KT:
When an employer is not paying their full time employee a high enough wage to live on, and that employee has to make up the difference by obtaining subsidies from the government, then there is little difference between that and the government paying that subsidy directly to the employer so that they can then pay a living wage to their employee.
Bomb:
When you pay your full time employee $7.70/hr and that's not a high enough wage to live on, and that employee has to make up the difference by obtaining subsidies from the government, then there is little difference between that and the government paying that subsidy directly to Alec Baldwin so that he can then pay a living wage to your employee.
And there's one more part: KT says this is an argument for why a subsidy to the employee is a subsidy to the employer.
So what we have is this:
When X works full time for Y and Y is not paying X enough to live on, and X has to make up the difference by obtaining subsidies from the government, then there is little difference between that and the government paying that subsidy directly to Z so that Z can then pay a living wage to X. Therefore the subsidy to X is a subsidy to Z.
Both arguments fit that same structure -- we just fill in different values for the variables.
KT claims the argument is sound when Y equals Z. I gather you agree with him.
We are all agreed that it is unsound when Y does not equal Z.
So help me out here. Point out where in KT's argument there is a reasoning step that goes either:
Inference A: Y = Z. Therefore, since we know fact F about Y, F must also be a fact about Z.
or:
Inference B: Y = Z. Therefore, since we know fact F about Z, F must also be a fact about Y.
If some argument doesn't contain a step equivalent to either inference A or inference B, then whether that argument is sound or unsound can hardly depend on whether Y = Z.
Alec Baldwin is not logically equivalent to "the employer" because Alec Baldwin has no demonstrable relationship to the employee at all. That relationship is implied -- and shouldn't really have to be argued for -- in KT's example by the words "their full time employee"
Yes, yes, we all know KT specified that Y = Z, and that he limited his claim of soundness to the case where Y = Z. But since his argument does not appear to contain either inference A or inference B, for you to propose that the argument is sound when it's used on his Y equal to Z scenario, but unsound when it's used on my Y not equal to Z scenario, is a
"Special Pleading Fallacy".
and, in the broader context of the discussion, because the employer's lack of willingness to pay a living wage is, apparently, due to his finite profit margins.
KT's statement is that the employer's profit margins are the same whether the government gives HIM the money or gives the money to his employees.
None of that changes depending on whether Y equals Z. If Alec Baldwin had infinite profit margins he'd probably be willing to give everyone in the world enough to live on. Alec Baldwin's profit margin is the same whether the government gives HIM the money and he hands it over to your employees or the government gives the money to your employees. So none of that is an Inference A or an Inference B. If you can't explain how Y = Z
matters to the logic of the argument, then you're special pleading.
In every way that counts, the final distribution of the subsidy is exactly the same and winds up in the hands of the employees, and the employer's profit margins remain unaffected.
Good grief, man! How can you not see that's evidence
against KT's contention? In an actual subsidy to an employer, say, in the Dairy Export Incentive Program, the money winds up in the hands of the employer, not in the hands of somebody else. But in KT's argument, what you say is exactly right: in every way that counts, the final distribution of the subsidy is exactly the same and winds up in the hands of the employees, and the employer's profit margins remain unaffected. The net change in the employer's wealth is
zero. If you want to call that a subsidy to the employer, it's a subsidy to the employer of zero dollars and zero cents.
since any reasonable interpretation of KT's previous posts includes the CLEAR implication that he is talking about the economic relationship between employees and employers. The definition of "employer" being "that which has hired the employee and pays the employee a wage." This is not something that needs to be spelled out, and you are CLEARLY intelligent enough to know this.
Yes, yes, we've already established that you have a vast capacity to reply to "What's Phase 2?" with "Phase 1 is steal underpants.".
That KT was talking only about the Y=Z case is not in dispute. What's in dispute is whether there is any reason whatsoever to suppose that the Y=Z case is an exception to the general rule that:
When X works full time for Y and Y is not paying X enough to live on, and X has to make up the difference by obtaining subsidies from the government, then there is little difference between that and the government paying that subsidy directly to Z so that Z can then pay a living wage to X. Therefore the subsidy to X is a subsidy to Z.
is an unsound argument. When you just tell me over and over that he was talking about employers, and you never show me an Inference A or an Inference B that could serve as the required justification for making an exception for the Y=Z case, that's a Special Pleading fallacy.