Lumpenproletariat
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- Basic Beliefs
- ---- "Just the facts, ma'am, just the facts."
We have 4 (5) sources for the Jesus miracles. You cannot huff-n-puff and blow away these sources by fiat.
You're misusing the term "copycat" here. A source which quotes from an earlier source and is describing the same event, applying the description to the same character, is not a copycat. It's just another version of the same thing, such as Mt and Lk using the Mk text, sometimes quoting it, and applying it to the same Jesus character that Mk refers to.
By contrast a "copycat" story is one where the later writer takes the description of a character, from an earlier source, and then applies this to a different character than that of the earlier story. So the later writer is presenting a different character of his own, but using something from an earlier writer who was describing some earlier different character. I.e., the two writers are not speaking of the same character.
Here's an example:
Acts 9:36-42 is a miracle story which really is lifted out of Mark 5:22-24 / 35-42. The similarities between these two healing stories cannot be coincidental. Or rather, the later story almost certainly borrowed elements from the earlier one.
The Acts miracle is attributed to Peter, but the earlier story being copied is of Jesus performing the miracle healing. This is a "copycat" story. The later story is claiming to be an event involving Peter, but major details of it are taken from the earlier account of a Jesus healing act.
The term "copycat" means there is something dishonest or misleading or inauthentic about the later story. The reader believes the story is about a unique event, not something being copied from an earlier story about a different character.
But if the later writer is simply repeating the same story about the same character, and perhaps only modifying it slightly as to a minor detail, then this is not misleading the reader about anything.
The reason for the extra version of the same story, like Mt quoting from Mk, is that the writer is presenting his own separate version of the same event and character, and this either adds something new for readers, because of other points in this version that were not in the earlier version, or this new version is simply to be added to the existing written documents in order to increase the availability of the published information.
The later account is simply a legitimate second version of the same character, to be added to the already published works, i.e., it is a perfectly reasonable addition to the existing records or documents. But to take a description of character A in an earlier account and insert it into a new account about character B, who is a completely different character, is obviously dishonest or misleading and is a fabrication, even if the intention is innocent. In which case the second account has to be regarded as less credible, at least partly fictional.
But it is perfectly reasonable to have extra accounts telling about the same original character being presented. The second version is added to the first in a way that is helpful to readers in giving them additional knowledge, and there is nothing misleading. The second version is just as credible, regardless of its reliance on an earlier account for some of its content.
You mean there cannot be two "sources" for the same event unless the sources are from the same time? How much recorded and accepted history are you trying to throw out? There are many examples of separate sources which are far apart in the date of their appearance. You cannot eliminate a source simply because there's another source that appeared 50 years earlier. The appearance of an earlier source does not disqualify the later writing from being a source.
An example would be Livy and Plutarch both writing about the early Roman king Numa. The writers were about 100 years apart, but both are sources for the life of Numa. It would be asinine to say these are not two separate sources because they are so far apart in their date of appearance.
You need to get beyond your petty prejudice against the gospel accounts as sources which causes you to concoct these false criteria for what is a Real-McCoy "source" and what is not. You continue to make your case by imposing standards onto the gospel accounts which you do not apply to any other writings.
Even if there are "revisions" of one kind or another, the sources are still sources. They do not suddenly cease to be a "source" simply because the accounts have differences in them. And even if they were separated by 100 years this does not mean they are not sources.
Historians use the apocryphal gospels as sources for Jesus, even though they are 100-200 years later. They are less reliable, but if they do not contradict the earlier more reliable sources, they are still given some degree of credibility. There are those who conjecture that Jesus and Mary Magdalene had an affair, maybe even procreated, based on much later "gospel" accounts of Jesus. These accounts are genuine "sources" but are less reliable in the matters where they differ from the 1st-century sources.
There is plenty of doubt about the details of the Jesus events. Much in the earlier 4 canonical gospels can be doubted. Much in Livy's history of Rome is doubted. But a "source" is still a "source" despite the doubts. You can't just throw out an entire source and claim it does not exist simply because there are some doubts about what the real events were.
Some parts of the gospel accounts are probably not true. But even so, these accounts are sources for the events of that period. And that we have 4 (5) sources instead of only one increases the credibility of the reported events where there is agreement among them.
So did Livy and Herodotus and Homer and Shakespeare and Plato and many others. But even so they are all "sources" for the events or people they wrote about. Some parts are discounted or given very low credibility, but other parts are taken seriously, or largely believed, some disputed or rejected as false. But even if this or that claim is rejected as false, that still does not mean that the document is not a source.
We can dispute this or that part, but it is petty and low-class to just throw out an entire document and claim it is not really a "source." All of them are sources, and it's understood that some are more reliable than others, or some parts much more reliable, others much less.
He mentions the most important miracle, which is the resurrection.
He omits biographical details generally, but he says enough that we can conclude beyond doubt that he is referring to the same Jesus Christ figure as is mentioned in the gospel accounts.
He relates the resurrection event, the appearances, naming who saw Jesus afterward. This makes him a source for that event. He also says Jesus was "handed over," which has to refer to the betrayal event. There is no other way to explain what this refers to. So Paul does mention something, Something, even if very little that's biographical. But the omission element does not change the fact that he is a source for the little that he does mention.
No, Paul never says this. He claims to have his own revelations, but it's clear that he's talking about someone who was seen and heard by others. In any case, he is a source for the resurrection event, which is the same event reported in the gospel accounts.
Actually though I'm wrong about something: We really have MORE than only 5 sources for the resurrection, because this is mentioned in most of the other New Testament writings, not just the epistles of Paul and the gospels. So we really have more like 8 or 9 sources for this, though the later ones only refer to it without any narration of it.
And that's the most important part. Just because a writer leaves out what is less important does not mean he's not a source for the part that he does report.
No, you need to produce evidence to show that the gospel writings do not exist. If they exist and date from the 1st century, then they are sources for those events.
As long as you keep blathering that the gospel documents do not exist, I will continue to blather that they do exist.
The difference between the Jesus reported miracle events and the others is not that the Jesus case is unique, but rather, that it cannot be explained as a product of mythologizing as all the other reported cases can be.
This might be unique, but uniqueness per se is not the point.
Lumpenproletariat said:But neither of these applies in the case of "the Jesus myth." We have 4 (5) sources for the Jesus events, and they are not traceable back to a common earlier source, and also there is no example of the gospel writers copying anecdotes about an earlier hero figure and applying it to Jesus.
No we don't. You can keep repeating this baseless assertion and I'm just going to show that it is false. GMark is the only source of this story. Everything else is a copycat.
You're misusing the term "copycat" here. A source which quotes from an earlier source and is describing the same event, applying the description to the same character, is not a copycat. It's just another version of the same thing, such as Mt and Lk using the Mk text, sometimes quoting it, and applying it to the same Jesus character that Mk refers to.
By contrast a "copycat" story is one where the later writer takes the description of a character, from an earlier source, and then applies this to a different character than that of the earlier story. So the later writer is presenting a different character of his own, but using something from an earlier writer who was describing some earlier different character. I.e., the two writers are not speaking of the same character.
Here's an example:
Acts 9:36-42 is a miracle story which really is lifted out of Mark 5:22-24 / 35-42. The similarities between these two healing stories cannot be coincidental. Or rather, the later story almost certainly borrowed elements from the earlier one.
The Acts miracle is attributed to Peter, but the earlier story being copied is of Jesus performing the miracle healing. This is a "copycat" story. The later story is claiming to be an event involving Peter, but major details of it are taken from the earlier account of a Jesus healing act.
The term "copycat" means there is something dishonest or misleading or inauthentic about the later story. The reader believes the story is about a unique event, not something being copied from an earlier story about a different character.
But if the later writer is simply repeating the same story about the same character, and perhaps only modifying it slightly as to a minor detail, then this is not misleading the reader about anything.
The reason for the extra version of the same story, like Mt quoting from Mk, is that the writer is presenting his own separate version of the same event and character, and this either adds something new for readers, because of other points in this version that were not in the earlier version, or this new version is simply to be added to the existing written documents in order to increase the availability of the published information.
The later account is simply a legitimate second version of the same character, to be added to the already published works, i.e., it is a perfectly reasonable addition to the existing records or documents. But to take a description of character A in an earlier account and insert it into a new account about character B, who is a completely different character, is obviously dishonest or misleading and is a fabrication, even if the intention is innocent. In which case the second account has to be regarded as less credible, at least partly fictional.
But it is perfectly reasonable to have extra accounts telling about the same original character being presented. The second version is added to the first in a way that is helpful to readers in giving them additional knowledge, and there is nothing misleading. The second version is just as credible, regardless of its reliance on an earlier account for some of its content.
If the other canonical gospels had appeared at the same time in different places you could at least claim with a straight face there were 4 sources for the Jesus events. That is not the case.
You mean there cannot be two "sources" for the same event unless the sources are from the same time? How much recorded and accepted history are you trying to throw out? There are many examples of separate sources which are far apart in the date of their appearance. You cannot eliminate a source simply because there's another source that appeared 50 years earlier. The appearance of an earlier source does not disqualify the later writing from being a source.
An example would be Livy and Plutarch both writing about the early Roman king Numa. The writers were about 100 years apart, but both are sources for the life of Numa. It would be asinine to say these are not two separate sources because they are so far apart in their date of appearance.
You need to get beyond your petty prejudice against the gospel accounts as sources which causes you to concoct these false criteria for what is a Real-McCoy "source" and what is not. You continue to make your case by imposing standards onto the gospel accounts which you do not apply to any other writings.
Decades separate each subsequent revision of the Jesus myth, . . .
Even if there are "revisions" of one kind or another, the sources are still sources. They do not suddenly cease to be a "source" simply because the accounts have differences in them. And even if they were separated by 100 years this does not mean they are not sources.
Historians use the apocryphal gospels as sources for Jesus, even though they are 100-200 years later. They are less reliable, but if they do not contradict the earlier more reliable sources, they are still given some degree of credibility. There are those who conjecture that Jesus and Mary Magdalene had an affair, maybe even procreated, based on much later "gospel" accounts of Jesus. These accounts are genuine "sources" but are less reliable in the matters where they differ from the 1st-century sources.
There is plenty of doubt about the details of the Jesus events. Much in the earlier 4 canonical gospels can be doubted. Much in Livy's history of Rome is doubted. But a "source" is still a "source" despite the doubts. You can't just throw out an entire source and claim it does not exist simply because there are some doubts about what the real events were.
Some parts of the gospel accounts are probably not true. But even so, these accounts are sources for the events of that period. And that we have 4 (5) sources instead of only one increases the credibility of the reported events where there is agreement among them.
. . . and we know for certain that whoever wrote those later versions were liars. They lied about Herod, they falsified genealogical records, they fabricated stories of earthquakes, eclipses, private conversations they couldn't possibly have knowledge of, etc.
So did Livy and Herodotus and Homer and Shakespeare and Plato and many others. But even so they are all "sources" for the events or people they wrote about. Some parts are discounted or given very low credibility, but other parts are taken seriously, or largely believed, some disputed or rejected as false. But even if this or that claim is rejected as false, that still does not mean that the document is not a source.
We can dispute this or that part, but it is petty and low-class to just throw out an entire document and claim it is not really a "source." All of them are sources, and it's understood that some are more reliable than others, or some parts much more reliable, others much less.
Your (5) is (I'm guessing) the authentic Pauline epistles, which we know did not mention a single miracle Jesus performed nor a place he visited, . . .
He mentions the most important miracle, which is the resurrection.
He omits biographical details generally, but he says enough that we can conclude beyond doubt that he is referring to the same Jesus Christ figure as is mentioned in the gospel accounts.
. . . where he lived, any of his teachings, nothing. Nothing.
He relates the resurrection event, the appearances, naming who saw Jesus afterward. This makes him a source for that event. He also says Jesus was "handed over," which has to refer to the betrayal event. There is no other way to explain what this refers to. So Paul does mention something, Something, even if very little that's biographical. But the omission element does not change the fact that he is a source for the little that he does mention.
Jesus was a nebulous voice talking to Paul and nobody else.
No, Paul never says this. He claims to have his own revelations, but it's clear that he's talking about someone who was seen and heard by others. In any case, he is a source for the resurrection event, which is the same event reported in the gospel accounts.
Actually though I'm wrong about something: We really have MORE than only 5 sources for the resurrection, because this is mentioned in most of the other New Testament writings, not just the epistles of Paul and the gospels. So we really have more like 8 or 9 sources for this, though the later ones only refer to it without any narration of it.
Paul only ever talks about the death and resurrection of Jesus. That's it.
And that's the most important part. Just because a writer leaves out what is less important does not mean he's not a source for the part that he does report.
You can demonstrate I'm wrong about any of this by producing actual evidence.
No, you need to produce evidence to show that the gospel writings do not exist. If they exist and date from the 1st century, then they are sources for those events.
Otherwise you are doing nothing but blathering the same debunked stuff over and over.
As long as you keep blathering that the gospel documents do not exist, I will continue to blather that they do exist.
A completely unique lie is still a lie.
The difference between the Jesus reported miracle events and the others is not that the Jesus case is unique, but rather, that it cannot be explained as a product of mythologizing as all the other reported cases can be.
This might be unique, but uniqueness per se is not the point.
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