ryan
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I'll try to explain in as non-mathematical way as possible:Okay, but that only begs the question of why order matters with an infinite number of subsets.
When you have a finite set and you remove one element, the resulting set is smaller. If you repeat this often enough, you will eventually get to the empty set. The number of times you have to repeat this is the size of the set. And it doesn't matter in which order you remove elements, you will still end up with the empty set after the same number of steps.
If two finite sets have the same number of elements, then forming a 121C between them is equivalent to removing entries from each set one at a time until they are both empty. If they both end up empty at the same time then they were the same size. If one runs out before the other then it was a smaller set. But because it doesn't matter in which order you remove entries from either set, you can form 121C's between them any way you like.
Infinite sets behave differently. If you remove one element from an infinite set, you are still left with an infinite set [Simple proof: Assume not. If the resulting set is finite of size n, then adding back the element you removed will result in a set of size n+1. i.e. a finite set]. If you remove an infinite number of elements at once, you might be left with an infinite set, or you might be left with a finite set [eg From {1,2,3,4...} remove all the even numbers, and you are left with the infinite set {1,3,5...}; but remove the set of numbers bigger than 3 and you are left with {1,2,3}]. So when you are forming 121C's between two infinite sets you can't just take one entry at a time from each set willy-nilly and continue until you both sets are empty, because they will never be empty. So instead you need some way to remove an infinite number of elements in one go from each set. But because removing an infinite number of elements can have very different effects you end up with the problem that it matters precisely how you try to form a 121C as to whether you succeed or not.
It still doesn't seem like a legitimate 121C. If all naturals in the set of only naturals corresponds to all of the naturals in the set of all integers, you seem to be saying that we are left with negative integers with no match, okay. But, then how is that 121C if the correspondence of the set of naturals is totally used up. Aleph 0 has been exhausted by the naturals. Aleph 0 naturals was not enough to match aleph 0 integers; how is that 121C?
Infinite sets contains infinite subsets.
That means that you can map the entire set to one of its subsets.
Do you realize what that means?
An example:
You can map all natural number to the the subset containing only the even natural numbers by using the mapping x-> 2x.
In your own wording:
"Aleph 0 has been exhausted by a subset of itself. Aleph 0 naturals was not enough to match aleph 0 even naturals".
Ponder this.
Yes, that has been mentioned several times. But it doesn't explain how all integers are 121C with all naturals. The negative integers are left!
And Cantor's argument also seems to exhaust aleph 0, but for reasons I have yet to understand, we can't squeeze them into aleph 0.