untermensche
Contributor
Logic says that the claim of infinite time in the past is a contradiction.
Since the past ends at "now", a claim of infinite time in the past is a claim of an infinite series that ends.
If somebody wants to claim an infinite series can have an end they need to produce one.
Why can't the claimers of an infinite series that ends ever seem to be able to produce one that does?
I did. The negative Integers. Your dismissal of this was notable for its absurdity; If you want to claim that the negative integers start at -1 and are infinite (and I agree that that that is one valid way to look at them), then time can equally, and for the same reasons, be said to start now, and stretch back in time WITHOUT END. Time stretching back without end is exactly the same as time stretching forward without beginning.
You're simply ignorant if you think the negative integers are defined as starting from infinity, whatever that means, and ending at negative one.
They are defined as starting from negative one and infinitely extending away from the defined point.
You should be ashamed to even suggest otherwise. It really shows a lack of understanding.