Jimmy Higgins
Contributor
- Joined
- Jan 31, 2001
- Messages
- 50,229
- Basic Beliefs
- Calvinistic Atheist
Court Ruling
This seems like an odd ruling. I feel like I'm siding with Breyer who ruled to allow the referendum. But the majority of the justices voting to allow this seem to do so with either outdated or inaccurate reasons.
Scalia and Thomas run the pre-50's argument that if it wasn't intended to be discrimination, it is legal, even if it leads to discrimination. This argument seems to be ridiculous. This shit was what led to Crow. Separate but equal?!
Alito, Roberts, Kennedy are saying the appeals court simply didn't have standing to reverse a popular vote and don't speak to the issue at hand. Is that even legit? This US Supreme Court overruled a 1912 referendum passed in Montana restricting campaign financing to reduce corruption in elections. So clearly the Supreme Court can reverse a popular vote, so there is no mythical popular vote litmus test that must be passed first.
What seems to be the argument from Breyer is that this is legal because the amendment isn't restricting rights, but rather restricting special assessments, so a popular vote is legitimate.
Sotomayor and Ginsburg say that the policy is still needed so it should be over-ruled, which I'm not comfortable in agreeing with.
Please correct any assessment I may be mistaken with.
This seems like an odd ruling. I feel like I'm siding with Breyer who ruled to allow the referendum. But the majority of the justices voting to allow this seem to do so with either outdated or inaccurate reasons.
Scalia and Thomas run the pre-50's argument that if it wasn't intended to be discrimination, it is legal, even if it leads to discrimination. This argument seems to be ridiculous. This shit was what led to Crow. Separate but equal?!
Alito, Roberts, Kennedy are saying the appeals court simply didn't have standing to reverse a popular vote and don't speak to the issue at hand. Is that even legit? This US Supreme Court overruled a 1912 referendum passed in Montana restricting campaign financing to reduce corruption in elections. So clearly the Supreme Court can reverse a popular vote, so there is no mythical popular vote litmus test that must be passed first.
What seems to be the argument from Breyer is that this is legal because the amendment isn't restricting rights, but rather restricting special assessments, so a popular vote is legitimate.
Sotomayor and Ginsburg say that the policy is still needed so it should be over-ruled, which I'm not comfortable in agreeing with.
Please correct any assessment I may be mistaken with.