I'll just address the part of your post that WASN'T a load of horse<expletive deleted>:
You have written a spot-on description of yourself and your entire approach to this discussion:
"Actually, evidence suggests that individuals debating doesn't sway people's opinions the majority of the time. Opinions seem to be based more on the sum of a person's experiences and the interplay of those experiences with their cultural preferences and prejudices. It is very uncommon for people to change their voting habits and political leanings purely because of discussions or debates; quite the contrary, especially for conservatives, debates tend to push people to entrench themselves even more strongly in their preconceived beliefs and become even more skeptical -- sometimes to the point of hostility -- to counter-arguments."
https://talkfreethought.org/showthr...st-do-you-actually-prefer&p=452376#post452376
You have no substantive reason to believe the things you've written about me and my posts. You're simply reacting to a counter-argument you don't know how to refute by becoming hostile and entrenching yourself even more strongly in preconceived beliefs that are based on your cultural preferences and prejudices.
In an actual subsidy to an employer, say, in the Dairy Export Incentive Program, the money winds up in the hands of the employer, not in the hands of somebody else.
In context, we're talking about a subsidy for an employer
to offset the cost of a living wage. This hypothetical subsidy is being compared to the real subsidy to workers in the former of welfare programs.
Calling money the company doesn't get to keep a "subsidy for an employer" over and over doesn't make it one.
The Dairy Export Incentive Program is not a logically valid example in this context, since it does not specifically provide subsidies to companies on the condition that they provide a living wage for their employees.
That's why the DEIP is a subsidy to the company. What is it you think you mean by "not a logically valid example"? You mean it's not the same kind of thing as what you and KT are talking about? That's my point. A subsidy to the company is not the same kind of thing as what you're talking about, and that's because you aren't talking about a subsidy to the company. You're talking about a book-keeping fiction.
KT's point, in the context of the discussion with Loren Pechtel, is that the subsidies for poor workers is equivalent to a subsidy for the company, since the only way the company is able to sustain low wages -- and resulting higher-than-otherwise profit margins -- is because the government is helping to make up the difference for employees who otherwise couldn't sustain that level of pay for any length of time.
In the first place, that's not the argument KT made to me. Even if what you say were a correct argument, it wouldn't change the fact that the argument he made to me was unsound and I proved it was unsound.
In the second place, your argument's premise that wages lower than the so-called "living wage" are unsustainable is thoroughly refuted by history. If your premise were true, then in the centuries before welfare became available to low-pay workers, employers would have had to have been paying the inflation adjusted equivalent of $15/hr (or whatever you currently define "living wage" as) for unskilled labor. They typically weren't. They weren't even paying the equivalent of today's minimum wage -- the point of which after all was to bring wages
up.
And in the third place, you haven't offered any reason we should assume "unsustainable" implies "subsidy".
In my industry, we design a chip and then we manufacture thousands of copies of it. Some of the chips come out according to plan; but inevitably, some of them come out even better than planned and some of them come out not as well as intended. Suppose a chip is designed to run at 2 GHz. Trouble is, we don't have a manufacturing process reliable or predictable enough to make ten thousand chips that all run at 2 GHz. A lot of them run at around 2 GHz, but some of them run at 2.3 GHz and some of them only run at 1.7 GHz. We get chips with a range of quality, and then we sell them. The odd thing is, for some inscrutable reason, we find that customers aren't willing to pay as much for a 1.7 GHz processor as they'll pay for a 2 GHz processor. Go figure. But on the plus side, a lot of customers will pay extra for a 2.3 GHz processor. Let's say it costs us $10 million to make ten thousand chips. If all went according to plan we'd sell ten thousand 2 GHz chips for $11 million and clear $1 million profit. But when 3,000 chips only run at 1.7 GHz and a customer will only pay $500 for one of those, we're down to $9.2 million in revenue. Fortunately, we also have 3,000 chips running at 2.3 GHz, and we can sell those for $1500 apiece, so we're up to $10.4 million, back in the black. But if we consider in isolation just the process of making 3,000 1.7 GHz chips for $3 million and selling those for $1.5 million, that process is not sustainable.
So do you figure this means the people paying $1100 for 2GHz chips, or paying $1500 for 2.3 GHz chips, are subsidizing the buyers of the $500 1.7 GHz chips? Do you think it would make sense for them to protest, and tell the manufacturer it's unfair for other buyers to pay only $500 for a chip that costs it $1000 to make, because it forces the high-end buyers to subsidize the low-end buyers? Should the high-end buyers refuse to buy chips at all until the manufacturer agrees to charge $1000 for the 1.7 GHz chips? And then when the low-end buyers predictably point out that for $1000 a chip they'd bloody well better get at least 1.95 GHZ, what do you figure the manufacturer should do with all those 1.7 GHz chips? Throw them out? Put them on a shelf and take it on faith that eventually somebody will be willing to pay $1000 for them? That is the reasoning you are applying when you jump from the premise of unsustainability to the conclusion of subsidy.