untermensche
Contributor
Argument from logic.The scenario of concern is the one saying time passed somehow before the big bang.
The idea of time extending infinitely into the past makes no sense.
Argument from ignorance.
It makes no logical sense.
Argument from logic.The scenario of concern is the one saying time passed somehow before the big bang.
The idea of time extending infinitely into the past makes no sense.
Argument from ignorance.
Argument from logic.Argument from ignorance.
It makes no logical sense.
But that assumes a starting point, right?What assumptions am I am making that you think could change? We know what an hour is. We know that if there are infinite hours we will never reach the end of them.But this must be based on certain assumptions. These assumptions must assume certain theories will hold indefinitely. And these theories are based on abstract models. So your logic can be perfectly sound if you make the right postulates.
Logic is logic.Argument from logic.
It makes no logical sense.
To you.
To experts it does. Now. As a number of possibilities. Which I outlined.
Of course it is mind boggling. A particle moving backward in time is an anti-particle. A photon 'sees' future space ahead of it with wave-like vision to determine its path. Density of the gravity field affects time. Only effects time as seen from outside. At all times time passes locally such that the speed of light is constant.
What rate do the clocks on GPS sats go at? We count the clicks and the count disagrees with ours.
Two synchronized atomic clocks, A and B are on a table. One is moved an inch and then back. It has aged very slightly less yet both experience time passing at the same rate. The only rate. The one that makes light go c.
That's the idea behind the concept of infinite regress. Time has no beginning. It extends into the past for an infinitely long period of time.But that assumes a starting point, right?What assumptions am I am making that you think could change? We know what an hour is. We know that if there are infinite hours we will never reach the end of them.
To count an infinite amount of days or years or eons before yesterday, we'd have to start somewhere.
But doesn't the very idea of infinite regress assume there's no starting point?
Logic is logic.To you.
To experts it does. Now. As a number of possibilities. Which I outlined.
Of course it is mind boggling. A particle moving backward in time is an anti-particle. A photon 'sees' future space ahead of it with wave-like vision to determine its path. Density of the gravity field affects time. Only effects time as seen from outside. At all times time passes locally such that the speed of light is constant.
What rate do the clocks on GPS sats go at? We count the clicks and the count disagrees with ours.
Two synchronized atomic clocks, A and B are on a table. One is moved an inch and then back. It has aged very slightly less yet both experience time passing at the same rate. The only rate. The one that makes light go c.
Physicists don't have a special logic. They have ordinary logic like the rest of us.
And ordinary logic says that the concept of infinite time extending into the past is a contradiction. If infinite time must pass before yesterday arrives then yesterday will never arrive.
I don't see how the model escapes the logic?Logic is logic.
Physicists don't have a special logic. They have ordinary logic like the rest of us.
And ordinary logic says that the concept of infinite time extending into the past is a contradiction. If infinite time must pass before yesterday arrives then yesterday will never arrive.
The character of negative time in the Carroll-Chen proposal is to see that it works if time works the same but in the opposite direction. Start at Planck time 1... Expand both ways.
But if we have infinite time for days to pass before yesterday, than an infinite number of days passing is not a problem. It's only a problem if we have two boundaries, yesterday and a start.That's the idea behind the concept of infinite regress. Time has no beginning. It extends into the past for an infinitely long period of time.But that assumes a starting point, right?
To count an infinite amount of days or years or eons before yesterday, we'd have to start somewhere.
But doesn't the very idea of infinite regress assume there's no starting point?
But as I've said this idea makes no sense. If infinite time must pass before yesterday occurs then yesterday will not occur.
No one said it was.Models are created so that most people could understand them if they were inclined to do so. For many it would require taking a lot of math classes first.Models are written for people who use them. Try to find a physicist who would be confused by that equation. And likely over 90% of the people who had never taken physics wouldn't know what the hell to do with it even if the equation was explained to them.
Understanding a model is no act of genius.
When does an infinite amount of time pass?But if we have infinite time for days to pass before yesterday, than an infinite number of days passing is not a problem. It's only a problem if we have two boundaries, yesterday and a start.That's the idea behind the concept of infinite regress. Time has no beginning. It extends into the past for an infinitely long period of time.
But as I've said this idea makes no sense. If infinite time must pass before yesterday occurs then yesterday will not occur.
If there's no start, then the yesterday deadline isn't any different than a deadline that's infinite days in the future.
Any variable in a model needs a very specific definition.No one said it was.Models are created so that most people could understand them if they were inclined to do so. For many it would require taking a lot of math classes first.
Understanding a model is no act of genius.
Mathematics is the language of physics. Physics models are written in that language but of course physics has many standard "words" like c for time m for mass F for force, etc. The models don't need translating into common language for a physicist because they understand the language of the model. The models themselves are the description.
So yes, you are right. Anyone can understand them if they learn enough physics and math. But if they don't learn the physics and math then a translation of the model from the math into common language would not really help them really understand. For example, almost everyone thinks they know Einstein's equivalence of energy and mass because they have heard it explained for years. If you tell the average person that you have something that has a gram of mass and ask them what that equation specifically tells them about it, all you will get is a blank stare.
If it's infinite in the past and infinite in the future, then at any point in time, an infinite amount of time has passed, and an infinite amount remains to pass.When does an infinite amount of time pass?
Well, if the theory is that the past is infinite, it would be part of the theory, that it has passed.How can we say an infinite amount of time has already passed?
Any variable in a model needs a very specific definition.No one said it was.
Mathematics is the language of physics. Physics models are written in that language but of course physics has many standard "words" like c for time m for mass F for force, etc. The models don't need translating into common language for a physicist because they understand the language of the model. The models themselves are the description.
So yes, you are right. Anyone can understand them if they learn enough physics and math. But if they don't learn the physics and math then a translation of the model from the math into common language would not really help them really understand. For example, almost everyone thinks they know Einstein's equivalence of energy and mass because they have heard it explained for years. If you tell the average person that you have something that has a gram of mass and ask them what that equation specifically tells them about it, all you will get is a blank stare.
Just because working physicists already know the definitions doesn't mean they aren't necessary.
I think it would be better to say that the formula has been quoted at us for years upon years. 'Like I explained. Einstein's mass/energy equivalence formula has been explained to the general public for years.
You're right. But more accurately, may be to say that the formula has been translated from the math/physics into common language.I think it would be better to say that the formula has been quoted at us for years upon years. 'Like I explained. Einstein's mass/energy equivalence formula has been explained to the general public for years.
So if infinite time exists in the past it exists in the past?If it's infinite in the past and infinite in the future, then at any point in time, an infinite amount of time has passed.
If your theory says it is logical for there to have been infinite time that has already passed that theory is mistaken. It is not a logical proposition.Well, if the theory is that the past is infinite, it would be part of the theory, that it has passed.
WTF?WTF?Any variable in a model needs a very specific definition.
Just because working physicists already know the definitions doesn't mean they aren't necessary.
That is what I said. You need to know the language for the model to be meaningful. The "language" is the specific definitions. To understand a model you need to first know the physics and math. Explaining it to someone who doesn't know either means nothing to them.
Like I explained. Einstein's mass/energy equivalence formula has been explained to the general public for years. Tell the average person that you have a wad of used chewing gum that has exactly one gram of mass and ask them what that equation specifically tells them about it.
It's no worse than your objection that we can't have had an infinite past, because there wouldn't have been enough time to have an infinite past.So if infinite time exists in the past it exists in the past?
You must see how this is not much of an argument.
I don't think the assumptions in your logical analysis of the theory apply, though.If your theory says it is logical for there to have been infinite time that has already passed that theory is mistaken. It is not a logical proposition.
You are stuck on replaying your ignorance about models. Most models are nothing but a single equation (as I have not only explained to you several times but showed you with examples). That equation is written in math/physics which is in itself a definition. Nothing else is necessary for someone who understands the language.WTF?WTF?
That is what I said. You need to know the language for the model to be meaningful. The "language" is the specific definitions. To understand a model you need to first know the physics and math. Explaining it to someone who doesn't know either means nothing to them.
Like I explained. Einstein's mass/energy equivalence formula has been explained to the general public for years. Tell the average person that you have a wad of used chewing gum that has exactly one gram of mass and ask them what that equation specifically tells them about it.
The "language" of the model is not only the math.
Simply having a formula is not a model.
That's the idea behind the concept of infinite regress. Time has no beginning. It extends into the past for an infinitely long period of time.But that assumes a starting point, right?
To count an infinite amount of days or years or eons before yesterday, we'd have to start somewhere.
But doesn't the very idea of infinite regress assume there's no starting point?
But as I've said this idea makes no sense. If infinite time must pass before yesterday occurs then yesterday will not occur.