Don2 (Don1 Revised)
Contributor
HE said they were married. Like, he told others that they were?
Why wouldn't he? They were common-law married.
HE said they were married. Like, he told others that they were?
There is no good reason to suspect what you attribute to your opponents. And the same goes for many of the 'all lives matter' claims by the way. Demonizing those who don't agree with your ideology is probably good for you (as you are celebrated in your group, and avoid being ostracized) but it's still not based on reality.
It's not a demonization. All lives matter was created as a counter to black lives matter. That's the subtext. It's factual to say this. That doesn't mean they are all evil demons, but it does mean that the concern for all lives mattering is much less than it is purported to be.
Some money is warranted here--note that she gave up her job for him.
This is a strange narrative to me. What makes you think she 'gave up' something, let alone gave it up for him?
For an alternative perspective: if I found a man whose monthly income was more than my annual income, and who lavished me with gifts and holidays and spending money and paid off my mortgage, it would not be a 'sacrifice' for me to stop working, any more than it would be a 'sacrifice' for me to give up working if I won Powerball.
It's not clear to me what work she did before she left the labour market. But most normies don't like work, and they'd be idle if they could.
Since he did ask her to marry him, he did tacitly agree to marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.Apparently he self-identified as married on multiple occasions, and the court agreed that was the appropriate term.
At least going by the OP article, that does not seem to have been decisive in the eyes of the court. But even if it was, the fact that he would say they were married does not imply he agreed to a marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.
Because to say so, publicly, is to assert consent to the common law treatment. Then it IS a legal marriage, in addition to an "ethical" marriage
If he did so, he proposed a contract like that, but that is not the same as agreeing to the burden without the benefits. In other words, if he proposes a contract and the other party says no, he's not agreed to the burden.Since he did ask her to marry him, he did tacitly agree to marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.Apparently he self-identified as married on multiple occasions, and the court agreed that was the appropriate term.
At least going by the OP article, that does not seem to have been decisive in the eyes of the court. But even if it was, the fact that he would say they were married does not imply he agreed to a marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.
Since it looks like he got the benefits any way, and since he did represent as being married, it appears your analysis is faulty.If he did so, he proposed a contract like that, but that is not the same as agreeing to the burden without the benefits. In other words, if he proposes a contract and the other party says no, he's not agreed to the burden.Since he did ask her to marry him, he did tacitly agree to marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.
Since he did ask her to marry him, he did tacitly agree to marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.Apparently he self-identified as married on multiple occasions, and the court agreed that was the appropriate term.
At least going by the OP article, that does not seem to have been decisive in the eyes of the court. But even if it was, the fact that he would say they were married does not imply he agreed to a marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.
If he proposed but his proposal was rejected, then his partner did not agree to giving the benefits that come with the contract, and neither did he. Look at this from the opposite perspective: Let us say he proposed, but she said 'no'. Then, she clearly did not agree to the stipulations of a marriage, and if she were to sue her, she would rightfully say that she did not agree. So, in short, if the events are as speculated, then she did not agree to the burden of a marriage on her side, and as far as one can tell, he did not agree, either, as his proposal was an offer of a contract with a burden for each side, and the other side turned it down.Since it looks like he got the benefits any way, and since he did represent as being married, it appears your analysis is faulty.If he did so, he proposed a contract like that, but that is not the same as agreeing to the burden without the benefits. In other words, if he proposes a contract and the other party says no, he's not agreed to the burden.Since he did ask her to marry him, he did tacitly agree to marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.
Since he did ask her to marry him, he did tacitly agree to marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.
Reality: He offered marriage with a pre-nup that would have avoided this. Exactly the opposite of what you claim.
If you forget about the common-law part (which I did), you have a point.Since he did ask her to marry him, he did tacitly agree to marriage in which he would legally be forced to pay if they break up.
Reality: He offered marriage with a pre-nup that would have avoided this. Exactly the opposite of what you claim.
If he proposed then clearly he was tacitly agreeing to the terms and condition of marriage because that agreement is part of the proposal.If he proposed but his proposal was rejected, then his partner did not agree to giving the benefits that come with the contract, and neither did he.Since it looks like he got the benefits any way, and since he did represent as being married, it appears your analysis is faulty.
If he proposed then clearly he was tacitly agreeing to the terms and condition of marriage because that agreement is part of the proposal.
The response is irrelevant to the issue of the PROPOSER'S willingness to accept the terms and conditions of marriage.I love that. Later today, I'm going to propose to Oprah Winfrey. I'm gonna be so loaded. Seriously dude, what you're saying there is that it doesn't matter whether a woman says yes or not.
Disagree with what? If you want to propose to Oprah Winfrey, go ahead. All that would mean if you were serious, is that YOU were willing accept the terms and conditions of marriage. It says nothing about Ms. Winfrey's willingness - which is irrelevant to the issue of your willingness.Although I feel sure you'll find a way to disagree with that. What I say is, go you.
If he proposed then clearly he was tacitly agreeing to the terms and condition of marriage because that agreement is part of the proposal.If he proposed but his proposal was rejected, then his partner did not agree to giving the benefits that come with the contract, and neither did he.Since it looks like he got the benefits any way, and since he did represent as being married, it appears your analysis is faulty.
If he proposed then clearly he was tacitly agreeing to the terms and condition of marriage because that agreement is part of the proposal.If he proposed but his proposal was rejected, then his partner did not agree to giving the benefits that come with the contract, and neither did he.Since it looks like he got the benefits any way, and since he did represent as being married, it appears your analysis is faulty.
If he proposed then clearly he was tacitly agreeing to the terms and condition of marriage because that agreement is part of the proposal.
No, that is not it. If A offers B to sign a contract whereby A does X and B does Y, but B says 'no', it is not the case that A agreed to do X. A had only agreed to X conditioned to B agreeing to Y, which B did not.
In this case, it seems (if the account is correct) he did not even do that, as his proposal had a pre-nupcial that precluded some of the obligations in question.
I thought the article said she merely maintained a different home than the one she stayed with him at.
Also, since they were common law married because they were saying they were married after living together for N years,
why does that mean he shouldn't be legally obligated to the laws of the land that he agreed to through social compact?