Horatio Parker
Veteran Member
So, to you, if the private sector is losing wealth due to sectoral balances, it's irrevelant.
Begs the question: what is relevant?
Your blindness is amazing.
The problem is that you continue to equate "wealth" with "currency".
Maybe this will help. The same idea stated in the context of horizontal/vertical transactions:
Despite the indirect influence of non-government activity, including private credit creation, on the budget outcome, there is an important sense in which vertical transactions are key to the determination of the level of net financial assets. The key point is this: only the government can enable a change in net financial assets alongside stable income. If the non-government attempts to alter its net financial assets through its own actions, it can only do so in ways that cause income adjustments.
Suppose there is unemployment. This is evidence of a non-government desire for a higher level of net financial assets than is consistent with full employment given the government’s current fiscal policy settings. The non-government is powerless to realize this level of net saving alongside full employment through its own actions.
If the non-government attempts to increase its saving ratio, for instance, this will weaken demand and cause falling income unless the government counters the effect with greater deficit spending. Similarly, if capitalists cut back private investment, this will once again only increase non-government net saving in a way that causes negative income adjustments unless the effect is offset by deficit spending. So the consequence of non-government attempts to increase net saving are negative income adjustments.