KeepTalking said:
Here, let me help you out with that:
First, if a word has different meanings that can be used in different contexts, that does not change the fact that it has a meaning in
this context. Given that you were objecting to my posts, the meaning is given by my usage, not by some other meaning you come up with.
Second, are you saying that by 'argument' you just meant 'claim', or that you equivocated, changing the meaning from post to post, or even within posts?
KeepTalking said:
Can you point out where I did so? I am having some difficulty with trusting your characterization of things that have been said in this thread.
You accused me of feigning ignorance in
this post, in which I made very clear which arguments I was replying to.
KeepTalking said:
Are you under the impression that a fact cannot be presented as an argument?
I do not know why you ask that, but as part of an argument (i.e., arguing a case), one can present facts. And one may or may not argue for those too.
KeepTalking said:
I am not in agreement, and there is no need to resort to a hypothetical analogy, we have plenty of examples of laws and guidelines that are analogous to that which we are discussing.
No, again, it is not meant to be analogous to what we are discussing in the sense of analogous that you consider relevant because you fail to understand the type of reasoning by which I debunked that argument of yours.
KeepTalking said:
I am glad that you think that the others in this thread who already agree with you in this thread will pat you on the back for your tortured analogy, but I'm not buying it.
That is not what I said, but I did not expect you to be persuaded, so that's not a surprise.
KeepTalking said:
Reductio ad absurdum is not the silver bullet you seem to think it is. The reduction in this case does not fit the argument you are trying to show is absurd. Your absurdity tells a waiter exactly what to say in all interaction with any customer. The guideline in question does no such thing. . You can even use the offensive pronouns in the exact situations described (providing employment, public accommodation, and public housing), as long as you do not do so repeatedly and deliberately. In other words, in a manner that is insulting and discriminatory, after having been informed of that fact.
The reductio works for the reasons I already explained. But you still do not understand why it works, or what you say in the paragraph I just quoted in your critique of my reductio fails completely, as it is irrelevant. It's a matter of logic, and it's not difficult. But I am tired of writing the same thing over and over again, so I will just refer readers to
this post.
KeepTalking said:
Angra Mainyu said:
KeepTalking said:
Since you refuse to cite where in the actual law it says anything like that, despite my having linked the text of the law to you, here is a portion of the relevant text:
The actual text of the law is 100% irrelevant when it comes to whether the method you use to rule out that a rule compels speech is correct. Your method is nonsense, as shown.
What you typed above is obviously false. If the text of a law were 100% irrelevant to the implementation of a law (in this case an implementation that may or may not compel speech), then laws
I don't know what goes after "then laws", but in any case, what you wrote above is obviously a gross misrepresentation of what I wrote about. I never suggested that the text of the law is not relevant to the implementation of a law; I was not even talking about whether it was relevant (it obviously is in at least nearly all and perhaps all cases).
You are not replying to my actual claims or arguments. You are not failing to understand them, and replying to what you put into my mouth/keyboard.
KeepTalking said:
Only if you are intentionally reading to avoid comprehension, or singling out that section title and not actually reading the section that follows. Having done both of those things, one would realize that all examples given are of using other pronouns, not remaining silent:
Actually, some examples involve
failing to use certain terms, as quoted. That part of the section actually involved some examples, just less detailed than the ones you consider. But perhaps, this can actually explain some part of the disagreement.
Do you actually believe that the guidelines are not such that people who remain silent would be running afoul of them? . If so, you are just picking and choosing what part of the guidelines to count.
https://www1.nyc.gov/site/cchr/law/legal-guidances-gender-identity-expression.page
(
bold mine):
The NYCHRL requires employers and covered entities to use the name, pronouns, and title (e.g., Ms./Mrs./Mx.)15 with which a person self-identifies, regardless of the person’s sex assigned at birth, anatomy, gender, medical history, appearance, or the sex indicated on the person’s identification.
The guidelines say the law
requires them to use the name, pronouns, title, etc. What else?
All people, including employees, tenants, customers, and participants in programs, have the right to use and have others use their name and pronouns regardless of whether they have identification in that name or have obtained a court-ordered name change, except in very limited circumstances where certain federal, state, or local laws require otherwise (e.g., for purposes of employment eligibility verification with the federal government).
That's pretty clear.
Examples of Violations
a. Intentional or repeated refusal to use a person’s name, pronouns, or title. For example, repeatedly calling a transgender woman “him” or “Mr.” after she has made clear that she uses she/her and Ms.
That is also crystal clear. The fact that they use an example in which different words are used is not the issue.
KeepTalking said:
And here we come to the crux of the matter for you. This isn't about the law compelling speech, if it were you would be decrying racial discrimination laws that can be broken by using insulting speech.
No, that is absurdly false. And racial discrimination laws do not compel speech, though they suppress some speech. But those were not among the laws discussing here. Now, since you insist on this, a bit of a tangent:
Metaphor said:
No: as I've already pointed out, not using a racial slur is materially different to not using pronouns. I've spent the vast majority of the days of my life never using the word 'nigger' or any other racial slur.
KeepTalking said:
Your propensity to use the n-word here, repeatedly and deliberately, says otherwise. But that's fine, your government will not arrest you for doing so, despite their having identified your usage of the n-ward as discriminatory.
No, Metaphor did not do that. Metaphor did not use any racial slurs in this thread, in any sense of 'use' that would be relevant to charging him with racism, "discriminatory" behavior, or anything like it. In fact, in the most common sense of the term 'use' when talking about words (i.e., to use them
as words, using them to mean what they mean, rather than in the context as either reporting what other people said or talking about the words themselves, he did not
use the word 'nigger' or any other racial slur.
There is a Woke religious/ideological belief that holds that if I say (for example) "Metaphor did not use the racial slur 'nigger'", I myself just used the racial slur 'nigger', and engaged in usage of language considered discriminatory by the law you are talking about. Of course, this Woke belief is false.
Back to the previous issue.
KeepTalking said:
Your problem is that you do not believe that the speech is insulting. Like Metaphor, you should try harder to avoid revealing your biases on this issue, as it does not put your argument in a good light.
First, that is false.
Second, that is unwarranted. You are being irrational by believing I do that, as I gave you no good reason to believe that.
Third, I am talking about silence, not speech.
Fourth, when it comes to speech, if you are talking about, say, using the pronoun 'he' to refer to a trans woman, then what do you mean by "insulting"? Do you mean that the trans woman in question will find it insulting? Or that the person using the pronoun intends to insult? If it's the former, probably. If it's the latter, it depends on the case, but in most cases very probably not. If you mean something else, what do you mean? On this note,
I am not remotely trying to avoid any issues; you claim it is insulting; then I challenge you to bring on the arguments.
KeepTalking said:
Thanks for letting me know. By the way, your ideology/religion is the bigoted ideology/religion.
But that is false, and you ought not to believe it - i.e., you are not being rational. In fact, there is no such ideology/religion (and I'm not a bigot anyway). On the other hand, your behavior does provide compelling evidence about your ideology/religion.
KeepTalking said:
Then you should have just stuck with "ideology", using the term "religion" in that manner when referring to an atheist is insulting, but you already knew that.
But if 'ideology' is not equally insulting, then it seems you think there are relevant differences. All the more reason to use 'religion/ideology', to highlight their similarity.
And if by 'insulting' you mean that you will find it insulting, actually I thought that you would find both 'ideology' and 'religion' insulting, though I did not mean to use them to insult you (that was an expected a side effect), but to make a point both to you and to readers about what you were doing when making accusations against me - accusations that you knew or should have known if being rational that I would find insulting,
and with good reason, as they were not warranted on the basis of what I was saying, and were also false.
KeepTalking said:
For the record, I do not consider myself to be a follower of woke ideology, but I do consider transgenders to be worthy of protection against discrimination in employment, public accommodation, and public housing.
It's more than that. But let me test whether you adhere to Woke beliefs on this matter:
1. The Woke believe that if person A sincerely claims 'I am a woman', then person A is a woman. The same goes for claims like 'Soy una mujer' in Spanish, or generally claims in other languages that, when translated into English even in pre-Woke times, would have been translated as 'I am a woman' by competent translators.
2. The Woke believe that if person B denies the belief(s) explained in 1. above, or even if B says B has insufficient evidence to tell, or similar responses, then B is generally transphobic, and hates and/or irrationally fears transgender people, provided that B is adult, not trans, and lives in a free country (there might be some exceptions for members of minorities, depending on the Woke believer).
Do you not hold those beliefs?
Your behavior indicates that on this matter (and several others, involving also gender, sex, race, etc.), you do adhere to Woke beliefs. Your behavior of attacking dissenters with no good reason is also clear evidence.