

It's meaningful that it be allowed to pursue what it wants, or what it's conscious of and seeks to acquire. All else being equal, it's "good" for an entity with wants and awareness to gain satisfaction for those wants.

You'll need to define "good", because it can be applied to rocks and weeds just as well. When it comes to living entities it usually pertains to its ability to survive and prosper.

The issue is not whether we "call" it something. Being "free" simply means that the entity is allowed to pursue what it wants, and this allowance is what is meaningful, because it's what is "good" in life, or what matters. It's "good" or "it matters" that entities with awareness get what they want. Like your desire to post your opinions on this message board. It's "good" for an entity which wants to post messages to actually succeed in posting messages.

Excepting those on one's ignore list. :) The problem is that lots of people want to call it something as if it had some absolute existence. As if it was a property of consciousness and specifically human consciousness. Now I'll go further than you might by saying that what is "good" in life is what matters to the well-being of humans. I'm a humanist and I build my system of morality on that foundation. But I see it as narrow-minded to confer free will only on human beings as some kind of special sauce, because that only obscures our ability to discover the true source of our motivations.

It's "good" for us to get what we want, as much as possible. Obviously it's often difficult, and one person's want conflicts with another's, and so on, but getting those wants fulfilled as much as possible is what makes life meaningful and "good," and being "free" to pursue those wants means more of those wants will get satisfied.

There's lots of good reasons why that isn't true, mostly having to do with the context of which "us" you're talking about. And it speaks directly to why desires are often in direct conflict with freedom, and how the satisfaction of desires can result in a loss of freedom.

The word "free" implies without restraint. Being consciously aware of a decision doesn't necessarily mean it was unrestrained.

But what it means is that you're not a computer or robot making decisions. The computer/robot is not "free" or "unfree" because it's not aware of anything and does not have preferences it wants to pursue. So "free will" or "free choice" or "freedom" applies only to conscious entities making decisions, not unconscious entities like machines, even though they can also make decisions.

I can't help but think that you're taking a perfectly good and meaningful word and distorting it (the way dualists and spiritualists often do with words such as faith, hope, and love) to imbue it with some absolute connotation that makes it ambiguous and useless. Just like any computer you are free to be what you are. No more and no less.

Conscious awareness is normally highly focused and restrained. I'd even say that the source of one's desires and subconscious decisions is . . . [and so on]

The point (about conscious awareness) is that it's not machines which have "free will" or need "freedom" -- as DBT said earlier that even a computer or robot must have "free will" if it means choices are made. But "free will" doesn't mean only that choices or selections are being made by something. If the entity making the selections is a non-conscious entity, then it's not a case of free will. For there to be free will there must be intention and preference, meaning awareness of something that is being chosen by the entity having a desire and pursuing this by making the choice.

Computers have intended purposes. They choose according to programmed or derived preferences. They are aware of inputs and outputs as well as internal status. And they have goals that can change independent of external manipulation. I've also heard DBT say that free will simply doesn't exist. It varies with the progress of the discussions which tend to go on forever and bring in many points of view. For me the term can have meaning or not depending on how it's being used in the argument. As I've said it's useful within certain contexts, such as legal, or colloquially to describe a particular circumstance of daily life. But all it really means is that a choice was made and it was within a range of choices that could reasonably been expected to have been made.
 
If there's no awareness or consciousness, then "free" doesn't matter. An entity without any awareness or consciousness does not want or desire anything. Being "free" applies only to conscious entities which want something, and if they are allowed to pursue what they want, we say they're "free," but if they're prevented, then they are not free.

But without any awareness of anything, or without any consciousness, it's neither free or non-free. Without that awareness, i.e., without the caring or desiring or wanting, then it doesn't matter what happens to that entity. Nothing about it matters if there's no entity that cares or wants or desires. If the entity can suffer pain, that means it has awareness or consciousness about that pain which it wants not to happen.

How does one get from unconscious being to conscious being? The Answer is 'Via a deterministic material genetic process'.

Perhaps. What we know for sure is that we're conscious (or each one of us knows this). If this was produced by the particular process you say, that's OK. But if you're wrong and it was produced some other way, that's OK too.


How does one get from determined to free? One doesn't.

Who says one needs to "get from determined to free"?

"determined" doesn't necessarily mean non-"free" -- We don't know that a "free" choice could not also have been determined. For it to be free only requires that the entity be conscious and make choices and not be prevented from acting according to its preferences. But to say "get from determined to free" imposes your dogma that "free" and "determined" are mutually exclusive, which is an arbitrary dogma you're imposing.

It's "free" (or denied "freedom") if it is conscious and makes choices or seeks what it prefers, regardless what was "determined" or not determined.


Magic faeries aren't part of the process.

Then stop waving your magic wand and pretending that your magic fairies can make "free will" disappear because it contradicts your religion.


How does one confuse free will with a determined process?

How is it not "determined" like other things which are real and are determined?

What process is NOT determined? Why can't something be what it is and also be determined?


One chooses what to use as a starting point. If cause and effect are only what is 'in the here and now' then one isn't in reality.

From https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/determinism-causal/
Definition:
Determinism: The world is governed by (or is under the sway of) determinism if and only if, given a specified way things are at a time t, the way things go thereafter is fixed as a matter of natural law.

Does one see awareness or conscious in that definition? Of course not.

It doesn't exclude awareness or conscious, anymore than it excludes peanut butter. Nor does it exclude "free choice" or "free will" or other realities not mentioned. Is this quote some kind of religious creed you hold to as divinely inspired and binding on all true believers?


Pipe in place match struck, waiting to light up.

Just because you can impersonate Bertrand Russell and throw some philosophy jargon around does not mean free will isn't real.
 
You appear to be confusing the common usage of the term 'free will' as the ability to make decisions with the debate on what free will may be in relation to human capabilities and the cognitive process.

For example, to say 'she acted of her free will' means that she acted according to her own will or desire without being forced or compelled by others, but that tells us absolutely nothing about how her will or desire was formed or generated. It tells us absolutely nothing about human behaviour, it's drivers or the nature of conscious will. Which for the given reasons, unconscious information processing prior to conscious report, conscious will is neither the driver of decision making or free to act according to its own makeup. Brain function determines output.

Even if an act or choice is a brain-function output, that does not negate free will. It is still a free will act if it's from a conscious entity choosing according to its/his/her preference. Defining free will as brain function output does not mean the free will isn't doing its function or making a choice.

If you want to give it a different label than "free will" because that term offends you, then it's OK to seek some other terminology, but you're only fussing over the semantics, not the philosophical question, or the significance of free will and choices we make.


What Is Cognition?
''Cognition is a term referring to the mental processes involved in gaining knowledge and comprehension. These cognitive processes include thinking, knowing, remembering, judging, and problem-solving. These are higher-level functions of the brain and encompass language, imagination, perception, and planning.''

''Mental processes'' are of course the function and work of a brain.

You can explain "free will" or "free choice" that way. The free choices, or the free-will acts, can be explained as works of a brain. That doesn't make free will somehow less real or less important.
 
Preferences are formed through life experience, which become the criteria for the selection of options from a given set of realizable alternatives. Which, rather than 'free will,' is a decision making process - selection based on a set of criteria.

You're just defining what "free will" is and then saying it's not "free will" but a decision-making process and selection based on a set of criteria.

But why is "a decision-making process and selection based on a set of criteria" better than just "free will"?

You're using terms like "preferences" and "criteria for the selection" and "options" and "decision-making process" and "alternatives" -- but all this together is just the long way of saying free will.

There's nothing wrong with the shorter term.

Perhaps you neglect to include the consciousness as part of it. You must admit that this is also part of the process, because there's none of this selecting and preference and decision-making etc. without a conscious mind doing it, is there?

So just add the consciousness to the above (plus also something about non-coercion), and you got free will. Why do you want to get hung up on semantics and quibble over what it's called? There's nothing wrong with giving a short name to it, a label -- "free will" -- and using that shortened term so that it isn't necessary to repeat every time a long phrase like a "decision-making process and selection of options from a set of realizable alternatives based on a set of criteria" -- plus also having to add that it's a conscious entity doing this process.

Why not instead call it "free will" -- everyone knows what it means. Where is there a mistake in anyone understanding what it means?
 
It doesn't exclude awareness or conscious, anymore than it excludes peanut butter. Nor does it exclude "free choice" or "free will" or other realities not mentioned. Is this quote some kind of religious creed you hold to as divinely inspired and binding on all true believers?

Just because you can impersonate Bertrand Russell and throw some philosophy jargon around does not mean free will isn't real.

Here's your nugget.

Why we all don't resort to un logic or un objective? Because meaning actually means something relative to what is presented.

OK Absalom?

Think of "If" and we won't ever get out of the ditch.

One's will is not free if one can put causal antecedents before it.

... and I kind of like the idea of natural law.
 
Preferences are formed through life experience, which become the criteria for the selection of options from a given set of realizable alternatives. Which, rather than 'free will,' is a decision making process - selection based on a set of criteria.

You're just defining what "free will" is and then saying it's not "free will" but a decision-making process and selection based on a set of criteria.

No, I am not defining free will. You misconstrue what I said.

I am pointing out that what is commonly thought of as being free is wrong, That common usage only refers to the outer phenomena, the ability to make decisions (which an information processor can do), but does not take the means of production into account.



But why is "a decision-making process and selection based on a set of criteria" better than just "free will"?

Better? It has nothing to do with better or worse. It's just a matter of the nature of the process. A process that does not involve conscious will. By the time conscious will comes into play, prompting us to respond, the real work has already been done microseconds prior, unconsciously.



You're using terms like "preferences" and "criteria for the selection" and "options" and "decision-making process" and "alternatives" -- but all this together is just the long way of saying free will.

You haven't understood a thing that has been said, choosing to blindly apply the label of free will where it doesn't apply.

Movement Intention After Parietal Cortex Stimulation in Humans;
''Parietal and premotor cortex regions are serious contenders for bringing motor intentions and motor responses into awareness. We used electrical stimulation in seven patients undergoing awake brain surgery. Stimulating the right inferior parietal regions triggered a strong intention and desire to move the contralateral hand, arm, or foot, whereas stimulating the left inferior parietal region provoked the intention to move the lips and to talk. When stimulation intensity was increased in parietal areas, participants believed they had really performed these movements, although no electromyographic activity was detected. Stimulation of the premotor region triggered overt mouth and contralateral limb movements. Yet, patients firmly denied that they had moved. Conscious intention and motor awareness thus arise from increased parietal activity before movement execution.''
 
If there's no awareness or consciousness, then "free" doesn't matter. An entity without any awareness or consciousness does not want or desire anything. Being "free" applies only to conscious entities which want something, and if they are allowed to pursue what they want, we say they're "free," but if they're prevented, then they are not free.

Whether an entity is free might very well matter, even if it is not consciously aware, if the word is being used within a proper context. Such as when a rock is free to roll downhill, . . .

No, it doesn't matter if a rock is free to roll downhill, and that use of "free" is different than the case of a conscious entity being free or not free. Being "free" (in the case of the rock) matters only if you add something else which does matter. A rock rolling downhill per se does not matter. But if you add that an innocent critter is in its path and might get injured, then it matters if that critter gets hurt, but the rock rolling per se does not matter.

Something, even a rolling rock, might "matter" if you add that it might cause some benefit or harm to someone. But then you're just saying that EVERYTHING matters, no matter what (because it's always possible that it benefits or harms someone), but then you're just saying a tautology: Everything imaginable matters, whatever it is (because it might do benefit or harm). Which is pointless. If EVERYTHING matters, then "mattering" itself doesn't matter. So no, only some things matter, not everything imaginable. And so only things which might pose benefit or harm to sentient beings can matter.

Obviously we don't always know FOR SURE that it matters, that a sentient being is harmed or benefited. But still some things do matter and others do not, and the rolling rock in itself having no impact on any sentient being does not matter, and that rock is not "free" to roll, nor is it "good" or "bad" if anything stops it.

. . . or a weed is free to take over a garden.

Only if you assume that it poses harm to someone, like the owner of the garden. In which case it's not the weed per se that matters, but the desire of the garden owner to maintain his garden. So it's the human's desire for the garden which matters, not the weed. But the weed per se takes on importance as it intrudes into the interests of a sentient entity which wants something. The freedom of the weed per se does not matter because the weed is not a sentient entity, or an entity with consciousness. Only entities with consciousness matter. Or whatever they want matters.

Or the freedom of sentient entities matters. But the freedom of a non-sentient entity, in itself, does not matter.


Of course if you bring external restraint or coercion into the equation then you've established a proper context within which delineated types of behavior is nominally considered to be free.

Yes, and such restraint or coercion does not matter if the only thing affected is a rolling rock or a weed spreading somewhere. If nothing else is impacted by that object, or by restraint or coercion against it, then it does not matter. But if a sentient being is benefited or harmed, then it matters.


Conscious awareness of one's wants and desires doesn't automatically confer freedom.

Yes it does, if along with it there is selection or choice taking place. If one is conscious of making the choice and also of one's wants or desires, then that combination of factors makes the choice a free choice, if it is made without threat or coercion from someone outside who makes the choosing one worse off than s/he would be if that outside threatening one did not exist. And if the threatened one chooses differently only because of the outside threat, then it's not a "free choice" but is a case of that one's free will being suppressed.


In fact the opposite can be true. Ask a Buddhist monk. We can be prisoners of our desires, whether we are conscious of them or not.

No we can't be. But, our desires can change, in which case we can desire something different at a different time. And we might judge that our earlier desire was flawed in some way, while our later desire is more genuine. So when there are conflicting desires, it's more confusing, or ambiguous. Our mindset at one time judges against our mindset at another time and would suppress those desires.

But even if we want to suppress certain desires, we can't do that unless we're conscious of those desires. So it makes no sense to say we're "prisoners of desires" and still not conscious of them. We have to be conscious of it in order to be imprisoned by it. An animal that is penned and doesn't know it is not a "prisoner" of the pen. But if it's trying to get out, unable to crash down the fence, then it's a "prisoner." You can't say the victim is a "prisoner" and yet never knows it. Possibly the victim knows it at one time and not another, and so it's an ambiguous case of being a prisoner in a lesser sense. But being a "prisoner" makes no sense if there's no consciousness whatever of the imprisonment (or what another is calling "imprisonment").

The one "imprisoned" has to recognize it at some point. Perhaps you can offer that victim new information, so he learns of something which then matters and he wants the change, because he sees a better prospect. So giving new information can in some cases lead to the subject's desire for change and a discomfort or sense of "imprisonment" that didn't exist before. But if the subject still wants the same as before, despite the new insights offered by the Buddhist monk, then it's not true that this "victim" really was "imprisoned" by those desires, despite the babblings of the monk.


But without any awareness of anything, or without any consciousness, it's neither free or non-free. Without that awareness, i.e., without the caring or desiring or wanting, then it doesn't matter what happens to that entity. Nothing about it matters if there's no entity that cares or wants or desires. If the entity can suffer pain, that means it has awareness or consciousness about that pain which it wants not to happen.

You've made a good moral case for why we value conscious life. And that we value it more than non-conscious life. I get that. There's solid reasons for doing so. Our society wouldn't function very well unless we did. But it's too general a statement to say it doesn't matter what happens to any and all non-conscious entities.

No, it's a good description of what "matters" and what does not. As long as we include ALL sentient beings, all animals (or other sentient entities in the universe) which want something (or want not-something).

Outside of those wants or the conscious desire for something, it's impossible to identify anything that matters. How can anything "matter" unless some entity wants it or wants it not to be? What's an example of anything that matters in the universe but which no sentient being cares about (or ever will care about) in any way? It's always possible that it will affect sentient beings in a million years from now, and so therefore it matters for us now, to protect the interests of those later sentient beings. But it cannot matter unless it eventually at some point affects sentient beings.

If we don't know about the future (a million years from now), then it's impossible for us to determine whether it will matter or not. Whether it matters depends on what's probable -- i.e., whether it will have an impact on sentient beings.


And conscious awareness still doesn't seem to determine whether it's free or it isn't.

Again, the conscious awareness is necessary in order for there to be free choice or free will, BUT -- by itself, with no selection or choosing process, it's not enough. There has to also be the choosing or selecting along with the awareness. When all that happens in combination, there is free choice (or suppression of freedom if coercion is imposed onto the chooser). So the conscious awareness is necessary and is part of what determines whether it's "free" or if free will is happening.


You can call it free will and I'll concede that this is what most people define as free will, but what is actually meaningful about calling it free?

It's meaningful that it be allowed to pursue what it wants, or what it's conscious of and seeks to acquire. All else being equal, it's "good" for an entity with wants and awareness to gain satisfaction for those wants.

You'll need to define "good", because it . . .

You never use the word "good"? We shouldn't have to stop and define every word. You don't think satisfying wants is "good"? It's not necessary to define a term which is already being used in accordance with its common usage, as in this case, where we're assuming that it's "good" for wants to be satisfied and not frustrated.

. . . because it can be applied to rocks and weeds just as well.

No, rocks don't have needs or wants.

Weeds don't have wants, but perhaps have "needs" (for CO2 etc.) in order to survive, but even then it's not necessarily "good" for them to survive unless a sentient entity somewhere wants them to. So "good" cannot be applied to weeds or rocks per se, because they aren't conscious, so it doesn't matter what happens to them, unless they have some effect on sentient beings at some time or place. If there was a time when no sentient beings existed, then at that time nothing mattered. However, those events could "matter" in terms of their impact on later times when there would be sentient beings. So something 3 or 4 billion years ago might have mattered because it had some later effect on us now.

Or if there was a God observing them, they mattered to him/her/it.


When it comes to living entities it usually pertains to its ability to survive and prosper.

But if it's a non-sentient entity, then it doesn't matter if it survives or prospers, what happens to it, in itself. What happens to it matters only if it has an impact somehow on sentient beings somewhere. I.e., on conscious beings -- including possibly a lower level of consciousness than that of humans. A primitive sensing, being aware, can be significant enough so that it "matters" what happens to it, though to a lower degree than that of humans. The greater is the sentience, the more it matters.


The issue is not whether we "call" it something. Being "free" simply means that the entity is allowed to pursue what it wants, and this allowance is what is meaningful, because it's what is "good" in life, or what matters. It's "good" or "it matters" that entities with awareness get what they want. Like your desire to post your opinions on this message board. It's "good" for an entity which wants to post messages to actually succeed in posting messages.

Excepting those on one's ignore list. :) The problem is that lots of people want to call it something as if it had some absolute existence. As if it was a property of consciousness and specifically human consciousness. Now I'll go further than you might by saying that what is "good" in life is what matters to the well-being of humans.

Humans are more important, generally (being more sentient). But "good" pertains to non-humans also. Or, it matters what happens to ALL sentient beings, not only humans. Higher degree of sentience increases the "good" or the mattering.


I'm a humanist and I build my system of morality on that foundation. But I see it as narrow-minded to confer free will only on human beings as some kind of special sauce, because that only obscures our ability to discover the true source of our motivations.

Animals also have a degree of free will, at varying levels as you go down to the more primitive or simple forms. At the extreme lower end it's reasonable to say they have no free will, because it's such a low level. It's not all-or-nothing.


It's "good" for us to get what we want, as much as possible. Obviously it's often difficult, and one person's want conflicts with another's, and so on, but getting those wants fulfilled as much as possible is what makes life meaningful and "good," and being "free" to pursue those wants means more of those wants will get satisfied.

There's lots of good reasons why that isn't true, mostly having to do with the context of which "us" you're talking about.

Only because we're unaware of the others, in the "us vs. them" reality we have to deal with, and we can only judge based on what we know. As we learn more of the "them" and what they want, we have to recalculate what is wanted and has to be satisfied.


And it speaks directly to why desires are often in direct conflict with freedom, and how the satisfaction of desires can result in a loss of freedom.

We have to keep recalculating as we recognize more and more of the existing desires. But in all the reconsidering what's "good" and how much can be satisfied and how much curtailed, it's always the case that only conscious beings need to be "free" to choose and have "free will" and that "free" does not apply to non-conscious entities. So free will and "good" pertain to conscious entities only.


The word "free" implies without restraint. Being consciously aware of a decision doesn't necessarily mean it was unrestrained.

But what it means is that you're not a computer or robot making decisions. The computer/robot is not "free" or "unfree" because it's not aware of anything and does not have preferences it wants to pursue. So "free will" or "free choice" or "freedom" applies only to conscious entities making decisions, not unconscious entities like machines, even though they can also make decisions.

I can't help but think that you're taking a perfectly good and meaningful word and distorting it (the way dualists and spiritualists often do with words such as faith, hope, and love) to imbue it with some absolute connotation that makes it ambiguous and useless. Just like any computer you are free to be what you are. No more and no less.

No, "free" does not apply to the computer which has no consciousness. It's incorrect to say it is "free" (or has "free will") simply because it is left untouched to do whatever it's doing. An untouched moving object might be called "free" in a sense, but it's a bit metaphorical. And it's incorrect to say it has "free will." Nothing unconscious, even if it's moving and selecting options, can be said to have "free will" as DBT said earlier, which is the origin of most of this commentary and text walls. That was incorrect, to say that a machine making selections must also have free will. Because free will must be more than just selecting options. It must be a consciousness which is selecting options, and also a consciousness with preferences, or wants.


Conscious awareness is normally highly focused and restrained. I'd even say that the source of one's desires and subconscious decisions is . . . [and so on]

The point (about conscious awareness) is that it's not machines which have "free will" or need "freedom" -- as DBT said earlier that even a computer or robot must have "free will" if it means choices are made. But "free will" doesn't mean only that choices or selections are being made by something. If the entity making the selections is a non-conscious entity, then it's not a case of free will. For there to be free will there must be intention and preference, meaning awareness of something that is being chosen by the entity having a desire and pursuing this by making the choice.

Computers have intended purposes.

Only the intention of the programmers. The computer per se has no preferences or intentions.


They choose according to programmed or derived preferences.

But only the preferences of the conscious entities which programmed them. Only conscious entities can have preferences or intentions, not the machines programmed by the conscious entities. A motor might run according to the design from the engineer, but it has no intention or preference of its own.


They are aware of inputs and outputs as well as internal status.

No, they are not "aware" of these, anymore than a motor is "aware" of the on-off switch which made it start running, or the wheels or pistons it drives. We have no evidence that these machines have any consciousness of what they are doing or what drives them or what they are driving.


And they have goals that can change independent of external manipulation.

No, they cannot change their "goals" unless there is a malfunction. If they gather information unknown earlier to the programmer, depending on something the programmer didn't know, this information is still something the programmer wanted to gain, knowing the information was out there and could be found by the machine, so that it was the intention only of the programmer, not the machine, that the information be found. It cannot happen "independent" of manipulation by the machine designer or programmer unless there is a malfunction.

Sometimes even an ACCIDENT can happen, not expected by the designer, leading perhaps to a good result, in which case it is good luck, or a "gift from God" or other metaphor, but not an intention or preference of the machine or anything the machine was conscious of.


I've also heard DBT say that free will simply doesn't exist. It varies with the progress of the discussions which tend to go on forever and bring in many points of view. For me the term can have meaning or not depending on how it's being used in the argument. As I've said it's useful within certain contexts, such as legal, or colloquially to describe a particular circumstance of daily life. But all it really means is that a choice was made . . .

By a conscious entity. But if by a non-conscious machine then "free will" does not apply.

. . . and it was within a range of choices that could reasonably been expected to have been made.

By a conscious entity, in which case it can be called "free will" -- but not if it's a selection taking place with no consciousness of it by the one choosing.
 
One's will is not free if one can put causal antecedents before it.

Yes it is. There are many examples.

E.g., Advertising, which is a causal antecedent to some decision-making.

Every reasonable person admits that some of their decisions to buy something was influenced by advertising. So you made a choice, knowing that advertising probably influenced it (or did in some cases), and yet that decision was still a free-will choice.

The fact that you are influenced by something or someone does not mean the decision was not done freely, or as an act of free will.

There can be some ambiguity in a case where you later regret the decision, and particularly if you did NOT know of the influence at the time of the decision, and even more so if there was deception in the advertising.

But those are usually a minor influence, and in most cases where it's a major influence it is still a decision which was free and which you'd make again, if you could go back and do it over.

It's fine to say that we sometimes don't realize how much we're influenced by something, and we should be more aware of how we might be "manipulated" in some cases. But that doesn't mean we didn't act out of free will, or that free will is not the norm. In cases of blatant fraud, we later recognize the manipulation and it may be ambiguous whether the act was really "free" -- but that's the exception. The "free will" decisions are the norm where there was not such fraud. Criminal fraud cases do exist but are not the norm.


... and I kind of like the idea of natural law.

Nothing about free will contradicts natural law.

Just because something is difficult to explain scientifically doesn't mean it contradicts natural law. Some things in life are difficult to explain, to break down into the atoms and molecules etc., but that doesn't mean it isn't scientific or has no explanation in the physics and chemistry, etc. Maybe the precise science is not known, like so much is not known. That doesn't mean there is no science or no natural-law truth which could explain it if it was known.
 
If then.

Evidence?

Really?

One an center on one because one is presuming one originates and find 'exceptions' until one realizes one is determined up front. Choice cannot be an option and not break natural law. There are reasons why many call Science the Philosophy of many.
 
More:

The underlying process of decision making:
"And the electrical activity in these neurons is known to reflect the delivery of this chemical, dopamine, to the frontal cortex. Dopamine is one of several neurotransmitters thought to regulate emotional response, and is suspected of playing a central role in schizophrenia, Parkinson's disease, and drug abuse," Montague says. "We think these dopamine neurons are making guesses at likely future rewards. The neuron is constantly making a guess at the time and magnitude of the reward."

"If what it expects doesn't arrive, it doesn't change its firing. If it expects a certain amount of reward at a particular time and the reward is actually higher, it's surprised by that and increases its delivery of dopamine," he explains. "And if it expects a certain level (of reward) and it actually gets less, it decreases its level of dopamine delivery."

Thus, says Montague, "what we see is that the dopamine neurons change the way they make electrical impulses in exactly the same way the animal changes his behavior. The way the neurons change their predictions correlates with the behavioral changes of the monkey almost exactly."

Whether one feels ''compelled'' or not, the decision making process itself is determined by the immediate condition of the neural circuitry (connectivity) and its own immediate information state (input and memory) in the instance of decision making (neural information processing), and not an act of conscious will. The latter is a consequence of the former condition, and therefore cannot be described as being 'free' under any circumstances.
 
Preferences are formed through life experience, which become the criteria for the selection of options from a given set of realizable alternatives. Which, rather than 'free will,' is a decision making process - selection based on a set of criteria.

You're just defining what "free will" is and then saying it's not "free will" but a decision-making process and selection based on a set of criteria.

No, I am not defining free will. You misconstrue what I said.

Yes you are defining "free will" when you say "Preferences are formed . . . which become the criteria for the selection of options . . . which . . . is a decision-making process - selection based on a set of criteria" except that you're omitting the element of consciousness as being part of it. Except for that omission it defines free will. It's that process plus the consciousness of the entity doing the selecting. And it would just be simpler to call the whole thing "free will" instead of the long wordy description of it.


I am pointing out that what is commonly thought of as being free is wrong.

You're saying something is wrong, but you're not saying what it is that's wrong. We have a decision-making process which involves consciousness, which combination = "free will" which spooks you somehow, but you can't explain what upsets you about this free will.


That common usage only refers to the outer phenomena, the ability to make decisions (which an information processor can do), but does not take the means of production into account.

What's "wrong" about referring only "to the outer phenomena"? You can always probe deeper and deeper into anything you want to in life. E.g., you can say you "picked" a flower and have no idea what a flower really is deep inside, but that doesn't mean there was something "wrong" about claiming that you picked a flower.

"not take the means of production into account" -- perhaps, but that's not anything "wrong" -- You don't have to "take the means of production into account" every time you say something. Free will is that decision-making process plus the consciousness with it -- and there isn't anything "wrong" about this or saying you made a free choice. It isn't necessary to "take into account" everything imaginable. Admittedly there are things not accounted for in life. But that doesn't mean there's something "wrong" going on.

It's OK to try to take more "account" of the things going on, but not everyone needs to do that all the time. We make our choices (or exercise our free will) all the time, and maybe some of what we do can be broken down into the cells and molecules and atoms, but even if not, we still know we're making our choices or exercising our free will even if we don't pick apart the brain cell activity behind every choice. It's OK to probe deeper into it, but that doesn't mean anything is "wrong" when we don't probe deeper but just make a "free will" choice or pick a flower or kick a chair or whatever without taking "the means of production into account" in every instance.


But why is "a decision-making process and selection based on a set of criteria" better than just "free will"?

Better? It has nothing to do with better or worse.

But you said "what is commonly thought of as being free is wrong," and "wrong" is a judgment term meaning something is worse than something else. You can't say the common "free" idea is "wrong" if there's nothing better or worse about it.


It's just a matter of the nature of the process.

OK, so the free will, as we commonly think of it, is that process of deciding (along with consciousness), and there's nothing "wrong" with that common thinking, because there's nothing better or worse about it, as you now recognize. So don't say there's something "wrong" going on in "what is commonly thought of as being free" -- it's just the process of choosing, along with the consciousness; and maybe you have some additional information about that process, about the brain cells, and there's nothing wrong with that additional information, just as there's nothing "wrong" with what is "commonly thought" about it.

Just because you might add some new information does not mean there was something "wrong" about what is commonly thought prior to this new information. Nothing in your new information corrects anything "wrong" in the earlier thinking. You're not disproving what was already thought earlier by just adding some new information to it. There's always more information to add to any current thinking, but that doesn't make "wrong" the current thinking before the part that you're adding to it.


A process that does not involve conscious will. By the time conscious will comes into play, . . .

whoops! -- you contradicted yourself: "conscious will comes into play" means conscious will is involved in the process, even if it's slightly later than an earlier part of the process. And if no consciousness does come into play (later), then it's not free will and so is not what we're talking about. The "free will" is the decision-making process plus the consciousness, and without the consciousness there is no free will even if there is some selecting going on.

. . . By the time conscious will comes into play, prompting us to respond, the real work has already been done microseconds prior, unconsciously.

But that's not necessarily the end of the "real work" -- because in some cases the added consciousness then leads to a change, and some new decision is made which reverses the "work" of the earlier process. So the decision-making is not just one instantaneous point earlier in the process, but a longer process of perhaps several seconds, and the slightly later consciousness changes the final selection. And even if the (later) consciousness does not make any change, still it had to consider the possibility of a change and make a decision.

So the final decision is not done only at the earlier point an instant before the consciousness, because unless the later consciousness gives its approval, that earlier point in the process might be overruled. Like the President deciding whether to veto a bill which the earlier deciders (legislators) put forth. The ultimate decision process is not completed until the final decision is made, not only when the earlier point ("real work") happened. The later point is also part of the "real work" of deciding.


You're using terms like "preferences" and "criteria for the selection" and "options" and "decision-making process" and "alternatives" -- but all this together is just the long way of saying free will.

You haven't understood a thing that has been said, choosing to blindly apply the label of free will where it doesn't apply.

Where does this label apply? You can't say where it does NOT apply unless you tell us where it does apply. And yet you're not conceding that it applies anywhere. You're saying the term "free will" should not even exist, and that it should be expunged from the language. No? Well then tell us where it is OK to use the term "free will"? ever?

Usually when your logic leads to the conclusion that a certain word in the language should not even exist, it's your logic that is faulty, not that word or that common way of speaking.


Movement Intention After Parietal Cortex Stimulation in Humans;
''Parietal and premotor cortex regions are serious contenders for bringing motor intentions and motor responses into awareness. We used electrical stimulation in seven patients undergoing awake brain surgery. Stimulating the right inferior parietal regions triggered a strong intention and desire to move the contralateral hand, arm, or foot, whereas stimulating the left inferior parietal region provoked the intention to move the lips and to talk. When stimulation intensity was increased in parietal areas, participants believed they had really performed these movements, although no electromyographic activity was detected. Stimulation of the premotor region triggered overt mouth and contralateral limb movements. Yet, patients firmly denied that they had moved. Conscious intention and motor awareness thus arise from increased parietal activity before movement execution.''

All this does is analyze part of the process an instant before consciousness of the deciding takes place. But this does not prove that consciousness is not also an essential part of the process, even if it happens slightly later than the earlier part. The fact is that the consciousness can overrule the earlier part of the process in some cases. So that most early part of the process is not the whole process, and the conscious part, even though later, is also a necessary part. None of the research you cite changes the fact that consciousness, or conscious will, is also an essential part of the decision-making process.
 
If then.

Evidence?

Really?

One an center on one because one is presuming one originates and find 'exceptions' until one realizes one is determined up front.

Assuming this means "one realizes one's choice was determined prior to realizing it" --

Even so, the realization of this earlier determination in some cases does change the final choice. The whole decision-making process -- free will -- includes the later realization, or consciousness of the choice, regardless of an instantaneous earlier brain cell activity also causing the choice. The later consciousness is a necessary part of the decision-making even if it comes an instant after an earlier part.


Choice cannot be an option and not break natural law.

Yes it can be. It can be a product of natural law. Even if it is driven entirely by natural law, that doesn't negate the choice or option. Knowing what CAUSED our choice doesn't mean we did not make a choice.

As soon as you know this -- or discover this cause -- you might overrule it, or "change your mind" about the earlier part of the process and choose differently than "natural law" earlier drove you. And even if this new choice itself also is driven by "natural law" now, maybe that too could be reversed later by a new discovery of this cause, and so on.

So the decision-making, or free will, is not a one-time-at-one-instant micro-micro-second instant-point-in-time selection, but sometimes a longer drawn-out process, maybe many seconds in length, even more than one minute -- this time span is shorter or longer depending on each case.
 
Even so, the realization of this earlier determination in some cases does change the final choice. The whole decision-making process -- free will -- includes the later realization, or consciousness of the choice, regardless of an instantaneous earlier brain cell activity also causing the choice. The later consciousness is a necessary part of the decision-making even if it comes an instant after an earlier part.

You are twisting yourself in pretzels trying to make a bad conclusion into something reasonable.

Asking people to guess about the exact time an "urge" begins is folly.

It will not give you anything objective.
 
To me this comes down to the idea that a brain generates a mind but has no idea what that mind experiences.

The brain does not have another mind below the surface making all decisions first.

The brain has a mind it uses a lot of energy to create to make the decisions.

A mind making decisions and acting on them is a great survival mechanism.

A mechanism a brain knows nothing about.

Just like the gene has no idea what final product that gene creates, the gene has no mind, the brain has no idea what the mind is experiencing and has no reason to make moves before the mind commands, unless it is reflexive non-functional movement, movement not requiring a mind.

There are certain reflexes that can cause movement. A loud noise can cause the neck to reflexively turn the head. A hot stove can cause the arm to reflexively pull away. But this is reflexive movement and the mind experiences it as reflexive movement. Planned movement initiated by the mind is something else entirely. It is functional and productive, not merely protective.
 
No, I am not defining free will. You misconstrue what I said.

Yes you are defining "free will" when you say "Preferences are formed . . . which become the criteria for the selection of options . . . which . . . is a decision-making process - selection based on a set of criteria" except that you're omitting the element of consciousness as being part of it. Except for that omission it defines free will. It's that process plus the consciousness of the entity doing the selecting. And it would just be simpler to call the whole thing "free will" instead of the long wordy description of it.


I am pointing out that what is commonly thought of as being free is wrong.

You're saying something is wrong, but you're not saying what it is that's wrong. We have a decision-making process which involves consciousness, which combination = "free will" which spooks you somehow, but you can't explain what upsets you about this free will.


That common usage only refers to the outer phenomena, the ability to make decisions (which an information processor can do), but does not take the means of production into account.

What's "wrong" about referring only "to the outer phenomena"? You can always probe deeper and deeper into anything you want to in life. E.g., you can say you "picked" a flower and have no idea what a flower really is deep inside, but that doesn't mean there was something "wrong" about claiming that you picked a flower.

"not take the means of production into account" -- perhaps, but that's not anything "wrong" -- You don't have to "take the means of production into account" every time you say something. Free will is that decision-making process plus the consciousness with it -- and there isn't anything "wrong" about this or saying you made a free choice. It isn't necessary to "take into account" everything imaginable. Admittedly there are things not accounted for in life. But that doesn't mean there's something "wrong" going on.

It's OK to try to take more "account" of the things going on, but not everyone needs to do that all the time. We make our choices (or exercise our free will) all the time, and maybe some of what we do can be broken down into the cells and molecules and atoms, but even if not, we still know we're making our choices or exercising our free will even if we don't pick apart the brain cell activity behind every choice. It's OK to probe deeper into it, but that doesn't mean anything is "wrong" when we don't probe deeper but just make a "free will" choice or pick a flower or kick a chair or whatever without taking "the means of production into account" in every instance.


But why is "a decision-making process and selection based on a set of criteria" better than just "free will"?

Better? It has nothing to do with better or worse.

But you said "what is commonly thought of as being free is wrong," and "wrong" is a judgment term meaning something is worse than something else. You can't say the common "free" idea is "wrong" if there's nothing better or worse about it.


It's just a matter of the nature of the process.

OK, so the free will, as we commonly think of it, is that process of deciding (along with consciousness), and there's nothing "wrong" with that common thinking, because there's nothing better or worse about it, as you now recognize. So don't say there's something "wrong" going on in "what is commonly thought of as being free" -- it's just the process of choosing, along with the consciousness; and maybe you have some additional information about that process, about the brain cells, and there's nothing wrong with that additional information, just as there's nothing "wrong" with what is "commonly thought" about it.

Just because you might add some new information does not mean there was something "wrong" about what is commonly thought prior to this new information. Nothing in your new information corrects anything "wrong" in the earlier thinking. You're not disproving what was already thought earlier by just adding some new information to it. There's always more information to add to any current thinking, but that doesn't make "wrong" the current thinking before the part that you're adding to it.


A process that does not involve conscious will. By the time conscious will comes into play, . . .

whoops! -- you contradicted yourself: "conscious will comes into play" means conscious will is involved in the process, even if it's slightly later than an earlier part of the process. And if no consciousness does come into play (later), then it's not free will and so is not what we're talking about. The "free will" is the decision-making process plus the consciousness, and without the consciousness there is no free will even if there is some selecting going on.

. . . By the time conscious will comes into play, prompting us to respond, the real work has already been done microseconds prior, unconsciously.

But that's not necessarily the end of the "real work" -- because in some cases the added consciousness then leads to a change, and some new decision is made which reverses the "work" of the earlier process. So the decision-making is not just one instantaneous point earlier in the process, but a longer process of perhaps several seconds, and the slightly later consciousness changes the final selection. And even if the (later) consciousness does not make any change, still it had to consider the possibility of a change and make a decision.

So the final decision is not done only at the earlier point an instant before the consciousness, because unless the later consciousness gives its approval, that earlier point in the process might be overruled. Like the President deciding whether to veto a bill which the earlier deciders (legislators) put forth. The ultimate decision process is not completed until the final decision is made, not only when the earlier point ("real work") happened. The later point is also part of the "real work" of deciding.


You're using terms like "preferences" and "criteria for the selection" and "options" and "decision-making process" and "alternatives" -- but all this together is just the long way of saying free will.

You haven't understood a thing that has been said, choosing to blindly apply the label of free will where it doesn't apply.

Where does this label apply? You can't say where it does NOT apply unless you tell us where it does apply. And yet you're not conceding that it applies anywhere. You're saying the term "free will" should not even exist, and that it should be expunged from the language. No? Well then tell us where it is OK to use the term "free will"? ever?

Usually when your logic leads to the conclusion that a certain word in the language should not even exist, it's your logic that is faulty, not that word or that common way of speaking.


Movement Intention After Parietal Cortex Stimulation in Humans;
''Parietal and premotor cortex regions are serious contenders for bringing motor intentions and motor responses into awareness. We used electrical stimulation in seven patients undergoing awake brain surgery. Stimulating the right inferior parietal regions triggered a strong intention and desire to move the contralateral hand, arm, or foot, whereas stimulating the left inferior parietal region provoked the intention to move the lips and to talk. When stimulation intensity was increased in parietal areas, participants believed they had really performed these movements, although no electromyographic activity was detected. Stimulation of the premotor region triggered overt mouth and contralateral limb movements. Yet, patients firmly denied that they had moved. Conscious intention and motor awareness thus arise from increased parietal activity before movement execution.''

All this does is analyze part of the process an instant before consciousness of the deciding takes place. But this does not prove that consciousness is not also an essential part of the process, even if it happens slightly later than the earlier part. The fact is that the consciousness can overrule the earlier part of the process in some cases. So that most early part of the process is not the whole process, and the conscious part, even though later, is also a necessary part. None of the research you cite changes the fact that consciousness, or conscious will, is also an essential part of the decision-making process.


Basically you just keep repeating the same fallacies over and over. You just tack the term 'free will' without regard to where, when, or if it's even appropriate.

I have described the unconscious nature of decision making and its relationship to conscious report/experience of agency, the role of will, etc.....and clearly, for the reasons given but ignored, the cognitive process of decision making is not free will and neither is conscious will, which emerges as a prompt or urge to act.

Again:


''I don't think "free will" is a very sensible concept, and you don't need neuroscience to reject it -- any mechanistic view of the world is good enough, and indeed you could even argue on purely conceptual grounds that the opposite of determinism is randomness, not free will! Most thoughtful neuroscientists I know have replaced the concept of free will with the concept of rationality -- that we select our actions based on a kind of practical reasoning. And there is no conflict between rationality and the mind as a physical system -- After all, computers are rational physical systems! - Martha Farah, director of the University of Pennsylvania's Center for Cognitive Neuroscience and a prominent neuroethicist.
 
More:
The underlying process of decision making:
"And the electrical activity in these neurons is known to reflect the delivery of this chemical, dopamine, to the frontal cortex. Dopamine is one of several neurotransmitters thought to regulate emotional response, and is suspected of playing a central role in schizophrenia, Parkinson's disease, and drug abuse," Montague says. "We think these dopamine neurons are making guesses at likely future rewards. The neuron is constantly making a guess at the time and magnitude of the reward."

"If what it expects doesn't arrive, it doesn't change its firing. If it expects a certain amount of reward at a particular time and the reward is actually higher, it's surprised by that and increases its delivery of dopamine," he explains. "And if it expects a certain level (of reward) and it actually gets less, it decreases its level of dopamine delivery."

Thus, says Montague, "what we see is that the dopamine neurons change the way they make electrical impulses in exactly the same way the animal changes his behavior. The way the neurons change their predictions correlates with the behavioral changes of the monkey almost exactly."

Whether one feels ''compelled'' or not, the decision making process itself is determined by the immediate condition of the neural circuitry (connectivity) and its own immediate information state (input and memory) in the instance of decision making (neural information processing), and not an act of conscious will.

So "the decision making process itself is determined by" the neurons etc. -- OK, but this process itself is the conscious will, or the conscious awareness of the process happening, or the selecting going on, which is accompanied by the consciousness happening (maybe a second later) which is aware of the process of selecting (which maybe happened a half-second earlier). So this selecting process being described here is the "free will" or "conscious will" making choices -- it is the selecting plus the awareness of it in the consciousness. The text here is saying that this is NOT DETERMINED by an act of conscious will -- but that's redundant, because it's obvious that the conscious will does not determine itself. The selecting going on, and the consciousness of it, is the free will or the conscious will, and so obviously it does not determine itself.

It's OK to claim you've identified the process, or the brain cell activity going on, i.e., the choosing acts of the brain, perhaps happening an instant before the consciousness kicks in. But none of that means there isn't any free will or conscious will. Rather, it's just a description of the free will, or the consciousness happening as the selecting process is going on, so the conscious awareness knows it -- and when this awareness happens there also happens an assessment of the selecting and possibly a new process of changing what was selected. That new process might reverse the earlier choice, so that the ultimate selecting is not necessarily fixed into one instantaneous neuron activity, earlier, but a longer-term process involving that first neuron activity plus possibly some additional neuron activity added to it a second later, or even 2 or 3 seconds, or in some cases much longer.

It's OK to say that the "free will" did not determine this process from the beginning, because this process is itself part of the free will, or conscious will, and so it cannot determine itself. Something determines the whole thing, probably, which doesn't matter. There's no reason why the conscious will cannot be "determined" by something. This whole selecting process going on is the free will, and includes the conscious awareness along with the selecting of an option, regardless whether the actual selection might have happened an instant earlier than the conscious awareness. It's still the case that this conscious awareness might then add some further element into the process which still changes the particular selection, or the option to be selected.

It's not the case that the selection is made at a fixed instantaneous point beyond which there is no further change. The real selection act is usually a longer process than a single micro-second instant of activity. A real "decision" is something spread out over several seconds, usually. Even minutes in some cases. That spread of time might involve several instantaneous moments of brain cell activity, or single individual moments which each had its own brain cell action, which is added to others, at the next moment, and the next, and so on. So the whole sequence of brain actions, spread over several seconds, is what really constitutes the "decision" or choice or option selected. And the conscious awareness of this selecting is a necessary part of this process, which altogether is the free will, or the conscious will making a choice.


The latter is a consequence of the former condition, and therefore . . .

"latter" = conscious will

"former" = decision-making process / neural circuitry (connectivity) / neural information processing

Yes, but the conscious will is triggered so that it becomes a new piece in the process, and this is followed by still more neural circuitry & processing etc., so that the "latter" and "former" get changed or intermixed, or are added to cause still more processing later (seconds later), so that the neuron activity is not a one-time instantaneous moment at the earlier point only. Rather there is new neural activity again, at later points, so that the real selecting process, when completed, is drawn out over several seconds rather than being just a one-time instantaneous moment with no conscious input. Each new neural activity triggers new conscious activity, which in turn triggers new neural activity -- ultimately adding up to the overall choosing act.

. . . and therefore cannot be described as being 'free' under . . .

But it's the whole process which is "free" or the "free will" or the "conscious will" performing the selection. It's not just one conscious act at one instantaneous moment, or one neural act at that instant minus anything further. The whole process is the "free" act of the will, not a single micro-second action happening in an instantaneous fraction of a second.

. . . cannot be described as being 'free" under any circumstances.

So, what can be described as "free"? under what circumstances?

By this logic, nothing, because anything that ever happens, or anything that ever appears to do something, can never be a "free" happening or a "free" act by a "free" agent. So the word "free" has no meaning, because nothing in life can really be "free" -- not even in a legal sense or any practical sense for any purpose. Including in business. All our business language, and all our language about laws and enforcement of laws, and about resolving conflicts, going to war, or settling disputes and agreeing to peace terms, etc. -- all of this language and speech is false and illusionary, based totally on our false belief that we freely make decisions and plans, which we do not do.

Even our posts in this message board are all based on illusory notions that we can make decisions and judgments and draw conclusions and hold theories about what is true and what is false -- which we cannot do, because in reality we are incapable of making any judgments or decisions about anything. We only IMAGINE we can do these things.

When your theory requires that a particular word or idea in common usage has to be eliminated from our thinking, and our whole speech and thinking and communicating experience is delusionary because it can never be true the way we assume it is, because it's all delusional and imaginary and disproved by brain science, then probably it's your theory which needs correcting, not the particular word or idea. You cannot show that "free will" is any more "wrong" than all the other ideas and forms of speech we commonly use. Your analysis of "free will" could be applied to what we believe are "decisions" and "judgments" and "opinions" we hold, because these too "cannot be described as being" decisions or judgments or opinions "under any circumstances," after you've described what causes these in the thinking process.

Probably the word "decision" has no real meaning, because no one ever really "decides" anything, as we imagine when we speak of someone making decisions. So all our speech about people in power or people building or creating something or planning something, etc., is incorrect speech and has to be eliminated, along with ideas about "free" acts.

Also "self" has no meaning and is delusional, and so all uses of this word in literature and in law have to be eliminated. Notions of "happiness" and "anger" and "love" and "hate" etc. are all delusional and must be eliminated. None of these can be shown to have any reality according to any scientific observation or analysis. Also notions of "slavery" are the same as "free" (the opposite of something meaningless has to also be meaningless) and so everything in history and law relating to "slavery" is delusional and has to be expunged from the language.

On the other hand, if you say, "Oh no, we can still have these words in the literature and language even though the ideas are meaningless or delusional," then what is the point of saying they don't really exist or are delusional or false as we understand them? If the ideas and words are false, how can it be proper to speak of them as though they are real? What is the point of saying the "free will" is not real but still we must keep on speaking of it as though it is real?

If you say none of our acts are "free" and yet we must pretend that they are free, for some purpose, and speak of them as "free" even though they are not, then how much else in life is unreal even though we must pretend that it's real?

Everything you've said about "free will" being unreal, or not really there, can be resolved by just recognizing that it's more COMPLICATED than we make it in our normal speech, like virtually everything ends up being more complicated if you pick it apart and dissect it into all its tiny components. So it's more complicated -- that doesn't make it unreal, or not really there, or a false belief we have that it exists when it really does not.

All you've shown is that it can be understood as extra complicated when it's dissected and analyzed into its components. Not that there's anything unreal about it or that our common understanding of it is "wrong" or incorrect or false or delusional. Maybe you can turn up something surprising or shocking about it, but that still doesn't make it unreal, or our belief about it "wrong" or incorrect.
 
If then.

Evidence?

Really?

One an center on one because one is presuming one originates and find 'exceptions' until one realizes one is determined up front.

Assuming this means "one realizes one's choice was determined prior to realizing it" --

Even so, the realization of this earlier determination in some cases does change the final choice. The whole decision-making process -- free will -- includes the later realization, or consciousness of the choice, regardless of an instantaneous earlier brain cell activity also causing the choice. The later consciousness is a necessary part of the decision-making even if it comes an instant after an earlier part.


Choice cannot be an option and not break natural law.

Yes it can be. It can be a product of natural law. Even if it is driven entirely by natural law, that doesn't negate the choice or option. Knowing what CAUSED our choice doesn't mean we did not make a choice.

As soon as you know this -- or discover this cause -- you might overrule it, or "change your mind" about the earlier part of the process and choose differently than "natural law" earlier drove you. And even if this new choice itself also is driven by "natural law" now, maybe that too could be reversed later by a new discovery of this cause, and so on.

So the decision-making, or free will, is not a one-time-at-one-instant micro-micro-second instant-point-in-time selection, but sometimes a longer drawn-out process, maybe many seconds in length, even more than one minute -- this time span is shorter or longer depending on each case.

When one settles on a choice it is to explain what the being has already done. Self and free will are convenient illusions to explain away behavior the being is already performing so current modeling of behavior going forward can continue.

We are conscious. Being so there needs be a theater continuously set up so models for behaviors already in progress maintaining an illusion of self otherwise there could not be model building for other behaviors since taking.

We ae aware of what we've done. It's just that we are so shortly after the behavior has been executed.

Obviously if its will it's will history at best.
 
When one settles on a choice it is to explain what the being has already done. Self and free will are convenient illusions to explain away behavior the being is already performing so current modeling of behavior going forward can continue.

That is called self delusion.

Self and free will are experienced. They are vital for survival. The brain does not have a mind that knows the tiger is there. The one mind knows it. The person, not the brain, knows it. The brain has no idea what that mind is experiencing. The brain is one level removed from experience. It creates that which experiences.

Anything else is conjecture.

And conjecture from wild guesses about invisible events is folly.
 
When one settles on a choice it is to explain what the being has already done. Self and free will are convenient illusions to explain away behavior the being is already performing so current modeling of behavior going forward can continue.

That is called self delusion.

Self and free will are experienced. They are vital for survival. The brain does not have a mind that knows the tiger is there. The one mind knows it. The person, not the brain, knows it. The brain has no idea what that mind is experiencing. The brain is one level removed from experience. It creates that which experiences.

Anything else is conjecture.

And conjecture from wild guesses about invisible events is folly.

Ah. Yet another declaration from a model foreign from even rational sources.

Show us a bit of research supporting your proclamations. I'm pretty sure you'll find that such as you proselytize come from ramblings of psychiatrists from the early 20th century about unhealthy psyche.
 
So "the decision making process itself is determined by" the neurons etc. -- OK, but this process itself is the conscious will, or the conscious awareness of the process happening, or the selecting going on, which is accompanied by the consciousness happening (maybe a second later) which is aware of the process of selecting (which maybe happened a half-second earlier). So this selecting process being described here is the "free will" or "conscious will" making choices -- it is the selecting plus the awareness of it in 8the consciousness. The text here is saying that this is NOT DETERMINED by an act of conscious will -- but that's redundant, because it's obvious that the conscious will does not determine itself. The selecting going on, and the consciousness of it, is the free will or the conscious will, and so obviously it does not determine itself.

It's OK to claim you've identified the process, or the brain cell activity going on, i.e., the choosing acts of the brain, perhaps happening an instant before the consciousness kicks in. But none of that means there isn't any free will or conscious will. Rather, it's just a description of the free will, or the consciousness happening as the selecting process is going on, so the conscious awareness knows it -- and when this awareness happens there also happens an assessment of the selecting and possibly a new process of changing what was selected. That new process might reverse the earlier choice, so that the ultimate selecting is not necessarily fixed into one instantaneous neuron activity, earlier, but a longer-term process involving that first neuron activity plus possibly some additional neuron activity added to it a second later, or even 2 or 3 seconds, or in some cases much longer.

It's OK to say that the "free will" did not determine this process from the beginning, because this process is itself part of the free will, or conscious will, and so it cannot determine itself. Something determines the whole thing, probably, which doesn't matter. There's no reason why the conscious will cannot be "determined" by something. This whole selecting process going on is the free will, and includes the conscious awareness along with the selecting of an option, regardless whether the actual selection might have happened an instant earlier than the conscious awareness. It's still the case that this conscious awareness might then add some further element into the process which still changes the particular selection, or the option to be selected.

It's not the case that the selection is made at a fixed instantaneous point beyond which there is no further change. The real selection act is usually a longer process than a single micro-second instant of activity. A real "decision" is something spread out over several seconds, usually. Even minutes in some cases. That spread of time might involve several instantaneous moments of brain cell activity, or single individual moments which each had its own brain cell action, which is added to others, at the next moment, and the next, and so on. So the whole sequence of brain actions, spread over several seconds, is what really constitutes the "decision" or choice or option selected. And the conscious awareness of this selecting is a necessary part of this process, which altogether is the free will, or the conscious will making a choice.




"latter" = conscious will

"former" = decision-making process / neural circuitry (connectivity) / neural information processing

Yes, but the conscious will is triggered so that it becomes a new piece in the process, and this is followed by still more neural circuitry & processing etc., so that the "latter" and "former" get changed or intermixed, or are added to cause still more processing later (seconds later), so that the neuron activity is not a one-time instantaneous moment at the earlier point only. Rather there is new neural activity again, at later points, so that the real selecting process, when completed, is drawn out over several seconds rather than being just a one-time instantaneous moment with no conscious input. Each new neural activity triggers new conscious activity, which in turn triggers new neural activity -- ultimately adding up to the overall choosing act.

. . . and therefore cannot be described as being 'free' under . . .

But it's the whole process which is "free" or the "free will" or the "conscious will" performing the selection. It's not just one conscious act at one instantaneous moment, or one neural act at that instant minus anything further. The whole process is the "free" act of the will, not a single micro-second action happening in an instantaneous fraction of a second.

. . . cannot be described as being 'free" under any circumstances.

So, what can be described as "free"? under what circumstances?

By this logic, nothing, because anything that ever happens, or anything that ever appears to do something, can never be a "free" happening or a "free" act by a "free" agent. So the word "free" has no meaning, because nothing in life can really be "free" -- not even in a legal sense or any practical sense for any purpose. Including in business. All our business language, and all our language about laws and enforcement of laws, and about resolving conflicts, going to war, or settling disputes and agreeing to peace terms, etc. -- all of this language and speech is false and illusionary, based totally on our false belief that we freely make decisions and plans, which we do not do.

Even our posts in this message board are all based on illusory notions that we can make decisions and judgments and draw conclusions and hold theories about what is true and what is false -- which we cannot do, because in reality we are incapable of making any judgments or decisions about anything. We only IMAGINE we can do these things.

When your theory requires that a particular word or idea in common usage has to be eliminated from our thinking, and our whole speech and thinking and communicating experience is delusionary because it can never be true the way we assume it is, because it's all delusional and imaginary and disproved by brain science, then probably it's your theory which needs correcting, not the particular word or idea. You cannot show that "free will" is any more "wrong" than all the other ideas and forms of speech we commonly use. Your analysis of "free will" could be applied to what we believe are "decisions" and "judgments" and "opinions" we hold, because these too "cannot be described as being" decisions or judgments or opinions "under any circumstances," after you've described what causes these in the thinking process.

Probably the word "decision" has no real meaning, because no one ever really "decides" anything, as we imagine when we speak of someone making decisions. So all our speech about people in power or people building or creating something or planning something, etc., is incorrect speech and has to be eliminated, along with ideas about "free" acts.

Also "self" has no meaning and is delusional, and so all uses of this word in literature and in law have to be eliminated. Notions of "happiness" and "anger" and "love" and "hate" etc. are all delusional and must be eliminated. None of these can be shown to have any reality according to any scientific observation or analysis. Also notions of "slavery" are the same as "free" (the opposite of something meaningless has to also be meaningless) and so everything in history and law relating to "slavery" is delusional and has to be expunged from the language.

On the other hand, if you say, "Oh no, we can still have these words in the literature and language even though the ideas are meaningless or delusional," then what is the point of saying they don't really exist or are delusional or false as we understand them? If the ideas and words are false, how can it be proper to speak of them as though they are real? What is the point of saying the "free will" is not real but still we must keep on speaking of it as though it is real?

If you say none of our acts are "free" and yet we must pretend that they are free, for some purpose, and speak of them as "free" even though they are not, then how much else in life is unreal even though we must pretend that it's real?

Everything you've said about "free will" being unreal, or not really there, can be resolved by just recognizing that it's more COMPLICATED than we make it in our normal speech, like virtually everything ends up being more complicated if you pick it apart and dissect it into all its tiny components. So it's more complicated -- that doesn't make it unreal, or not really there, or a false belief we have that it exists when it really does not.

All you've shown is that it can be understood as extra complicated when it's dissected and analyzed into its components. Not that there's anything unreal about it or that our common understanding of it is "wrong" or incorrect or false or delusional. Maybe you can turn up something surprising or shocking about it, but that still doesn't make it unreal, or our belief about it "wrong" or incorrect.

I don't have time to trawl through walls of text, sorry. It would help if you can keep it brief, relevant and to the point.
 
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