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Corporations are People?

Are corporations "people" and entitled to 1st Amendment Rights?

  • Yes, corporations are people.

    Votes: 2 11.8%
  • No, corporations are not people.

    Votes: 15 88.2%

  • Total voters
    17
Political Free Speech is NOT a Threat.

no one said “the ACLU has no rights.”
Your "not people" slogan (which you can't explain) says they have no 1st Amendment rights because they're a corporation and all corporations have no 1st Amendment rights -- you've repeated over and over. Instead of telling us what you did not say, why don't you explain what you did say, which is that corporations should not and do not have free-speech rights. And so why doesn't that apply to a corporation like the ACLU? You can't give a straightforward answer to that?

Here’s the clean line, people are people; a corporation is a state-created vehicle.
It's no more "state-created" than a naturalized citizen is created by the state, granting to him/her "citizenship" status. Or than a traveler is created by being granted a passport to travel legally, or than a driver is created by being issued a driver's license. Or than an indigenous tribe is created by gaining legal recognition. Or than a college graduate is created by that college, or a commissioned officer is created by the Army or Navy. The gov't does not CREATE us by granting us a certain status. Recognizing the status of someone who already exists and already has importance is not to "create" them. All of us (including all groups) are "people" having the same basic 1st Amendment rights, regardless whether the gov't grants some ceremonial status or certification or recognition to make it official. Being given official acknowledgement to something you already are does not CREATE you.

You need to stop your clandestine scheming to change someone you don't like into "not people" so you can deprive them of their 1st Amendment rights and shut them up using your thugs in the FEC (or other gov't agency) to censor them or ban their propaganda. Stop looking for excuses to ban someone's political speech. The Court rightly overruled you and your thugs who banned that film back in 2008, and you're a fool to think you can deprive your political enemy of such basic rights by simply branding them as "not people" and artificial creations of the state.

Fact, its treasury exists because the state grants privileges, . . .
No, if that were true, everyone would form a corporation and acquire their windfall treasury from the state. FACT: Anyone can form a corporation (so it's not a privilege reserved for a few), and everyone would incorporate if the state granted such a "treasury" privilege to all corporations. 99% of corporations have no such "treasury" as you imagine. Stop hallucinating "treasuries" which don't exist, and pretending that they were conferred by the state on this boogeyman you wrongly label "corporations." There's no such thing. Most corporations are poor, by any reasonable measure. They were poor before they incorporated, and they remained poor after.

. . . limited liability, perpetual life, asset pooling.
No, there are ways to acquire all those without forming a corporation. I've already listed examples of non-corporate entities which also provide these: LLPs, LLCs, trusts, foundations, different kinds of partnerships, sole proprietorships. (I quoted references to these in #297 last September.) Do you also say that foundations and trusts and partnerships are "not people"? How many more kinds of group entities do you banish to the "not people" category? which perform the same functions as corporations?

No, this has nothing to do with limited liability or perpetual life etc. -- that's just your phony rhetoric to justify your hate speech against something you mislabel as "corporations" -- this hate speech is your radical Leftists' rallying cry to whip up hysteria among the mindless masses looking for a scapegoat to blame -- so you give them this "corporation" scapegoat language. You're just trying to manipulate these mindless masses by feeding them your Marxist class warfare pigslop, to strengthen your own political clique seeking more votes in order to seize power.

Therefore when that treasury is used to electioneer, the state may add guardrails, disclosure, . . .
I.e., censorship in one form or another, whatever can be used to silence and shut down voices you disagree with. But you'll choose your words carefully to hide your real ultimate intention to suppress their free speech.

. . . coordination bans, source limits . . .
yes, carefully chosen innocent-sounding words (which ultimately mean censorship and banning free speech as far as you're able to get away with it). And your power clique will provide the interpretations for applying this censorship where it's appropriate for the good of the masses, your flock, which need to be controlled and fed what you know is wholesome fodder for them.


"Trust Me"
. . . without stripping anyone’s speech.
No, never that. Just trust you and your political elite who promise to never abuse this censorship power you demand in order for the elections to be "fair" and all voices kept absolutely equal, so that the truth you know is best for us is kept pure and untainted.

But why should we trust you and your elitist election reformers? Before your 2002 election reform law was overturned by the Court, what were the "guardrails" which actually were added? A FILM WAS BANNED! Outright naked censorship and denial of free speech, despite your rhetoric that it's not that. Banning a political propaganda film is what you used your electioneering restriction power for. How much more political speech do you intend to ban once you get your electioneering communications prohibitions re-enacted?

Hate radio talk-show host Thom Hartmann wants more censorship -- he preaches everyday that someone out there (who he cannot name) needs to be banned from their propagandizing because it's unfair to Progressive candidates (of course he never says "banned" -- he knows that's politically incorrect), and so Citizens United must be overturned and tougher censorship applied to silence his political targets (he obviously never admits that it's "censorship" he intends -- but that's what it was back in 2008, and he vehemently rages against the Court decision which overturned that FEC censorship).

If you're honest that it's not to censor and ban free speech (as it was in 2008), then you'll bring yourself to acknowledge that the Citizens United decision was right, and that it should not be overturned. Do you have the honesty to make that acknowledgement? Pundit Hartmann doesn't have that honesty.

Translation, “corporations aren’t people” means we don’t turn an asset shield into a super-citizen.
No, your flowery language cannot hide the real meaning which was shown by your thugs (your political Party enforcing your "guardrails") when they banned that film. Don't pretend it means something other than the raw censorship which the Court overturned but which you're defending. When you resort to banning and censorship in fact and deed, we can see the real meaning -- we don't need your fancy language to disguise it as something heroic -- (who did you learn this manipulating rhetorical trick from? -- Trump University maybe?) If you're honest claiming that you choose free speech instead, you'll admit that the Citizens United decision overruling the FEC was the right decision, and that this should not be overturned.

A film was banned! the rest is fancy words to try to justify that free-speech suppression, and disguise it, and bring back more of the same.

Want pure member-speech? Use an opt-in, member-funded PAC: one person, one consent, no compelled subsidy.
What's that? your alternative scheme for campaign funding? The more convoluted you make it, the more likely it's just more buzzwords to mask what you really want, which is raw censorship or banning of political propaganda, like you did back in 2008.

So rather than spicing it up with more nice-sounding election reform fanciness about the most ideally pure and "fair" system which should please everyone, how about a plain-language commitment: No more censorship! (like your gang wrongly did in 2008). Add this no-nonsense qualifier: no more banning of anything -- films, books, videos, recordings. Everyone rich and poor, big and small, must be free to spend whatever they want, as much as they want, on any political propaganda of any kind, no matter what! no matter when! even in an election year. Make it straightforward in unmistakable non-tricky language -- I.e., never again may our Federal Gov't ban speech (which isn't criminal or treasonous). Especially political or controversial speech. (The 2008 FEC action against Citizens United Inc. is the first time in history that the federal gov't banned political speech. We should make sure it remains the only time.)

You really oppose "stripping" free speech from anyone? then just say it straight out, in whatever reform measure you propose -- Absolutely no censorship or banning of anything political, by a federal agency, including in an election period, including the FEC misuse of its power in 2008. This includes no prohibition of spending by someone (including any group of any kind) -- anyone rich or poor -- on their own political propaganda crusade, including a crusade to trash any candidate they think is rotten -- they're entitled to hate that candidate and try to bring him/her crashing to the ground if that's their sentiment.

Put that qualifier at the top of your election reform plan, to make it clear that it's not about censorship --no censorship can be allowed. Admit that the FEC was wrong in 2008 when it banned that film; acknowledge that this was a perversion, a distortion of true election reform, and a violation of the Constitutional protection of free speech.

Stop blurring members’ rights with the entity’s privileges.
No, it's not a privilege! It's a RIGHT for anyone, no matter who, no matter how much you hate them. It's their right to publish any political propaganda, as much as they can/want to pay for. In any form (as long as it's not a donation to a candidate's campaign). Citizens United did not eliminate the limits on donations. Be satisfied with that! and stop scheming to censor something out there being published by someone you hate. Everyone rich and poor is entitled to crusade all they want against any political power-seeker they hate. If they find a way to trash some candidate and destroy their career, SO BE IT! that's their right -- their God-given right. And you have an equal right to publish anything you want to oppose that propaganda or debunk it.

Thom Hartmann still continues daily to tell the same lies about Citizens United. He NEVER acknowledges that it was about overruling the FEC suppression of that film. He has alluded slightly to it about twice, since my survey ended weeks ago. But during that survey, which continued about 3 months, his score was above 50-0 -- 50 times mentioning the case as a ruling to grant corporations the right to bribe politicians, and never once -- ZERO times -- admitting that it was a free-speech case to protect a company from the FEC's attack on its free-speech rights under the 1st Amendment.

If he was honest, he'd acknowledge that the FEC did overstep the proper boundaries, that it did abridge the rights of that company, and that the Court's decision to overrule it was necessary, because election reform must not be something misused to impose censorship onto ANYONE, no matter how hated they might be, and no matter how popular the hate-slogan might be. Even the popular cliché "corporations are not people" ought not be used as a sleight-of-hand device to deny someone their 1st Amendment rights, as "Progressives" are now misusing it in their stampede to overturn Citizens United.

Why can't the Left be honest this once and just admit that in this case the Court was right, that the FEC did have to be overruled? Why can't a Left-winger ("Progressive") make this acknowledgement?

The ACLU has acknowledged it.

ACLU supports Citizens United ruling:
free speech for all groups (including corporations)


Google Search:
The ACLU's stance on Citizens United is complex: they supported overturning parts of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (BCRA) [2002] that limited corporate/union political speech, arguing it was core First Amendment speech, but strongly oppose the outcome of Citizens United (allowing unlimited independent spending) and any constitutional amendment to reverse it, instead advocating for public financing, disclosure, and strict coordination limits to counter "big money" influence, seeing the answer in more speech, not less.

Key ACLU Positions on Citizens United:
  • Against BCRA Restrictions: The ACLU argued that restricting electioneering communications by non-profits (like Citizens United) under BCRA [2002] was unconstitutional suppression of political speech, aligning with the Court's ruling that independent spending is protected speech.
  • Against Overturning Citizens United: Despite supporting the free speech principle, the ACLU fiercely opposes attempts to amend the Constitution to reverse the decision, viewing such amendments as dangerous limitations on the First Amendment, even impacting non-profits like themselves.
  • Solutions: More Speech, Disclosure, Public Financing: Instead of bans, the ACLU promotes public financing for campaigns to level the field, robust disclosure of political spending (to combat "dark money"), and stricter enforcement against candidate-Super PAC coordination, believing more speech, not less, is the answer.
In essence: The ACLU focuses on the principle of free speech for all groups (including corporations/unions) but champions solutions that promote transparency and broader participation, rather than government bans on political expression, viewing the decision's consequences (like increased "dark money") as negative but the amendment path as a greater threat to free speech.
 
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Your "not people" slogan (which you can't explain) says they have no 1st Amendment rights because they're a corporation and all corporations have no 1st Amendment rights -- you've repeated over and over. Instead of telling us what you did not say, why don't you explain what you did say, which is that corporations should not and do not have free-speech rights. And so why doesn't that apply to a corporation like the ACLU? You can't give a straightforward answer to that?

You’re arguing against a strawman you invented. “Corporations are not people” is shorthand for one narrow point, corporate status does not entitle an entity to the full political rights of a human voter.

Straight answer about the ACLU. The ACLU can speak. No one is trying to gag it. What it can’t demand is the same election spending freedom as a human, because a chartered entity is a state-enabled power tool, limited liability, perpetual life, and pooled capital, and the state can condition that tool to protect elections from domination and corruption.

So yes, the ACLU has speech rights. No, it is not “people.” And your binary trap is fake. The law has never worked as “either full human rights or zero rights,” and you know it.


t's no more "state-created" than a naturalized citizen is created by the state, granting to him/her "citizenship" status. Or than a traveler is created by being granted a passport to travel legally, or than a driver is created by being issued a driver's license. Or than an indigenous tribe is created by gaining legal recognition. Or than a college graduate is created by that college, or a commissioned officer is created by the Army or Navy. The gov't does not CREATE us by granting us a certain status. Recognizing the status of someone who already exists and already has importance is not to "create" them. All of us (including all groups) are "people" having the same basic 1st Amendment rights, regardless whether the gov't grants some ceremonial status or certification or recognition to make it official. Being given official acknowledgement to something you already are does not CREATE you.

You need to stop your clandestine scheming to change someone you don't like into "not people" so you can deprive them of their 1st Amendment rights and shut them up using your thugs in the FEC (or other gov't agency) to censor them or ban their propaganda. Stop looking for excuses to ban someone's political speech. The Court rightly overruled you and your thugs who banned that film back in 2008, and you're a fool to think you can deprive your political enemy of such basic rights by simply branding them as "not people" and artificial creations of the state.

You’re mixing up two totally different things. Naturalization, a passport, or a driver’s license changes the legal status of an already existing human being. Incorporation is different because it creates a new legal person that did not exist before as a separate rights and duties bearing entity. The pre existing group is real, sure, but the corporation as a distinct juridical person is the state’s product. Limited liability, perpetual life, and entity level ownership are not “ceremonial recognition.” They are legal powers the state manufactures and enforces.

And stop pretending this is about “silencing enemies.” People are not arguing that the ACLU or anyone else should be gagged. The argument is about whether a state chartered power tool should get the same election spending permissions as a human voter. That’s a democracy design question, not a free speech purity test.

Also, be accurate about the facts. The dispute was about whether federal campaign finance rules could restrict a corporation from paying for certain electioneering broadcasts close to an election. That is not the same as the federal government “banning political films” in American history. It is a narrow campaign finance restriction that the Court struck down for independent expenditures while keeping disclosure and disclaimers. So your “either full human rights or Soviet censorship” framing is a fake binary, and it’s not an argument.

No, if that were true, everyone would form a corporation and acquire their windfall treasury from the state. FACT: Anyone can form a corporation (so it's not a privilege reserved for a few), and everyone would incorporate if the state granted such a "treasury" privilege to all corporations. 99% of corporations have no such "treasury" as you imagine. Stop hallucinating "treasuries" which don't exist, and pretending that they were conferred by the state on this boogeyman you wrongly label "corporations." There's no such thing. Most corporations are poor, by any reasonable measure. They were poor before they incorporated, and they remained poor after.

Again you’re arguing against a strawman I didn’t make. “Treasury” doesn’t mean the state hands out free money. It means the corporation has its own pool of assets legally separate from the humans behind it, protected by limited liability and continuity, and that pool can be used to fund political spending even when most shareholders or employees never consented to that specific message.

And “anyone can incorporate” doesn’t erase privilege. “Open to all” doesn’t mean “equal in effect.” Anyone can form a shell company, but not everyone can concentrate billions inside one, enjoy limited liability, accumulate forever, and then deploy that money at scale in elections. The rule changes the ceiling, and only the biggest players hit the ceiling.

Finally, “most corporations are small” is irrelevant. Election rules aren’t written for the corner dry cleaner. They’re written for the entities that can realistically dominate the information environment. Pretending this is about mom and pop is just cover for the handful that actually move elections with money.

No, there are ways to acquire all those without forming a corporation. I've already listed examples of non-corporate entities which also provide these: LLPs, LLCs, trusts, foundations, different kinds of partnerships, sole proprietorships. (I quoted references to these in #297 last September.) Do you also say that foundations and trusts and partnerships are "not people"? How many more kinds of group entities do you banish to the "not people" category? which perform the same functions as corporations?

No, this has nothing to do with limited liability or perpetual life etc. -- that's just your phony rhetoric to justify your hate speech against something you mislabel as "corporations" -- this hate speech is your radical Leftists' rallying cry to whip up hysteria among the mindless masses looking for a scapegoat to blame -- so you give them this "corporation" scapegoat language. You're just trying to manipulate these mindless masses by feeding them your Marxist class warfare pigslop, to strengthen your own political clique seeking more votes in order to seize power.

You just proved my point and didn’t notice. Yes, the same logic applies to any artificial entity that exists only because the law recognizes it as a separate legal actor, whether it is a corporation, an LLC, an LLP, a foundation, or a trust. None of those things are a human being. They don’t vote. They don’t go to jail. They don’t have a conscience. They are legal tools humans use.

So when I say not people, I mean exactly that. Not natural persons. That does not mean they have zero rights. It means whatever rights they get are derivative and instrumental, granted to protect real people’s activities, and they can be conditioned when the state has created special machinery that concentrates wealth, shields liability, and lasts indefinitely.

Calling that “hate speech” is just you dodging the substance. This is not about banning speech. It is about whether the Constitution forces us to treat a state-enabled wealth container exactly like a human citizen for election spending. It doesn’t. If you want to argue otherwise, drop the insults and explain why a legal instrument must have the same political spending rights as a voter even when it exists only because the state grants it that separate legal power.

I.e., censorship in one form or another, whatever can be used to silence and shut down voices you disagree with. But you'll choose your words carefully to hide your real ultimate intention to suppress their free speech.

That’s pure mind-reading and it’s wrong.

I’m not arguing to silence anyone. I’m arguing to regulate election spending so actual citizens aren’t politically outbid by state-created money vehicles. People still speak, publish, organize, endorse, and donate within limits. The First Amendment is about protecting speakers from government punishment for speech, not guaranteeing any entity an unlimited paid megaphone in the middle of an election.

You keep trying to reframe “set rules for electioneering spending by artificial entities” as “ban ideas.” That’s a dodge. If you can’t defend unlimited election spending on the merits, you yell “censorship” and pretend the debate is over. It isn’t.

yes, carefully chosen innocent-sounding words (which ultimately mean censorship and banning free speech as far as you're able to get away with it). And your power clique will provide the interpretations for applying this censorship where it's appropriate for the good of the masses, your flock, which need to be controlled and fed what you know is wholesome fodder for them.

I’m not asking anyone to “ban speech” or decide what’s “wholesome.” I’m talking about rules on paid electioneering, the same way we already have rules on bribery, coordination, disclosure, and contribution limits. You can still say anything you want. You just don’t get an unlimited, legally-shielded corporate treasury to dominate an election because you can afford more ads.

And here’s the tell. You keep treating “money used to buy reach” as identical to “speech.” They’re not identical in practice, and the law already recognizes that by allowing limits on contributions and coordination. So drop the sermon about “power cliques” and answer the real question.

Do you believe there should be any democratic limit at all on paid electioneering influence, yes or no. If your answer is no, then own it plainly instead of pretending everyone who disagrees is secretly plotting book burnings.

No, never that. Just trust you and your political elite who promise to never abuse this censorship power you demand in order for the elections to be "fair" and all voices kept absolutely equal, so that the truth you know is best for us is kept pure and untainted.

But why should we trust you and your elitist election reformers? Before your 2002 election reform law was overturned by the Court, what were the "guardrails" which actually were added? A FILM WAS BANNED! Outright naked censorship and denial of free speech, despite your rhetoric that it's not that. Banning a political propaganda film is what you used your electioneering restriction power for. How much more political speech do you intend to ban once you get your electioneering communications prohibitions re-enacted?

Hate radio talk-show host Thom Hartmann wants more censorship -- he preaches everyday that someone out there (who he cannot name) needs to be banned from their propagandizing because it's unfair to Progressive candidates (of course he never says "banned" -- he knows that's politically incorrect), and so Citizens United must be overturned and tougher censorship applied to silence his political targets (he obviously never admits that it's "censorship" he intends -- but that's what it was back in 2008, and he vehemently rages against the Court decision which overturned that FEC censorship).

If you're honest that it's not to censor and ban free speech (as it was in 2008), then you'll bring yourself to acknowledge that the Citizens United decision was right, and that it should not be overturned. Do you have the honesty to make that acknowledgement? Pundit Hartmann doesn't have that honesty.

You’re still playing the same shell game, pretending any rule you dislike is “Soviet censorship” and anyone who disagrees is “thugs” and “elites.” That’s not an argument, it’s a meltdown.

Here are the actual facts. The law wasn’t a roving federal power to ban political books and films. It was the BCRA rule on “electioneering communications,” defined as broadcast, cable, or satellite communications naming a federal candidate inside a 30 day primary window or 60 day general window, funded from corporate or union general treasuries.

We’ve gone through this already!

And it was not “the first time in history the federal government censored political propaganda.” Federal law had regulated corporate money in federal elections for over a century, including bans on corporate contributions and later restrictions on corporate-funded electioneering and independent spending. You’re trying to rewrite history so your one movie talking point can do all the work.

Citizens United did not just “reaffirm what always existed.” It overruled Austin and part of McConnell and struck down the federal ban on corporate independent expenditures and electioneering communications, while leaving the ban on direct corporate contributions in place and upholding disclosure and disclaimers. That is a legal change, not a vibes-based “restoration.”

Your “trust the elite” rant also collapses because nobody is asking for a ministry of truth. The mainstream reform position is about limiting election spending power and strengthening transparency and anti-corruption rules, not banning ideas. You can disagree with that on principle, but stop lying about what it is.

So no, your “film was banned therefore all guardrails equal tyranny” conclusion doesn’t follow. What you actually have is one regulated distribution channel in a narrow election window under a specific statute, and a Supreme Court that chose to constitutionalize corporate independent spending. Dress it up however you want, but the record is what it is.

No, your flowery language cannot hide the real meaning which was shown by your thugs (your political Party enforcing your "guardrails") when they banned that film. Don't pretend it means something other than the raw censorship which the Court overturned but which you're defending. When you resort to banning and censorship in fact and deed, we can see the real meaning -- we don't need your fancy language to disguise it as something heroic -- (who did you learn this manipulating rhetorical trick from? -- Trump University maybe?) If you're honest claiming that you choose free speech instead, you'll admit that the Citizens United decision overruling the FEC was the right decision, and that this should not be overturned.

A film was banned! the rest is fancy words to try to justify that free-speech suppression, and disguise it, and bring back more of the same.

You’re trying to win by slogan, not by facts. The film wasn’t “banned” in the way you keep implying. The issue was a narrow, time-window restriction on using corporate treasury money to fund certain broadcast style electioneering communications right before an election, under a statute Congress passed. Citizens United could still speak in other ways and the Court still upheld disclosure and disclaimer rules. Calling that “raw censorship” is a deliberately loaded retelling.

And no, it wasn’t “my party thugs.” The FEC is a bipartisan commission enforcing federal law. You can hate the law, but pretending it was a partisan hit squad is fantasy.

Most importantly, your “if you’re honest you’ll admit the decision was right” move is just emotional blackmail. Reasonable people can oppose that restriction and still think Citizens United went too far by constitutionalizing unlimited independent expenditures from corporate treasuries. Those are separate judgments. Your movie chant doesn’t collapse the debate into a single word, and repeating “A film was banned” doesn’t make your framing correct.

What's that? your alternative scheme for campaign funding? The more convoluted you make it, the more likely it's just more buzzwords to mask what you really want, which is raw censorship or banning of political propaganda, like you did back in 2008.

So rather than spicing it up with more nice-sounding election reform fanciness about the most ideally pure and "fair" system which should please everyone, how about a plain-language commitment: No more censorship! (like your gang wrongly did in 2008). Add this no-nonsense qualifier: no more banning of anything -- films, books, videos, recordings. Everyone rich and poor, big and small, must be free to spend whatever they want, as much as they want, on any political propaganda of any kind, no matter what! no matter when! even in an election year. Make it straightforward in unmistakable non-tricky language -- I.e., never again may our Federal Gov't ban speech (which isn't criminal or treasonous). Especially political or controversial speech. (The 2008 FEC action against Citizens United Inc. is the first time in history that the federal gov't banned political speech. We should make sure it remains the only time.)

You really oppose "stripping" free speech from anyone? then just say it straight out, in whatever reform measure you propose -- Absolutely no censorship or banning of anything political, by a federal agency, including in an election period, including the FEC misuse of its power in 2008. This includes no prohibition of spending by someone (including any group of any kind) -- anyone rich or poor -- on their own political propaganda crusade, including a crusade to trash any candidate they think is rotten -- they're entitled to hate that candidate and try to bring him/her crashing to the ground if that's their sentiment.

Put that qualifier at the top of your election reform plan, to make it clear that it's not about censorship --no censorship can be allowed. Admit that the FEC was wrong in 2008 when it banned that film; acknowledge that this was a perversion, a distortion of true election reform, and a violation of the Constitutional protection of free speech.

You’re not arguing the issue anymore, you’re running a loop.

First, stop calling it the first time in history the federal government suppressed political speech. That’s flatly false. The federal government criminally punished political speech long before 2008, including under the Sedition Act of 1798 and under World War I era enforcement upheld by the Supreme Court.

Second, the thing you keep dramatizing as a “ban” was a specific statutory restriction on corporate and union treasury funded electioneering broadcasts close to an election, and the Citizens United ruling struck that restriction down. That is a change in law, not some timeless principle being “restored.”

Third, your absolutist slogan no censorship no limits ever would also wipe out contribution limits, foreign national limits, and a lot of other election law that courts have repeatedly allowed. So don’t pretend your position is just “the First Amendment as written.” It’s your personal absolutism.

Finally, you keep trying to turn “corporations are not people” into “the ACLU has no rights.” Nobody said that. The point is simpler and you keep dodging it because it’s harder to answer. A corporation is not a human being, and the state created tools that let it aggregate wealth, persist indefinitely, and deploy a treasury that is not equivalent to any one member’s voice. That’s why equal treatment in election spending is not a neutral “free speech” stance. It’s a choice to let institutional treasury power dominate individual political equality.

So here’s the end of it. You support unlimited treasury spending in elections and you’re dressing it up as “free speech.” I reject that and I’m not proposing to erase groups’ rights. Drop the Hillary movie theatrics and argue the actual rule Citizens United changed.

No, it's not a privilege! It's a RIGHT for anyone, no matter who, no matter how much you hate them. It's their right to publish any political propaganda, as much as they can/want to pay for. In any form (as long as it's not a donation to a candidate's campaign). Citizens United did not eliminate the limits on donations. Be satisfied with that! and stop scheming to censor something out there being published by someone you hate. Everyone rich and poor is entitled to crusade all they want against any political power-seeker they hate. If they find a way to trash some candidate and destroy their career, SO BE IT! that's their right -- their God-given right. And you have an equal right to publish anything you want to oppose that propaganda or debunk it.

Thom Hartmann still continues daily to tell the same lies about Citizens United. He NEVER acknowledges that it was about overruling the FEC suppression of that film. He has alluded slightly to it about twice, since my survey ended weeks ago. But during that survey, which continued about 3 months, his score was above 50-0 -- 50 times mentioning the case as a ruling to grant corporations the right to bribe politicians, and never once -- ZERO times -- admitting that it was a free-speech case to protect a company from the FEC's attack on its free-speech rights under the 1st Amendment.

If he was honest, he'd acknowledge that the FEC did overstep the proper boundaries, that it did abridge the rights of that company, and that the Court's decision to overrule it was necessary, because election reform must not be something misused to impose censorship onto ANYONE, no matter how hated they might be, and no matter how popular the hate-slogan might be. Even the popular cliché "corporations are not people" ought not be used as a sleight-of-hand device to deny someone their 1st Amendment rights, as "Progressives" are now misusing it in their stampede to overturn Citizens United.

Why can't the Left be honest this once and just admit that in this case the Court was right, that the FEC did have to be overruled? Why can't a Left-winger ("Progressive") make this acknowledgement?

The ACLU has acknowledged it.

ACLU supports Citizens United ruling:
free speech for all groups (including corporations)

You’re doing three sleights of hand at once.

First, you keep swapping the question. Nobody is debating whether people can speak. The dispute is whether the state should treat a limited liability money pooling vehicle as identical to a voter for election influence. Citizens United answered one slice of that by striking down the federal ban on corporate and union treasury spending for electioneering and independent expenditures, while keeping disclosure and disclaimer rules and leaving the ban on direct corporate contributions in place.

Second, your “first time in history” censorship claim is flat wrong. The federal government criminalized and prosecuted political criticism long before 2008, like the Sedition Act making it a crime to publish “false, scandalous, and malicious” writing against the government and prosecuting newspaper editors.

So stop pretending 2008 invented federal suppression of political speech.

Third, you’re laundering your conclusion through the ACLU. What’s true is the ACLU argued that the specific BCRA provision at issue was unconstitutional under the First Amendment.

That does not magically convert your broader demand into “anything goes forever, no regulation, no guardrails, and anyone who disagrees hates free speech.”

And the Hartmann scorekeeping is a distraction. Even if every pundit on earth described the case poorly, that wouldn’t change what the decision did or what the real argument is.

NHC
 
Political Free Speech is NOT a Threat.
Not a threat to whom? It's obviously a threat to leftists -- their primary source of power is their death-grip on the average voter's input stream. Why else would leftists be pro-censorship almost to a man?

It's no more "state-created" than a naturalized citizen is created by the state, granting to him/her "citizenship" status. ... All of us (including all groups) are "people" having the same basic 1st Amendment rights, regardless whether the gov't grants some ceremonial status or certification or recognition to make it official.
It seems to me the constant focus on whether corporations are people is a garden path it's better not to go down -- it leads only to endless disputes over the wrong question. The right question isn't "Does a law against corporate speech violate the corporation's right to speak?". That's a nonsensical formulation, like "Does the injunction against the WaPo publishing the Pentagon Papers violate their printing press's right to have newsprint soak up its ink?". Corporations don't speak any more than printing presses write. They're tools. The right question is "Does enforcing a law against corporate speech involve punishing humans for humans' speech?".

The Court rightly overruled you and your thugs who banned that film back in 2008,
I don't think it affects your overall argument, but according to what I've read the FEC never actually banned Hillary: The Movie. They banned CU from advertising it. Just as effective at suppressing it, from a political point of view. Maybe more so -- nobody got publicity for the film by being led away in handcuffs from one of the little indie-theaters that screened it for tiny word-of-mouth audiences. Meanwhile most voters never even knew the film existed until after the election was over.

Everyone rich and poor is entitled to crusade all they want against any political power-seeker they hate. If they find a way to trash some candidate and destroy their career, SO BE IT! that's their right -- their God-given right.
There's no such thing as a God; a fortiori, there's no such thing as a God-given right.

But gods' and goddesses' nonexistence aside, the whole concept of a given right isn't applicable here. "Right" isn't really even a noun; using it as one is metaphorical. "Right" is just the opposite of "wrong", the adverb, as in "wrongdoing". To say you have a right to crusade against a candidate is simply to say any person who tries to censor you is doing wrong. So how the heck is a god supposed to go about giving you the censor being a wrongdoer? What, if God instead decided he hated your ideas as much as Hartmann does he had the option of making Hartmann right? How might he have done that? How could censors possibly be rightdoers?

Normally when someone gives someone else a right it's a property right -- I give the grocer the right to deploy my dollar as she sees fit and she gives me the right to deploy her apple as I see fit. So sure, God could theoretically give me the right to demolish the Westboro Baptist Church if the legal owner stipulates that it's actually owned by God. But how could that apply to you crusading against a candidate? Censoring you isn't the sort of thing anyone owns in the first place.

In any event, surely you're aware that nearly everyone reading your words is a non-theist. So if the above arguments don't persuade you that free speech isn't a God-given right, well, you might want to consider the strategic advantage of offering secular reasons for your opinion about CU v FEC and laying off the theology. You aren't doing the cause of freedom any good by giving its opponents ammunition for their conviction that valuing their outgroups' freedom is superstitious.

Thom Hartmann still continues daily to tell the same lies about Citizens United. ...
If he was honest, he'd acknowledge that the FEC did overstep the proper boundaries, that it did abridge the rights of that company, and that the Court's decision to overrule it was necessary,
There's a case to be made that the Court's decision was unnecessary, and therefore inappropriate, because they could have ruled against the FEC on narrow grounds without addressing the constitutionality of the BCRA itself, and therefore should have. Among the corrupt elements of the BCRA was that it bought the support of the mainstream media for its censorship agenda by exempting them -- it said we have to stop little shoestring outfits like Citizens United from drowning out the national conversation with their giant corporate megaphone, but ABC and CBS can do all the electioneering communication they please. :rolleyesa: So all the SCOTUS needed to do to get the right answer was rule that Citizens United qualified as a media corporation and was therefore exempt.

On the other hand, the guy who pointed this out was John Paul Stevens, in his dissenting opinion. So it appears he didn't even believe it himself -- if he'd believed it he'd have written a concurring opinion supporting CU. (And then he might have persuaded some of the majority to join him, which would have resulted in a narrow ruling for CU, forestalling what was a disaster from the leftist point of view.) Maybe there's some abstruse technical legal reason the "CU is exempt" option wouldn't have worked, and Stevens only wrote it as an ad hominem against the majority. Or maybe he was sincere, but wrote a dissenting opinion anyway because he thought censoring CU was good public policy, legal technicalities be damned, and he felt the justices' job was to be a House of Lords and not a court of law.
 
Why else would leftists be pro-censorship almost to a man?
Because they want to force everyone to be nice.

The left want censorship so that other people won't hear hurtful things said about themselves. They don't want anyone to call somebody else "nigger" or "kike" or "bitch" or "cunt".

The right want censorship so that other people won't hear hurtful things said about their regime. They don't want anyone to call them "nazi" or "fascist", or worst of all, to call for their overthrow.

The difference is how you tell when a Stalinist has gone so far left as to become right.
 
Oh, what a relief! So all we need to do is get the word out that nobody in that movie ever actually calls Mrs. Clinton a bitch, and then the left will get over its chronic case of Citizens United Derangement Syndrome.

:tomato:
 
What makes corporations "not people"?

You’re right that groups of individuals—whether formal or informal—retain First Amendment protections.
A corporation is a group of individuals, so why doesn't it also retain First Amendment protections?

That’s because the Constitution protects individuals acting in association.
A corporation is individuals acting in association.

When people form a club, attend a party, or gather at a church, they are still exercising individual rights to speech, assembly, and religion.
That's what the people in a corporation are doing. They form the company which is a kind of club, and they gather at churches and other kinds of meeting places.

But a corporation is not just a group of people casually associating—it’s a legal entity created by the state, with its own rights, obligations, and legal identity separate from the individuals inside it.
Many NONcorporations are also legal entities "created by the state" with their own rights, obligations, and legal identity separate from the individuals inside them. A native tribe, e.g., becomes recognized by the state and is granted certain rights and legal identity it didn't have before.

It exists not for expression, but for commerce, . . .
No, you can't dictate what the corporation exists for or what it does not exist for. The corporation chooses what it exists for.

And many noncorporations exist for commerce and not for "expression". Yet they are "people" with First Amendment rights. Existing for commerce and not for "expression" does not turn a group of people into "not people" without First Amendment rights.


. . . and it’s structured to shield individuals from liability, extend legal life indefinitely, and enable capital accumulation.
But there are many NONcorporations which also are structured for those. Not only "corporations".

Why are you unable to tell us anything in particular about "corporations" which singles them out uniquely as "not people"?
 
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The question isn’t whether the people in a corporation have rights—they do. The issue is whether the corporation itself, as a separate entity, should have the same political speech rights as a natural person, including the ability to spend unlimited money to influence elections.
The answer is YES, they should have the same political speech rights. Why not?

You mean Elon Musk should have the political speech right to spend millions to elect a candidate who opposes the ACLU, but this corporation does not have the same political speech right to condemn Elon Musk or oppose that candidate? because it's a corporation whereas he's a "natural person"? Why do you want to give someone with such vast wealth a special right to free speech which is denied to someone so much smaller?
 
A corporation is a group of individuals, so why doesn't it also retain First Amendment protections?

It does retain First Amendment protections through the people inside it. What you are demanding is something stronger and different, that the state-created entity itself be treated as an independent political speaker with the same standing as a citizen. That leap is the entire controversy, and repeating “group of individuals” does not resolve it.

A corporation is individuals acting in association.

Association protects people speaking together. Incorporation creates a separate legal actor that can act without ongoing consent of those people, using pooled capital, limited liability, and perpetual existence. You are deliberately collapsing two legally distinct things.

That's what the people in a corporation are doing. They form the company which is a kind of club, and they gather at churches and other kinds of meeting places.

No. A club or church cannot compel speech using money generated by absent owners, dead owners, or passive shareholders. A corporation can. That difference is structural, not rhetorical.

Many NONcorporations are also legal entities "created by the state" with their own rights, obligations, and legal identity separate from the individuals inside them. A native tribe, e.g., becomes recognized by the state and is granted certain rights and legal identity it didn't have before.

Correct and that strengthens my position, not yours. Any legal structure that aggregates capital, shields liability, and persists independently of its members raises the same democratic concern. This is about power mechanics, not labels.


No, you can't dictate what the corporation exists for or what it does not exist for. The corporation chooses what it exists for.

And many noncorporations exist for commerce and not for "expression". Yet they are "people" with First Amendment rights. Existing for commerce and not for "expression" does not turn a group of people into "not people" without First Amendment rights.

The law absolutely dictates what a corporation exists for. Corporate purpose, fiduciary duty, liability limits, and continuity are all state-defined. A thing that exists only because law constructs it is legitimately subject to conditions on how it participates in elections.

Again, you’re switching speakers mid-sentence. The people retain rights. The entity exists to transact. No one is stopping individuals from speaking, organizing, or spending their own money. What’s contested is whether the entity’s treasury becomes a political megaphone.

And many noncorporations exist for commerce and not for "expression". Yet they are "people" with First Amendment rights. Existing for commerce and not for "expression" does not turn a group of people into "not people" without First Amendment rights.

You’re dodging the point by turning it into mind reading about motives. I’m not “dictating” anyone’s purpose. I’m describing what incorporation does in law. It creates a separate legal actor that can pool capital, persist indefinitely, and spend treasury money as a single speaker even when the actual humans behind the money disagree or are absent. That is not ordinary association, it is a power tool the state defines and enforces.

And your noncorporation point changes nothing. If a structure functions like a corporation in the ways that matter for elections, then it raises the same concern. This isn’t a word game about labels. It’s about whether any capital pooling legal machine gets to turn economic muscle into political force without limit while hiding the humans behind it.

So no, nobody is saying people lose speech. People keep speech. The question is whether an artificial entity designed to move money gets the same standing as citizens in elections. That’s the whole issue, and repeating “but groups exist” doesn’t answer it.

But there are many NONcorporations which also are structured for those. Not only "corporations".

Why are you unable to tell us anything in particular about "corporations" which singles them out uniquely as "not people"?

Because you’re demanding a magic trait so regulation becomes impossible. Law doesn’t work that way. It regulates mechanisms and effects. The relevant mechanism is treasury funded electioneering through a separate legal person that can outlive and override its members. Corporations are the most common and most powerful version of that mechanism, but they’re not the only one.

So here’s the straight answer you keep pretending no one will give. A corporation is not people because it is not a voter, not a citizen, not a conscience, not a body that can be jailed, and not a being that can die. It is a legal device. People inside it have rights. The device should not get an automatic blank check to convert accumulated capital into election influence.

NHC
 
The answer is YES, they should have the same political speech rights. Why not?

You mean Elon Musk should have the political speech right to spend millions to elect a candidate who opposes the ACLU, but this corporation does not have the same political speech right to condemn Elon Musk or oppose that candidate? because it's a corporation whereas he's a "natural person"? Why do you want to give someone with such vast wealth a special right to free speech which is denied to someone so much smaller?

Because you keep swapping “speech” for “treasury spending behind a liability shield.” People have rights. Associations of people have rights. A corporation is a tool the state recognizes to pool money, separate liability, and persist beyond any member. The argument is whether that tool’s pooled treasury must be treated as identical to a human being in elections. That is a power question, not a “who gets to speak” question.

That’s a false setup. The ACLU can condemn Musk today. Its members can speak, publish, protest, and donate. It can raise funds and advocate. What you are demanding is something extra, that a legally protected pooled treasury must get the same election spending status as an individual’s personal speech. Those are not the same thing, and pretending they are is the whole sleight of hand.

I don’t. I want the opposite of special treatment. Your position gives a double amplifier to wealth, first the billionaire’s money, then the corporate shell that pools other people’s money, shields accountability, and spends indefinitely. Stop calling that “equal speech.” It’s not equal, it’s leveraged spending, and that is exactly why people object.

NHC
 
The issue is whether the corporation itself, as a separate entity, should have the same political speech rights as a natural person, including the ability to spend unlimited money to influence elections. That goes beyond the protections afforded to expressive gatherings like fan clubs or weddings. It introduces institutional power and scale . . .
But giving free speech rights to a billionaire individual like Elon Musk introduces more institutional power and scale than giving it to a corporation like the ACLU or Planned Parenthood and millions of other corporations which have less power. And yet you're protecting the right of the individual multi-billionaire "natural person" to spend without limit to promote his political candidate, while denying this right to much smaller entities (99% of corporations).

It introduces institutional power and scale into the political process in a way those other examples do not.
But that's what you're doing when you insist that the multibillionaire has full First Amendment rights to free speech because he's a "natural person" but that the typical much smaller corporation has no such rights, because it's "not people."

Why do you condemn the ACLU as "not people" and not deserving First Amendment rights, while protecting the rights of the much more powerful billionaires?

Or in the real case which came to the Court, the Citizens United case in 2010, it was a modest non-profit corporation Citizens United which you want to deny free speech rights to, while the "victim" of their political propaganda, Hillary Clinton, is a multimillionaire with more assets and thus more institutional power than the corporation who was campaigning against her.

So why are you on the side of the more powerful entities, with your "corporations are not people" slogan? Why are you pretending to be for those who have less power when the vast majority of those you're attacking with your election reform law (of 2002) are among the less powerful? The vast majority of corporations are less powerful, not more. They are much less powerful than the typical Senator or Congressmember who got elected, and even less powerful than most of the major candidates for high office who lost. Why do you demand election reform law which penalizes the weaker candidates and favors the more powerful ones?

Your crusade is to crack down on political propaganda against the most powerful politicians, the ones who have the most wealth behind them, by censoring and banning political propaganda against them if it comes from "corporations" which are mostly much weaker than those candidates. This is what the FEC did in 2008.

If you reverse Citizens United and reinstate your election reform restrictions to protect powerful politicians from propaganda against them, as in that instance, it will benefit the most powerful politicians, who will be protected against that political propaganda which you succeeded in banning, and thus you'll further entrench the 2-Party monopoly.
 
So it’s not about denying rights to groups — it’s about recognizing that granting full political rights to . . .
No, say it correctly -- it's about basic First Amendment rights of free speech (and free press etc.) which includes political speech.

. . . rights to powerful, state-chartered economic entities isn’t the . . .
No, stop misstating it. It's not about "powerful" state-chartered entities. It's about ALL corporations, the vast majority of which are NOT POWERFUL. Nevermind that they are "state-chartered" -- many entities are state-chartered which are not "corporations" -- stop repeating that they are "powerful" or have disproportionate benefit or rights or unequal advantage. They have no such thing. Anyone can form a corporation who wants to, so whatever benefit there is can be gained by anyone at all. There is no privilege or favor to some which is denied to anyone else. It's a status which absolutely any citizen can gain by simply forming a corporation, which nothing stops them from doing.

So the proper wording is:
. . . that granting [basic free-speech] rights to . . . [corporate] entities isn't the same as protecting human beings associating and speaking freely.
Yes it is. (Except in the sense that nothing is exactly "the same as" something else which is different.)

Yes, those free-speech rights are part of the same process of protecting human beings associating and speaking freely. Freedom of corporations to speak or publish or propagandize is "the same as" -- or rather, is contained within the meaning of the First Amendment protection of human beings associating and speaking freely. Or, corporations having free speech is one form of people having free speech. Corporations consist of humans associating and speaking freely, so their publishing or propagandizing activity is the same as that of anyone else, groups or individuals, speaking or publishing or propagandizing. All humans as individuals or as groups are equally protected, or rather, have the same basic rights. You're not giving any reason why any kind of human group should be excluded from this meaning of the First Amendment. Nor are you citing anything in law which ever said corporations are the only entities excluded from "the people" in the First Amendment.

Even criminals have basic First Amendment rights. Even a criminal gang. They have the right to publish political propaganda, even promote or condemn a candidate in the elections, if they pay the cost and can find the space in the prison to perform their campaign. Even if they don't have "full" rights (because of practical limits), they have the free-speech right to publish the same political propaganda as citizens outside the prison.
 
But giving free speech rights to a billionaire individual like Elon Musk introduces more institutional power and scale than giving it to a corporation like the ACLU or Planned Parenthood and millions of other corporations which have less power. And yet you're protecting the right of the individual multi-billionaire "natural person" to spend without limit to promote his political candidate, while denying this right to much smaller entities (99% of corporations).
You’re smuggling in a false choice. Nobody is proposing “billionaires can speak but the ACLU can’t.” The ACLU speaks right now, loudly, every day. The actual dispute is whether a state granted business form gets to convert pooled, liability shielded, potentially perpetual treasury money into election spending in its own name, even when that political spending is not the express will of the people inside it.

Also false on the facts. After Citizens United, corporations are not “denied” independent political spending, they can do it, and that is exactly why people criticize the decision. So your framing collapses either way. If your goal is equalizing influence, then you are arguing for limits on big spenders across the board, including billionaires and corporate treasuries, plus strong disclosure. If your goal is absolutism, then stop pretending this is about protecting the weak, because your rule mainly protects whoever can aggregate the most money the fastest.

But that's what you're doing when you insist that the multibillionaire has full First Amendment rights to free speech because he's a "natural person" but that the typical much smaller corporation has no such rights, because it's "not people."

Why do you condemn the ACLU as "not people" and not deserving First Amendment rights, while protecting the rights of the much more powerful billionaires?

Or in the real case which came to the Court, the Citizens United case in 2010, it was a modest non-profit corporation Citizens United which you want to deny free speech rights to, while the "victim" of their political propaganda, Hillary Clinton, is a multimillionaire with more assets and thus more institutional power than the corporation who was campaigning against her.

So why are you on the side of the more powerful entities, with your "corporations are not people" slogan? Why are you pretending to be for those who have less power when the vast majority of those you're attacking with your election reform law (of 2002) are among the less powerful? The vast majority of corporations are less powerful, not more. They are much less powerful than the typical Senator or Congressmember who got elected, and even less powerful than most of the major candidates for high office who lost. Why do you demand election reform law which penalizes the weaker candidates and favors the more powerful ones?

Your crusade is to crack down on political propaganda against the most powerful politicians, the ones who have the most wealth behind them, by censoring and banning political propaganda against them if it comes from "corporations" which are mostly much weaker than those candidates. This is what the FEC did in 2008.

If you reverse Citizens United and reinstate your election reform restrictions to protect powerful politicians from propaganda against them, as in that instance, it will benefit the most powerful politicians, who will be protected against that political propaganda which you succeeded in banning, and thus you'll further entrench the 2-Party monopoly.

This is a stack of false equivalences and category errors rolled into one.

No one is denying the ACLU First Amendment protections. Saying an organization is not a natural person is not the same thing as saying it has no speech rights. It means its rights are derivative and structured, not inherent and human. Individuals speak in their own name, with their own assets, and bear full personal liability. Corporations speak through a state-created legal vehicle that pools capital, shields decision-makers from liability, and exists independently of any human lifespan. Treating those two as identical is precisely the mistake.

Invoking billionaires does not rescue the argument. Individual wealth may be large, but it remains personal speech subject to personal responsibility. Corporate spending is institutional speech backed by accumulated, protected capital that no voter can vote out, no jury can jail, and no election can dissolve. That distinction has nothing to do with sympathy for the rich and everything to do with how power is structurally amplified.

Pointing out that most corporations are small is irrelevant. Law regulates effects at scale, not headcounts. The fact that many corporations are weak does not negate the reality that a few can dominate the political signal environment in ways individuals and voluntary associations cannot.

The Citizens United case was not about protecting “weaker voices” against powerful politicians. It was about whether corporate treasuries could be used for electioneering communications. Hillary Clinton’s personal wealth is beside the point. Campaign finance law addresses the source and structure of spending, not the feelings or bank balance of the target.

Finally, regulating corporate election spending is not “banning propaganda” or protecting incumbents. Unlimited outside money raises the cost of political participation, entrenches donor networks, and hardens the two-party system by making entry prohibitively expensive. If the rule is that the largest pool of protected capital gets the loudest voice, that is not democracy. It is market dominance applied to elections.

Strip away the rhetoric and the choice is simple. Either political equality matters, or money decides who is heard. Calling that censorship does not make it so.

NHC
 
So it’s not about denying rights to groups — it’s about recognizing that granting full political rights to . . .
No, say it correctly -- it's about basic First Amendment rights of free speech (and free press etc.) which includes political speech.

. . . rights to powerful, state-chartered economic entities isn’t the . . .
No, stop misstating it. It's not about "powerful" state-chartered entities. It's about ALL corporations, the vast majority of which are NOT POWERFUL. Nevermind that they are "state-chartered" -- many entities are state-chartered which are not "corporations" -- stop repeating that they are "powerful" or have disproportionate benefit or rights or unequal advantage. They have no such thing. Anyone can form a corporation who wants to, so whatever benefit there is can be gained by anyone at all. There is no privilege or favor to some which is denied to anyone else. It's a status which absolutely any citizen can gain by simply forming a corporation, which nothing stops them from doing.

So the proper wording is:
. . . that granting [basic free-speech] rights to . . . [corporate] entities isn't the same as protecting human beings associating and speaking freely.
Yes it is. (Except in the sense that nothing is exactly "the same as" something else which is different.)

Yes, those free-speech rights are part of the same process of protecting human beings associating and speaking freely. Freedom of corporations to speak or publish or propagandize is "the same as" -- or rather, is contained within the meaning of the First Amendment protection of human beings associating and speaking freely. Or, corporations having free speech is one form of people having free speech. Corporations consist of humans associating and speaking freely, so their publishing or propagandizing activity is the same as that of anyone else, groups or individuals, speaking or publishing or propagandizing. All humans as individuals or as groups are equally protected, or rather, have the same basic rights. You're not giving any reason why any kind of human group should be excluded from this meaning of the First Amendment. Nor are you citing anything in law which ever said corporations are the only entities excluded from "the people" in the First Amendment.

Even criminals have basic First Amendment rights. Even a criminal gang. They have the right to publish political propaganda, even promote or condemn a candidate in the elections, if they pay the cost and can find the space in the prison to perform their campaign. Even if they don't have "full" rights (because of practical limits), they have the free-speech right to publish the same political propaganda as citizens outside the prison.

This is about First Amendment rights, but you keep smuggling in a false premise that every exercise of speech must be treated identically regardless of structure. The Constitution protects speech; it does not guarantee every legal construct the same mechanisms to project it.

Calling corporations “not powerful” misses the issue entirely. Power here is not moral worth or popularity. It is structural amplification pooled capital, perpetual existence, liability shields, and centralized decision-making that persists independent of any human speaker. That is not “any group of people talking.” That is an institution designed to magnify economic force. The First Amendment never required the state to convert economic architecture into political megaphones.

Saying “anyone can form a corporation” does not erase the distinction. Anyone can form a gun, too, but that doesn’t mean the state must treat it as a hand. Accessibility does not nullify structural effects. Rights analysis looks at what the thing does, not whether the paperwork is available at a filing office.

Yes, corporations are made of humans. So are governments, armies, and prisons. That does not collapse them into individual speakers. When humans speak through an entity that shields them from accountability and concentrates resources, the law has always treated that speech differently. That’s why we regulate campaign finance, broadcasting, securities disclosures, and lobbying without banning speech itself.

You keep invoking criminals and gangs, but that analogy backfires. Criminals retain speech rights as individuals. Their organizations do not get to convert illicit or pooled resources into political influence free of regulation. No court has ever held otherwise.

Nothing here excludes corporations from speech. What’s rejected is the claim that a state-enabled economic instrument is entitled to the same political spending power as a human being with one vote and one lifespan. That’s not censorship. That’s the boundary between liberty and domination.

Your argument only works if you pretend structure doesn’t matter. It does. And once you admit that, the rest of this collapses.

NHC
 
So it’s not about denying rights to groups — it’s about recognizing that granting full political rights to powerful, state-chartered economic entities isn’t the same as protecting human beings associating and speaking freely.
What powerful entities? Stop making up stories!

What political rights are granted to them which other groups don't have?
Most corporations are no more powerful than the local shoe-shiner. And there are no special rights granted to them.
What "political power"? If this entity (corporation) is granted some special political power, then perhaps it should have some special conditions imposed onto it.
The “political power” being referred to isn’t something formally granted by the state — it’s . . .
Oh, so it's NOT about "granting . . . rights to powerful state-chartered economic entities . . ." -- so then what is it about? Why must "corporations" be denied 1st Amendment rights? Again you're failing to tell us what it is about "corporations" such that they are to be singled out for special censorship or banning of their propaganda. How do you say they're "not people" and thus are subject to this special denial of First Amendment rights? It's not because they're granted any special power, you now acknowledge.

. . . it's the practical power corporations exercise by virtue of their financial resources, used to influence elections, legislation, and public discourse.
No, most corporations do NOT exercise any such power, while many entities/groups other than corporations do have such power. So, why are you singling out "corporations" to be subject to special restrictions? denial of their free speech rights? such as the FEC did to Citizens United in 2008? banning them from distributing their film? You're still not saying what's special about "corporations" that they should be subject to such limits on free speech. Having "practical power" as you say above is not something typical of corporations.

The Supreme Court’s Citizens United decision allowed corporations to spend unlimited funds on independent political expenditures, which . . .
Other groups (noncorporate businesses and organizations) and Individuals (e.g. billionaires) are allowed to do that, and corporations were allowed to prior to the 2002 election reform law. Why for the first time in U.S. history should "corporations" (and only "corporations") be singled out for this censorship? and denial of First Amendment rights? Why only "corporations"? You're still not saying what's special about "corporations" that they should be censored by the FEC from distributing political propaganda.

. . . which gives them disproportionate influence over the political process compared to individual citizens. That is . . .
Which "individual citizens"? Elon Musk? Bill Gates? Why aren't the same censorship rules imposed onto the individual billionaires? Or even all millionaires? The majority of corporations have less influence over the political process than the typical millionaire. You're still not telling us what turns corporations (and ONLY corporations) into "not people" and thus to be deprived of 1st Amendment rights.

. . . That is political power — gained not by law, but by scale and access.
But that's also true of an INDIVIDUAL or even NON-corporate group which might have gained some disproportionate political influence. Whoever (group or individual, corporate or non-corporate) which [truly] is granted some political power should probably be subject to some conditions which put limits on that power [but it's not true that they're granted any such power that other groups don't have].
It’s true that any entity — corporate, non-corporate, or individual — could be subject to reasonable limits if granted governmental power. But in this case, corporations were not granted political power by the state — they were . . .
Bingo! Finally the truth -- Yes, corporations are NOT granted any such political power -- Write it on the blackboard 100 times. Corporations are NOT granted any special political power or privilege by the state.

But above you misspoke when you said "So it’s not about denying rights to groups — it’s about recognizing that granting full political rights to powerful, state-chartered economic entities isn’t the same as protecting human beings associating and speaking freely." This implied that corporations are granted some special political rights as corporations, giving them some special unfair advantage over noncorporations (if they're allowed free political speech). Now you're correcting yourself and acknowledging that they are not given any such disproportionate advantage over noncorporations. They just have the same basic 1st Amendment rights as noncorporations.

. . . they were allowed to acquire it through unlimited financial expenditures, under the Citizens United ruling.
They acquired nothing that noncorporations don't also have. Noncorporations also can acquire "political power" through "unlimited financial expenditures" just as much as corporations can.

This differs from public offices or commissions, where power is explicitly delegated and regulated. The concern is that corporations gained a form of political influence that the Constitution never intended for artificial entities, and . . .
Who says the "Constitution never intended" for artificial entities to gain political influence? i.e., entities like Native American tribes and cities and states and families? regulatory agencies and departments of motor vehicles? departments of health? other government agencies? trusts and estate entities, receiverships? noncorporate business entities like partnerships and cooperatives and LLC's and joint ventures and chamber of commerce entities? There is nothing derogatory about any of these NONcorporate "artificial entities" having political influence and even spending money on a political cause if they choose to. Nothing in the Constitution suggests that they can't spend money on a political cause, even on a candidate, as long as they observe the normal limits on donations to candidates (and don't say "vote for so-and-so" during the election period).

(A local jurisdiction might prohibit its agency from political spending, but there's no federal limit, no FEC rule saying this artificial entity may not spend on a political cause.) Corporations are not the only "artificial" entities.

. . . without the kind of accountability or democratic input that typically comes with delegated authority.
What "accountability"? There's no need to regulate or ban or censor anyone or any group trying to exert political influence on someone (the Citizens United case was about banning someone's political propaganda). We're all free to distribute our political propaganda for or against anything, without having to report to some government agency holding us accountable and having power to ban our propaganda. It's not wrong for someone, group or individual, to promote political propaganda. Any group should have (and usually does have) free speech rights to try to influence voters, to campaign for or against a candidate any way they wish -- other than donations to candidates for which there are limits imposed, and these limits were not changed by Citizens United. They're the same as before that decision.

Still no one is giving any reason why "corporations" should be in the "not people" category and denied their 1st Amendment rights, which happened in 2008, and which was rightly overturned by the Court.
 
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What powerful entities? Stop making up stories!

What political rights are granted to them which other groups don't have?
Most corporations are no more powerful than the local shoe-shiner. And there are no special rights granted to them.

You’re still pretending this is about who is rich instead of what the legal structure allows, and that’s the entire dodge.

No one is claiming corporations have a special right to speak that others lack. The issue is that incorporation grants a state-created capacity to convert pooled capital into political influence in ways ordinary associations cannot replicate.

The difference you keep avoiding is structural, not rhetorical. A corporation can accumulate capital indefinitely, act through centralized management, separate decision-makers from personal liability, outlive its members, and deploy treasury funds without individual attribution or consent. A shoe-shiner, a family, or an unincorporated group cannot do that as a single legal actor. Individuals retain full First Amendment rights, but they must act as themselves, with their own money, names, and accountability.

So this is not about “powerful corporations” as a stereotype. It’s about scale and insulation baked into the corporate form itself. Constitutional doctrine is concerned with systemic effects, not anecdotes about small businesses.

And this is where your argument collapses. If corporations truly had no distinct political capacity, Citizens United would have changed nothing. The fact that it mattered proves the distinction exists.

You’re arguing that a firehose is just a straw because some fires are small. That doesn’t work.
Oh, so it's NOT about "granting . . . rights to powerful state-chartered economic entities . . ." -- so then what is it about? Why must "corporations" be denied 1st Amendment rights? Again you're failing to tell us what it is about "corporations" such that they are to be singled out for special censorship or banning of their propaganda. How do you say they're "not people" and thus are subject to this special denial of First Amendment rights? It's not because they're granted any special power, you now acknowledge.

You’re still forcing a false choice that no one is making.

Corporations are not being “denied” First Amendment rights, and no one is claiming they are “not people” in the sense you keep repeating. The point is simpler and narrower than you want to admit.

The First Amendment protects human liberty and democratic self-governance. When individuals speak, vote, donate, or publish, they do so as accountable persons with finite lives, finite resources, and personal responsibility. A corporation is different because it is a state-defined instrument that aggregates capital, persists indefinitely, shields decision-makers from personal liability, and converts economic power directly into political influence without democratic accountability to the public.

That distinction does not depend on whether a given corporation is rich or poor, any more than campaign laws depend on whether a given donor is charismatic or boring. Constitutional rules are written for structures and incentives, not anecdotes.

So no, this is not about censorship or banning propaganda. Corporations can publish, speak, advocate, criticize, and persuade. What is contested is whether a legal vehicle created to organize economic activity should be allowed to deploy unlimited treasury funds to influence elections in the same way a living citizen does.

Calling that “denying free speech” is rhetorical sleight of hand. It’s the same move as saying limits on corporate liability “deny liberty,” or limits on foreign spending “deny association.” The Constitution has always distinguished between natural persons and legal constructs without abolishing speech.

Your argument fails because it treats all distinctions as persecution. Constitutional law doesn’t work that way, and it never has.

No, most corporations do NOT exercise any such power, while many entities/groups other than corporations do have such power. So, why are you singling out "corporations" to be subject to special restrictions? denial of their free speech rights? such as the FEC did to Citizens United in 2008? banning them from distributing their film? You're still not saying what's special about "corporations" that they should be subject to such limits on free speech. Having "practical power" as you say above is not something typical of corporations.

You’re still arguing from anecdotes instead of structure.

Constitutional rules don’t turn on whether most members of a category misuse power. They turn on what the category is designed to do and what incentives it creates. Corporations are singled out not because every corporation is powerful, but because the corporate form is uniquely built to pool capital, separate control from ownership, limit liability, persist indefinitely, and deploy money at scale without personal accountability. That combination does not exist for informal groups, families, or ad-hoc associations.

This has nothing to do with banning speech. Corporations can speak, publish, criticize, and advocate all they want. What is contested is whether a state-created economic vehicle may convert treasury funds into election influence on the same footing as a living voter. That is a question about democratic integrity, not censorship.

Pointing to Citizens United doesn’t change this. The FEC didn’t target the film because it was “speech,” but because Congress had drawn a line around electioneering by corporate treasuries. The Court chose to erase that line. Reasonable people disagree with that choice, but pretending the only alternative is blanket censorship is a false dilemma.

What’s special about corporations isn’t their size. It’s their design. And that’s the part you keep refusing to engage.

NHC
 
Other groups (noncorporate businesses and organizations) and Individuals (e.g. billionaires) are allowed to do that, and corporations were allowed to prior to the 2002 election reform law. Why for the first time in U.S. history should "corporations" (and only "corporations") be singled out for this censorship? and denial of First Amendment rights? Why only "corporations"? You're still not saying what's special about "corporations" that they should be censored by the FEC from distributing political propaganda.
Because corporations are not just “groups of people” doing the same thing individuals do. They are a distinct legal instrument that exists only because the state grants it special economic features that no individual or informal group has. That’s what makes them different, and that’s why the law has treated them differently for over a century.

A billionaire spends personal money and bears personal legal, reputational, and moral accountability. A non-corporate group spends money that is still legally attributable to identifiable people. A corporation spends pooled treasury funds that belong to a state-created entity, insulated by limited liability, perpetual life, and separation of ownership from control. That insulation is precisely what allows political spending without personal consequence, and that is what election law has historically targeted.

This was not “the first time in U.S. history.” Corporate political spending has been restricted since the Tillman Act of 1907, repeatedly upheld as constitutional, precisely because corporate treasuries posed corruption and distortion risks distinct from individuals. The 2002 law didn’t invent censorship; it extended a long-standing principle to modern media formats.

And no one is saying corporations have no First Amendment rights. They can speak, publish, lobby, sue, protest, and advocate every day. The narrow issue is whether a state-created economic vehicle may deploy treasury funds to influence elections on the same footing as a human voter. That is regulation of election mechanics, not suppression of speech.

So the answer you keep demanding has been given plainly: corporations are singled out because they are legally engineered power-pooling machines with privileges individuals do not have. Ignoring that structure and shouting “censorship” doesn’t refute it.

Which "individual citizens"? Elon Musk? Bill Gates? Why aren't the same censorship rules imposed onto the individual billionaires? Or even all millionaires? The majority of corporations have less influence over the political process than the typical millionaire. You're still not telling us what turns corporations (and ONLY corporations) into "not people" and thus to be deprived of 1st Amendment rights.

Because the Constitution protects persons, not economic instruments.

Elon Musk and Bill Gates act as natural persons. When they spend money on speech, it is legally their money, their liability, their accountability, and their consequences. The law can identify the speaker, punish corruption, impose criminal penalties, and revoke rights if they break the law. That is not true for corporate treasury spending.

A corporation is not “a rich person with a different name.” It is a state-constructed vehicle that pools other people’s money, shields decision-makers from liability, survives its creators, and acts independently of the will of its owners. That structure is exactly what election law has regulated for over a century, starting in 1907, because it enables political spending without personal accountability.

No one is saying corporations have no First Amendment rights. They speak constantly. The issue is whether a government-granted economic mechanism may deploy treasury funds in elections as if it were a voter. The answer historically was no, because elections are about citizens choosing leaders, not legal tools amplifying capital.

Individual wealth does not change the category. Billionaires remain people who vote, can be jailed, can be barred from office, and bear direct legal responsibility. Corporations cannot do any of those things. That difference is not rhetorical, and it is not optional.

So corporations are not “not people” as an insult. They are not people as a constitutional fact, and that is why they have always been regulated differently in elections.

Bingo! Finally the truth -- Yes, corporations are NOT granted any such political power -- Write it on the blackboard 100 times. Corporations are NOT granted any special political power or privilege by the state.

But above you misspoke when you said "So it’s not about denying rights to groups — it’s about recognizing that granting full political rights to powerful, state-chartered economic entities isn’t the same as protecting human beings associating and speaking freely." This implied that corporations are granted some special political rights as corporations, giving them some special unfair advantage over noncorporations (if they're allowed free political speech). Now you're correcting yourself and acknowledging that they are not given any such disproportionate advantage over noncorporations. They just have the same basic 1st Amendment rights as noncorporations.

You’re still missing the distinction.

No one is claiming corporations are granted extra political rights. The point is that when you treat corporate treasury spending as identical to human speech, you convert economic privileges into political power. That is not “the same basic First Amendment rights,” even if the words sound similar.

A corporation is allowed to exist with limited liability, perpetual life, pooled capital, and separation between decision-makers and consequences. Those are not political rights, but when they are used inside elections, they change how political speech functions. That is why corporate electioneering was restricted for a century without anyone thinking corporations were “censored out of existence.”

So no, this isn’t a correction or a concession. Corporations are not given special political rights, and that is exactly why their economic structure was historically barred from direct electoral spending. Individual speech is protected because it is personal, accountable, and civic. Corporate treasury spending is regulated because it is institutional, insulated, and non-civic.

Same Constitution. Different actors. Different rules. That’s not confusion. That’s constitutional law.

They acquired nothing that noncorporations don't also have. Noncorporations also can acquire "political power" through "unlimited financial expenditures" just as much as corporations can.

That’s false, and this is the core error you keep repeating.

Noncorporate groups do not have the same combination of features corporations do. A corporation uniquely combines pooled capital from strangers, perpetual existence, limited liability, centralized control, and separation between the spender and the human beings affected by the consequences. An informal group or individual can spend money, but they cannot replicate that structure without becoming a corporation or equivalent entity.

The law never treated “ability to spend money” as the issue. It treated institutionalized economic power insulated from personal accountability as the issue. That is why individuals, partnerships, and advocacy groups acting through personal funds were treated differently from corporate treasuries for most of U.S. history.

Saying “noncorporations can spend money too” is like saying a bicycle and a freight train are the same because both move. The difference is scale, insulation, durability, and accountability. That difference is exactly why corporate electioneering was regulated long before 2002, without anyone pretending corporations were being stripped of speech or declared illegal.

You’re arguing by flattening categories that the law has always treated as distinct. That’s not a rebuttal. It’s evasion.

Who says the "Constitution never intended" for artificial entities to gain political influence? i.e., entities like Native American tribes and cities and states and families? regulatory agencies and departments of motor vehicles? departments of health? other government agencies? trusts and estate entities, receiverships? noncorporate business entities like partnerships and cooperatives and LLC's and joint ventures and chamber of commerce entities? There is nothing derogatory about any of these NONcorporate "artificial entities" having political influence and even spending money on a political cause if they choose to. Nothing in the Constitution suggests that they can't spend money on a political cause, even on a candidate, as long as they observe the normal limits on donations to candidates (and don't say "vote for so-and-so" during the election period).

(A local jurisdiction might prohibit its agency from political spending, but there's no federal limit, no FEC rule saying this artificial entity may not spend on a political cause.) Corporations are not the only "artificial" entities.

You’re collapsing categories again, and that’s why your argument keeps failing.

The Constitution absolutely allows many artificial entities to exist and even to speak in limited ways. What it does not do is treat every artificial entity as interchangeable for political spending purposes. Native tribes, cities, states, agencies, and departments are governed by entirely different constitutional rules because they are sovereigns or arms of the state. Many of them are in fact prohibited from partisan political spending precisely because they exercise public power. That alone destroys your analogy.

Families, informal groups, partnerships, and cooperatives do not possess a state-granted treasury insulated from personal liability, nor do they have perpetual life independent of members. When they want those features, they must opt into a corporate form and accept regulation that goes with it. That is the tradeoff. Rights do not come bundled without obligations.

The historical line is simple and consistent. The Constitution protects people speaking and associating. It has always allowed regulation of institutional economic power created and structured by law to prevent corruption and distortion of elections. That is why corporate electioneering was restricted for a century without anyone claiming families, churches, or clubs were being censored.

Saying “other artificial entities exist” does nothing to show corporations must be treated identically. It only shows you’re avoiding the real distinction. Corporations are uniquely designed to aggregate capital, persist indefinitely, and shield decision-makers from accountability. That is why they have always been regulated differently in elections.

You’re not refuting intent or doctrine. You’re just listing unrelated entities and hoping the differences disappear. They don’t.

What "accountability"? There's no need to regulate or ban or censor anyone or any group trying to exert political influence on someone (the Citizens United case was about banning someone's political propaganda). We're all free to distribute our political propaganda for or against anything, without having to report to some government agency holding us accountable and having power to ban our propaganda. It's not wrong for someone, group or individual, to promote political propaganda. Any group should have (and usually does have) free speech rights to try to influence voters, to campaign for or against a candidate any way they wish -- other than donations to candidates for which there are limits imposed, and these limits were not changed by Citizens United. They're the same as before that decision.

Still no one is giving any reason why "corporations" should be in the "not people" category and denied their 1st Amendment rights, which happened in 2008, and which was rightly overturned by the Court.

You’re still arguing against a position no one is taking, and that’s the tell.

No one is saying corporations should be banned from speaking, censored, or put in a “not people” box that strips all First Amendment protection. That’s a slogan you keep attacking because it’s easier than addressing the actual issue. The issue has never been whether corporations may speak. It’s whether the Constitution requires treating a state-created economic vehicle exactly the same as a natural person when it comes to elections, where corruption and distortion have always justified regulation.

Accountability here does not mean censorship. It means disclosure, limits, and rules tailored to prevent the conversion of aggregated capital into political dominance. That distinction has existed for over a century, upheld repeatedly, long before 2008, without anyone claiming churches, families, or clubs were being silenced. The fact that donations to candidates remain limited proves the point. We already accept that money and speech are not identical in elections.

What happened in 2008 was not some timeless free-speech principle being rediscovered. It was the Court choosing to collapse a long-standing constitutional distinction between individual political liberty and institutional economic power. Reasonable people can disagree with that choice, but pretending the only alternative is “ban all speech” is false.

And here’s the part you keep dodging. Corporations are not denied rights because they are hated or “not people.” They are regulated differently because they are tools of law, designed to pool capital, limit liability, and persist beyond any human life. That design has consequences in elections. Recognizing that is not censorship. It’s constitutional reality.

You can defend Citizens United if you want. But stop pretending that opposing it requires denying speech, banning films, or declaring the ACLU subhuman. None of that follows, and repeating it doesn’t make it true.

NHC
 
NHC, I applaud you for your persistence. But Lumpy has been told these things numerous times and it just doesn't settle in with him. Not because he doesn't believe them or can counter your facts with other facts. It's because he just doesn't want to. You're arguing with him like he's an adult when he is really just acting like a child and facts be damned. His all caps and his big bold fonts are his childish tantrums.

So please keep it up. You are helping others understand a complex issue. Lumpy, however, is lost in his own little child like world. Probably consisting of his mom's basement. I can't envision him having or keeping employment. His "I don't wanna" attitude is inconsistent with doing assigned labor.
 
Why is only Citizens United Inc. "not people"?


WILL NO ONE EVER ANSWER this question?

Why do you insist that the film about Hilary had to be banned? What was it about Citizens United Inc. that its film needed to be banned for the public good? Many well-financed corporations like the ACLU and Planned Parenthood, which are controversial, are far more powerful than Citizens United Inc. ever was, and no federal agency ever prevented them from producing controversial propaganda which could influence voters. (Maybe they try to stay nonpolitical, or not produce propaganda to influence voters, but when they do get political or controversial, no one suggests that a gov't agency should step in and suppress their free speech, even if they might influence voters.)

What is so special about the Hilary film that it and only it had to be banned for the good of the public? and no other political film or production of any kind -- except a very few cases where military secrecy or security was an issue -- ever was banned or needed to be banned from the media such as that one film was banned? i.e., a purely domestic political propaganda film relating to the political parties or politicians? despite the incentive of the opposing side to suppress it? There were some controversial films/books banned at the state and local levels, but never by federal agencies, because of the 1st Amendment protections of free speech.

Out of all the controversial and political films produced going back to 1900, why is the Hilary film of Citizens United Inc. the only one which ever was blatantly banned from being allowed on the media?
. . . in this case, corporations were not granted political power by the state — they were allowed to acquire it through unlimited financial expenditures, [which was declared legal] under the Citizens United ruling.
You could say the same about many/most corporations (profit and non-profit) which do something controversial or political. E.g. why weren't some PBS programs banned by the FEC, like some "Frontline" programs which are political and might influence voters? and are produced by a corporation which acquires more political power through financial expenditures than Citizens United ever acquired. PBS and other corporations occasionally produce propaganda of one form or another, like videos or print publications or audio productions which might influence voters and are even intended to influence them on an issue being debated in an election period. PBS documentaries (e.g. the Frontline episodes) are very political in some cases and could easily influence voters during an election period.

Isn't it good to have these influences, which can be educational for voters? And yet how can politicians in power be trusted to judge which "influences" on us are healthy ones and which ones should be banned?

How many hundreds/thousands of other films should also have been federally banned, which had corporate funding and contained political content which might influence voters? How many were banned earlier, back to 1900 when films began to be produced? It's true that the controversial film Birth of a Nation was banned, but only in a few isolated localities, never by federal law. Why was it necessary to break from this precedent in 2008 and federally ban a partisan political propaganda film for the first time in U.S. history? What was the reason to do this in 2008, but never before going back 100 years?
The concern is that corporations gained a form of political influence that the Constitution never intended for artificial entities, . . .
You mean like the influence of PBS and other corporations which produce and broadcast films?

How do you know what the Constitution "never intended"? other than in your subjective feelings? mystical cosmic vibes? Why do your cosmic vibes tell you it intends for that one film in 2008 to be banned, even though there are many other film producers, corporate and noncorporate, which have vastly more "political influence" than Citizens United ever had?

Neither the nation as a whole, nor the historians/experts agree on what "the Constitution never intended" or intended about someone not gaining political influence. The Constitution never suggests that "artificial entities" -- like the ACLU and other corporations or Native American tribes or families or cooperatives or partnerships or associations etc. are forbidden or restricted from having political influence and expressing it through producing some kind of propaganda. That the Constitution is silent about something -- "never intended" it -- does not mean that it therefore prohibits it. Rather, if anything, the spirit of the Constitution is that the federal gov't should leave all individuals and groups free to exert any influence they wish, with none ever being censored, or their productions banned, such as the FEC selectively banned that film in 2008.

There are some laws restricting political campaign donations, which Citizens United did not change. But there are no laws -- as falsely implied in the phrase "political influence that the Constitution never intended" -- saying that groups (including corporations) are restricted from exerting political influence. You can't name any such law. There are only some laws restricting the amount of donations, nothing saying anyone is prohibited from having influence on voters or election outcomes and spending as they wish to exert influence (except maybe the new 2002 election reform law which was overturned by the Court in 2010).


Exerting political influence on people is not wrong or illegal or improper or unconstitutional for anyone (including a corporation).

There are entities (artificial and non-artificial) which gain political influence in one way or another, maybe very extensive influence that others do not gain. There are entities which gain (unequal) influence in many ways, maybe affecting people's lives, but there's nothing illegal or derogatory or "unconstitutional" about it, and thus there's no reason to go around banning their films at the whim of some federal agent who is offended by them. Such as you insist that the FEC had to ban that film in 2008. What other federal bans do you want federal agents to impose onto someone? Do you want to ban some political talk shows during election periods? Why not? That's an obvious example of unequal political influence which some have because they are well funded by someone (both corporate and noncorporate) having vastly more power than 99% of us.

No one is giving the reason why this particular act of censorship in 2008 was necessary and why the Court was not correct to overrule that arbitrary act by the FEC. Your slogan "corporations are not people" is no explanation why this act of censorship was necessary in this one case when it had never been necessary before. Stop making up stories about imaginary cases where you assume it happened so you don't need any facts other than just your storytelling as your only evidence.

And don't say "But we're not for book-banning!" Yes you are -- if you're for film-banning as in this case, then you're also for book-banning, because there's no difference. They're both about free speech and free press.


. . . and without the kind of accountability or democratic input that typically comes with delegated authority.
What "delegated authority"? When you go to the bathroom to relieve yourself you have the same "delegated authority" to do that just as surely as Citizens United had "delegated authority" to produce that film you wanted banned. The U.S. Constitution gives us all the liberty to do what we want with our lives or our property, so everything we choose to do is from the "delegated authority" granted to us. And in groups, the vast majority of acts taken are done without "accountability" or "democratic input" from -- from whoever you think was supposed to hold them accountable. Who do you insist must be put in charge of imposing this "accountability" which 99% of the time is not the case, or not necessary?

Just because some groups occasionally vote on something does not mean that the norm is to not act unless you first hold a formal vote on a decision, according to someone's designated procedure. There's no such designated procedure all groups (including corporations) must follow before their decision is legitimate. And in the few cases where there is some formal procedure imposed, it's routine for it to be ignored if that would be more convenient, or followed if that's really best in a particular case. There's no need to demand that the formal procedure must always be followed even when no practical need requires it. Any member who seriously objects just resigns from the group. Whatever your "delegated authority" and "accountability" rhetoric means, it's just your subjective impulse, not something mandatory for all groups (or corporations) to comply with as you demand it or else they're subject to being banned from publishing something.

It's the norm for those running the group to make decisions without holding a vote following a prescribed "democratic" procedure or being screened by a prescribed "accountability" proceeding. 90% of the time a group does not hold specially prescribed "democratic" proceedings before it can act according to the wishes of those who run the group. You have no facts to show that Citizens United flouted some federal "accountability" requirements or regime you want to impose. And the real decision-making patterns are the same for both corporate and noncorporate entities, depending on how formal they choose to be. Where there are required procedures, they are followed when it's convenient or necessary, and ignored (probably in most cases) as inconvenient.


Should the ACLU be banned from publishing anything controversial during an election year?

It might influence voters, and 99% of us have much less wealth and political power than the ACLU, so it could easily manipulate us unfairly, even change the election outcome.

You haven't once given any reason why this one singular act of censorship by the FEC was necessary to protect the public interest. Your legalistic explanations could fit hundreds or thousands of other cases of films produced or various forms of political propaganda, produced by corporations and noncorporations, exercising their 1st Amendment rights, in some cases where they likely had influence on voters, maybe even to the point of changing the election results. And even if they did influence an election outcome in a case or 2, there was nothing wrong with that. It's not illegal or harmful or damaging to society for someone (even someone having "power") to promote a cause and thereby influence voters and change the outcome of an election -- as long as the change is due to persuasion of voters and not by falsifying or destroying ballots.

And until this case in 2008 there was never any pretense by someone that therefore someone's political propaganda had to be banned as you're insisting that this one film in 2008 had to be banned. You're not distinguishing this one case from all the thousands of possible cases where also a film or other propaganda could have been banned for reasons similar to what you're giving in this case why such censorship was necessary.

If you're saying this case, or Court decision, was a "game-changer" which unleashed a barrage of new propaganda appearing later, what are the examples of such propaganda you would ban? What other similar propaganda films since then should also have been suppressed? Name what else you want to ban in addition to this one film in 2008. Why only this one? Why not also books you think might be unwholesome for people to read and might influence their voting? If you can't name one other example, then you're saying this one film by Citizens United was very special in history, as the only case ever of political propaganda in the U.S. which needed to be federally banned. Why? What is so special about this one film that you're obsessed with banning it? and overturning the Court decision to protect the producer from having its 1st Amendment rights suppressed?

And prior to the 2002 election reform law (leading to the 2008 FEC censorship which you insist was necessary (but can't say why)) -- tell us what other films or political propaganda had been banned by the federal government? Why can't you name a single case of this? Why do you continue to tell the falsehood that it had been the norm to ban political films etc. like the FEC did in 2008? and yet you can't name one example? but only pretend there were hypothetical cases and so it must be a fact? How many more facts do you have which we're supposed to believe even though they're only hypothetical and never really happened?



CLARIFICATION: One earlier film from Citizens United was also restricted in 2004. In 2008 the Hilary film was banned for 30 days prior to the election. Michael Moore's Fahrenheit 9/11 film was not restricted by the FEC.
 
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