If you have any amount of things that take up a finite space the amount of those things are also finite.
... I also own the real estate beyond that, from 100 to 150 cm to my left; and in addition to those areas, I also have the real estate from 150 to 175 cm to my left, and I have the real estate from 175 to 187.5 cm to my left, and I have the real estate from 187.5 to 193.75 cm to my left, and so forth, forever. Each of those things I have takes up a finite space, and there are an infinite amount of them. Through the power of convergent series, those infinitely many finite things all add up to two meters of space.
Each of what "things"
You have described no "things".
Sure I have: infinitely many slices of space I own. The slices all run in parallel from about 100m west of me to 50m east of me, down several meters to mineral rights territory, and up several meters to airspace territory; I earlier described only those slices' north-south dimensions. If you want me to get pedantic I should probably describe them as bent slices of spacetime, extending back a few years to when I paid off my house and forward a few years to when I sell it or die.
If you have a piece of real estate it's size is finite.
Certainly; all the slices I described are finite; and the sum of those infinitely many finite slices is a finite-sized piece of real estate. Isn't math fun?
There are no infinities in reality. None.
And yet here I sit, owning a real infinity. You might as well tell me via my computer monitor that there are no computer monitors in reality.
Certainly it can be defined using only words, but you're not going to like it.
You have not defined infinity. Not close.
Dude, I defined it; and you claimed I didn't define it
right after you snipped my definition out. What is wrong with you? Feel free to quote my definition back to me and tear it to shreds if you can; but claiming I didn't define it is just a dick move.
For your convenience, here it is again:
A set is defined as "infinite" just in case it can be put in a "one-to-one and onto" mapping with a proper subset of itself.
You have described some aspects of an arbitrary infinite operation.
Not so. There's no infinite operation involved in the above definition. Here, for example, is a "one-to-one and onto" mapping from a set to a proper subset of the same set:
Code:
integer function f (integer x)
if x <= 0
return x
else
return x + 1
(That's the same function I showed in my last post; in that post I gave a fragment of an infinite description of it, but as you can see, it's perfectly possible to give a finite and complete description of the same function.) The function f(x) satisfies all the requirements of the definition: for any integer you put in you'll get an integer out; if you put two different integers in you'll get two different integers out, and the set of everything you can get out of it is a "proper subset" of the set of everything you can put into it, which is to say, there's an integer you can put in that you can't get out of it (in this case the integer 1). That's it. That's the whole thing. It fits in five lines of code and it doesn't contain any loops. Every bit of that operation is finite. So clearly such a function exists for the set of integers. For sets other than the integers, we can do the same sort of operation for some of them, but not for others. Any set for which a function like the above f(x) exists, we call "infinite". Any set for which a function like that one doesn't exist, we call "finite". So how the devil do you figure that isn't a proper definition?
Does it have a definition or not?
Yes, and I've posted the definition, twice now. In what way does it fail to define "infinite".
No infinity can exist.
Propose one and I will explain why it is physically impossible.
I propose the infinite number of distinct points in a finite volume of space, or in a finite amount of spacetime if you prefer to work in four dimensions. (Mathematically, this is the same sort of infinity as the infinity of real numbers between 0.0 and 1.0, which includes all the decimal numbers like 0.532, the rational numbers like 2/3, the algebraic numbers like the square root of 1/2, and the transcendental numbers like 1/pi.)
To say such a set of points in space is "physically impossible" is to claim there's a law of physics that it violates. What law of physics do you imagine it violates?
Based on the laws of physics as we currently know them, including quantum mechanics and relativity, that particular infinity is not only physically possible, but
physically necessary. A volume of space containing only a finite number of discrete points is physically impossible, as far as physicists can currently tell. Physics appears to require space to be continuous.
If space is discrete then relativity is wrong. But relativity has been very thoroughly tested and appears to be right. Therefore, if you propose that relativity is nonetheless wrong, the burden is on you to present an alternative theory of time and space that is both (a) consistent with discrete space, and (b) at least as accurate as relativity at predicting our observations. Break a leg.