A person's free-will choice also has objective references (or the will which prompted a choice). The objectivity might be more complicated, just like many other non-physical objects have objective references and are more complicated than a pencil or dog or cat etc. E.g., justice and democracy and peace and happiness are real objects which have objective references but cannot be pointed at like you can point at a pencil or a dog or cat. But they are just as real..
You still apply the term 'free will' arbitrarily.
According to you any application of this term is "arbitrary" because nothing true can be said about it. You condemn any mention of "free will" other than to brand it as unreal and delusion.
If not, then give us an example how the term "free will" can be applied which is not arbitrary. What true statement can be made about "free will" other than to condemn it as unreal?
"Free will" is what we're doing when we do these 3 things simultaneously: 1) make a selection, 2) experience a preference for something (which is the selected item), and 3) have consciousness, or are aware of the preference and the selection. When all these 3 happen together, that selection we make is a free choice, or an act of our free will (or it's free will as long as the choice was not coerced from someone threatening us).
You have not refuted any of this other than to say that the selection/choice made is influenced by something in our brain cells that we're not aware of -- and somehow this negates any part played by free will -- which is false. "Free will" does not mean there can't be something unconscious going on in the selecting/choosing. Even if that unconscious activity did happen and caused the choosing, it does not mean the choice was not a "free will" choice. It can be caused by that unconscious activity (which even happens earlier), and yet the choice is a "free will" choice as long as there was a selection and a preference (for that selected item) and consciousness -- all 3 of these together simultaneously, regardless what may have happened .5 seconds earlier, or even 5 or 10 seconds earlier, before those 3 happened.
When you say this is "arbitrary" you are only doing your circular reasoning -- saying it's wrong because it's wrong. You can't give any reason why this is not what "free will" means. It fits the standard usage of the term "free will"
The decision making process, cognition, is mostly an unconscious information processing that . . .
"mostly"? What does that mean? You have not measured exactly how much of the processing is unconscious and how much conscious. Nor has any scientist measured it objectively and verifiably. You only know that there is both conscious and unconscious processing going on and you're obsessed with the unconscious part. The "free will" is dependent on the conscious part, which has not been measured objectively in any way. All we know is that it's there and plays a role in our making decisions.
. . . mostly an unconscious information processing that informs conscious thought. The decision that is made is determined by unconscious processes that you, the perceived thinker, have absolutely no control over.
What does the perceived thinker have control over? Give an example of something the perceived thinker does have control over. You can't say what the perceived thinker does not have control over unless you also tell us what s/he does have control over. If you say the perceived thinker has no control over anything, then you are just spewing out a tautology, because you define the thinker as having no control.
The conscious part is there, regardless of the unconscious part. Just because there is the unconscious part does not erase the conscious part, and as long as this exists along with the preference and the selecting of the preferred item, there is free choice, or free will taking place. Defining the conscious choosing out of existence does not prove it isn't there. Just because there's more than just the consciousness, or the part one is conscious of, such as impulses or cell activity the chooser is unaware of, does not erase the conscious part, which constitutes free will when it happens simultaneously with the preferring and the selecting.
You are how your brain works.
That's what the "free will" is. It's how the brain works, or how it chooses, when it has consciousness and preferences and selects what is preferred. To say "You are how your brain works" is to say "your free will" is how the brain works when you're choosing.
Which is why you can make a decision that you regret the moment it is made: new information acting within the system altering perspective, etc, etc.
And if that new perspective is acted upon, it's a free will act, because it is selecting, choosing what is preferred, and is conscious of doing this.
It has nothing to do with your will.
Yes it does. It is the free will in process -- it is the choosing, the preferring, and the being conscious of these as they are happening. It has everything to do with your will -- or it is an act of free will. All those added up are the free will performing its function, or it is the choosing process we call "free will" -- or the decision-making which is conscious, going beyond the unconscious part.
It is information processing that selects options based on a given set of criteria.
= free will,
if this processing is accompanied by preference (which is what is selected) and consciousness of the selecting.
Information processing is not free will.
Yes it is, when this is accompanied by consciousness, as I've pointed out a dozen times but which you continue to ignore. And we can add PREFERENCE also as something which accompanies the information processing -- so the one processing has a preference for something, which is then what is selected. You can't give an example where this does not fit the standard meaning of "free will" as this term is commonly used. So free will is the information processing/selecting + a preference for something which is selected + consciousness of this selecting and preferring.
Whereas when the information processing is done
without any consciousness by the one processing and selecting, then it's not free will.
How Can There Be Voluntary Movement Without Free Will?
''Humans do not appear to be purely reflexive organisms, simple automatons. A vast array of different movements are generated in a variety of settings. Is there an alternative to free will? Movement, in the final analysis, comes only from muscle contraction. Muscle contraction is under the complete control of the alpha motoneurons in the spinal cord. When the alpha motoneurons are active, there will be movement. Activity of the alpha motoneurons is a product of the different synaptic events on their dendrites and cell bodies. There is a complex summation of EPSPs and IPSPs, and when the threshold for an action potential is crossed, the cell fires. There are a large number of important inputs, and one of the most important is from the corticospinal tract which conveys a large part of the cortical control. Such a situation likely holds also for the motor cortex and the cells of origin of the corticospinal tract. Their firing depends on their synaptic inputs. And, a similar situation must hold for all the principal regions giving input to the motor cortex. For any cortical region, its activity will depend on its synaptic inputs. Some motor cortical inputs come via only a few synapses from sensory cortices, and such influences on motor output are clear. Some inputs will come from regions, such as the limbic areas, many synapses away from both primary sensory and motor cortices. At any one time, the activity of the motor cortex, and its commands to the spinal cord, will reflect virtually all the activity in the entire brain. Is it necessary that there be anything else? This can be a complete description of the process of movement selection, and even if there is something more -- like free will -- it would have to operate through such neuronal mechanisms.
So? Maybe the free will operates through those mechanisms -- what difference does it make how it operates? It's obviously there, doing its function of choosing, by means of that mechanism. If it's totally confined to those mechanisms through which it operates -- then so be it. The point is that there is consciousness and selecting, and there is selection of a preferred item. That can all be in those mechanisms -- it doesn't matter. It's still free will, regardless how you break it down into those components, or those processes or mechanisms.
Anything can be broken down into more basic processes or mechanisms. That doesn't mean it's unreal.
The view that there is no such thing as free will as an inner causal agent has been advocated by a number of philosophers, scientists, and neurologists including Ryle, Adrian, Skinner and Fisher.(Fisher 1993)''
It makes no sense to say they advocated something unless this means they made a free choice to advocate it.
If they say there's no free will, then they're denying that the above-mentioned "neuronal mechanisms" and processes exist. That free will exists as a causal agent in choosing means simply that somehow the processing mechanisms exist for making decisions, because the combination of the processing/selecting and preferring along with one's consciousness of it is what is meant by "free will."