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120 Reasons to Reject Christianity

No there is not. Just as there is no reason to believe that Hanuman was a flying monkey king who could tear up large mountains from their roots, even though his exploits are better documented than the Jesus mythology.

Why don't you ever provide the documentation when you make these claims?

I did provide a citation in an earlier post which you ignored:

http://talkfreethought.org/showthread.php?3071-120-Reasons-to-Reject-Christianity&p=263655&viewfull=1#post263655

Hanuman (/ˈhʌnʊˌmɑːn, ˈhɑːnʊ-, ˌhʌnʊˈmɑːn, ˌhɑːnʊ-/; Hanumān in IAST);[1] also known as Mahavira or Bajrangbali, is a Hindu god and an ardent devotee of the god Rama. He is a central figure in the Hindu epic Ramayana and its various versions. As he is Chiranjeevi, he is also mentioned in several other texts, including Mahabharata, the various Puranas and some Jain texts. vanara (monkey), Hanuman participated in Rama's war against the demon king Ravana. Several texts also present him as an incarnation of the god Shiva. He is the son of Anjana and Kesari, and is also described as the son of the wind-god Vayu, who according to several stories, played a role in his birth.

The Ramayana alone has over three hundred versions. Hanuman is also featured in other texts including the Mahabharata, the various Puranas and some Jain texts. Hanuman is MUCH better documented than Jesus.


When did Hanuman reputedly live? And when were the earliest documents written which tell about him?

No serious historian seriously believes that Hanuman actually existed and performed supernatural acts like flying and tearing up mountains, even though hundreds of millions of Hindus worship him as a god. Just as no serious historian believes that Jesus rose up from the dead and floated up into the sky, even though hundreds of millions of Christians believe that he did.

If you don't know answers to basic questions like this, or cannot provide this to us, then you cannot claim it's better documented than the Jesus miracle events.

I have provided citations in a previous post which you ignored. Just as you have ignored all the refutations of your absurd claims that have been posted in this thread.

Jesus reputedly lived about 30 AD and is documented in written records from about 50-100 AD. These documents do exist and those dates are reliable.

Who wrote these documents? When? Where? Stop making up shit and provide citations to support your claims. The only document that describes supernatural acts performed by Jesus is the Bible, and there is no evidence to support these claims.

Why can't you give similar dates for these other mythic hero figures, pagan legends, Hindu myths, etc.?

I did, as have many other posters in this thread. Stop hiding behind your lies.

We have this information for Apollonius of Tyana and Simon Magus and Mohammed and others. And in all such cases the miracle legends do not appear in writing until many generations after the reputed events. And usually in only 1 or 2 sources.

Does any serious contemporary historian believe these claims are factual? Does any serious contemporary historian believe that Jesus rose up from the dead and floated up into the sky. Stop making up shit and answer this question.

Also, who did you you ignore the rest of my post, where I called you out for making up shit? Explain what kind of critical thinking led you to conclude that corpses can come to life and float up into the sky. Explain why you keep making the claim that historians routinely believe supernatural stories. Explain why no historian of the time saw fit to document the supernatural acts of Jesus. We all know you are not going to do any of those things. All you do is repeat the same tired shit you made up a year ago. Shameless Christian!
 
The Jesus miracle stories are more credible than those of Perseus, Joseph Smith, etc. etc.

The single most plausible explanation of the existence of the "Jesus" myth is that the character evolved from a variety of sources with extraordinary details (miracles) added as the story grew over decades of retelling. The single most unlikely explanation for the existence of these stories is that everything happened exactly as described . . .

Then why aren't there several of these Jesus myths? Why aren't there other characters, other names, in other places, where the same story unfolds and we would have several of them instead of only this one?

There are.

I've named several already but will name some again:

Horus, Osirus, Perseus, Promethus, Mithras, Hercules, Bacchus.

Each of these epic hero-god myths was around for centuries before their stories were reheated with your favorite hero-god's name inserted in place of their names.

But these are not historical persons, or alleged historical persons, who reportedly did miracle acts. My claim is that the accounts we have of Jesus performing these acts is evidence (not proof) that he did these acts, which indicates that he had super-human power. And there are no other cases of such miracle-workers in history, i.e., actual historical persons, for whom we have evidence.

Perseus and Hercules were alleged historical persons. Demonstrate otherwise. Their stories were set on planet earth with actual locations.

OK, they were believed (by many) to be historical persons, and maybe they really were historical and the miracles were added later as they were mythologized.

More importantly, there is no written record of them any time near to when the believed miracle events happened. When the only accounts are something many centuries later, even more than 1000 years later, we should dismiss the miracle accounts as fiction.

Also, there is nothing in the Jesus miracle events which is based on these earlier pagan myths. We cannot explain where the Jesus miracle stories came from. They popped up too soon after his life for them to be attributed to the normal mythologizing process which we see with Perseus and Hercules and so on. Such myth-making requires centuries to develop, not just a few decades. The Jesus "myths" emerged within 30 or 40 years after he lived, which puts him in a totally different category than these pagan myth legends.


So there is no evidence that Horus, Osiris, etc. were historical persons who performed miracle acts. But there is evidence that Jesus had such power because of these reported acts that he did. That's how he differs from the gods you're citing. They are not analogous to him.

There is absolutely no evidence that Jesus was a historical person.

Of course there is. We have more evidence for him in history than we have for hundreds, even thousands of historical figures we take for granted. We believe historical persons existed because we have sources, documents, written accounts, attesting to their existence. This is the evidence we have for virtually ALL historical figures (prior to modern times).

Of course there are major figures like Caesar and Pericles and others for whom there is more evidence, more sources, but for most figures of history, who are not as prominent, there are far fewer sources, and there are many minor figures for whom there's only 1 or 2 sources. For Jesus we have more evidence than this, so that he was an historical person is more established in the record than for those minor figures who are taken for granted.

And also there are legendary figures for whom there is evidence, and they probably existed, like Zarathustra and King Arthur and William Tell and so on (for whom there is less evidence than we have for Jesus), and it's perfectly reasonable to believe they really existed, though there is some doubt. That there is doubt in some cases does not mean the historical figure did not really exist. More likely is that the person did exist as a real historical figure, but the emerging "legend" took on fictional elements in a gradual mythologizing process.


There is strong evidence that the miracle acts of Jesus were made up.

No, there's no such evidence at all. There are some difficulties with the gospel accounts, as with many historical documents, but no "evidence that the miracle acts of Jesus were made up."


Evidence that has been presented again and again, and which you continue to ignore. The evidence is, once again:

The earliest writings that talk of Jesus were the authentic Pauline epistles, in which Jesus was talked about in vague terms, never mentioning any act that he did, any place he visited or any time frame in which he supposedly lived.

That's true of many historical figures. That's no "evidence" that anything was "made up."

However, there is plenty in the Paul epistles to identify Jesus with the same figure as in the gospel accounts. That Paul omits biographical details in no way means the events did not happen, including the miracle acts. And Paul does mention the resurrection, which is the most important of all the Jesus miracles.

Paul names certain persons who saw Jesus after the resurrection, and these named persons are the same as mentioned in the gospel accounts. It's clear that Paul is speaking of a recent historical person, and, though he gives virtually nothing biographical, he says enough to identify his Christ person as the same figure who is presented in the gospel accounts.

He says things about Jesus which had to refer to a real person who lived recently in history. Such as referring to Jesus as the "brother" of James, and other points which clearly identify his Jesus as a real historical person.

For at least 30 (more like 40) years from the alleged time frame in question nobody wrote down anything that would make this figure an historical one.

You mean anything which has survived. There surely were other writings, but none that survived, as 99% of all documents did not survive. So, more correctly:

For at least 30 (more like 40) years from the alleged time frame in question [nothing written has survived] that would make this figure an historical one.

But that can be said of HUNDREDS or even thousands of historical persons prior to 1000 AD, persons who really existed and are recognized as historical persons, while the first written record of them doesn't appear until 50 or more years later.

But you have to change your number to 20-30 years, because Paul says many things that clearly assume Jesus was an historical person. An explicit reference is:

1 Corinthians 2:6-8
Yet among the mature we do speak wisdom, though it is not a wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are doomed to perish. But we speak God’s wisdom, secret and hidden, which God decreed before the ages for our glory. None of the rulers of this age understood this; for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.

It's clear in this text that Paul is speaking of someone crucified by recent earthly rulers. This was written about 56 AD, less than 30 years from the event.

And along with this there are even earlier writings by Paul identifying Jesus and the resurrection, making this a recent historical person, from about 20 years earlier.

But it's true that often an historical figure is not written about until 50 or even 100 years after he lived. This is not any indication that the person in question did not exist or that the reports are fictional, or that anything was "made up."


Every source for this "historical figure" was written anonymously by people who did not claim to be witnesses, nor did any of them claim to have talked to anyone who was a witness of any of this stuff.

Paul is a source, not anonymous, and he did claim to have talked to witnesses, who are named by him, i.e., James, Peter, John.

But also the gospel accounts are credible sources, and that they are "anonymous" and not from direct witnesses does not undermine their credibility, and it's nutty to call this "strong evidence that the miracle acts of Jesus were made up."

One might believe they were "made up" (based on the premise that ALL miracle stories must be made up), but there is no "evidence" that they were made up, rather only a premise that all such stories must have been made up. You have to stop confusing "evidence" with your dogmatic premise. You're entitled to your premise, but not "evidence" which is based only on your premise. For evidence you need some established facts, not just a dogmatic premise.


The life story that emerged once people did start claiming he had lived in recent history was suspiciously similar to the well-known myths about "Sons of Jupiter," . . .

No, there is nothing similar to any such myths. Many times these analogies have been made, but no example is ever given. No example can be cited showing any serious similarity between Jesus and the earlier myths. (Possible exception would be the birth/early childhood stories of Mt and Lk, which is all you can point to. Not anything relating to the miracle acts of Jesus.)

The only way to make this claim is to just say that ANY miracle story whatever is "similar" to the gospel account of Jesus. You could just as easily say there are similarities to the Chinese or Hindu or Mayan myths. Or any miracle myths no matter what. Just as you could say that Superman is similar to Zeus or Apollo etc. Or even a real figure like Davy Crockett or Ted Williams, after being mythologized, is similar to some ancient hero legend.

. . . so much so that Justin Martyr not only mentioned the similarities, . . .

No he did not. He never said there were similarities. Perhaps he thought in some sense that there was an analogy, but he did not say there were similarities, nor did he name any similarities.

. . . but apologized that "Satan must have known this was going to happen and planted these other stories to subvert the one true one when it did come out."

That's a very poor paraphrase of what he said. Rather, he said Satan invented the pagan stories and that these are fiction, whereas the miracles of Jesus were real historical events. He drew this contrast between them, never saying there was any similarity. It's possible he thought there was some point of comparing them, as if they were analogous, but he never draws any analogy or states any "similarity" to the pagan myths.

It is ludicrous to suggest that a quote like this is some kind of "strong evidence that the miracle acts of Jesus were made up." There is no such evidence. You reject these miracle accounts only because you have a premise that no such stories can possibly be true. Other than this dogmatic premise, you have no "evidence."


That some mythic symbols also became attached to Jesus is irrelevant. Why did they choose only Jesus to attach these symbols to? Where are the other reputed historical figures who became mythologized like he did? They could find only one figure to whom they could attach these symbols?

Even if the Jesus myth was the only one that ever followed this pattern it would not make the story more worthy of rational people believing the miracle claims happened.

Yes it does make the "Jesus myth" more credible, because there needs to be an explanation why they chose only this Jesus figure to make into a new miracle legend. There were many other would-be miracle figures who could just as easily have been mythologized this way. Why were no others similarly mythologized and made into a "messiah" or "savior" or copy of those pagan myths?

There has to be an answer to this, and a reasonable answer is that Jesus actually did perform these acts of power, so that the miracle reports are true, rather than fiction. And other such stories, of which we have little or no written account, and which were fiction, did not attract the same attention, and those alleged miracle-workers were not mythologized because they did not have any such power and so were dismissed and not taken seriously. Or in other cases some hero figure did become mythologized and published, but only after a long process of storytelling which spanned many generations or centuries.

The charismatics who really had no power were dismissed simply because they were normal charlatans or hoaxes, whereas Jesus really had power and did perform those miracle acts. This answers why we have a written record of the Jesus miracles but little or no record of the other mythic miracle heroes.

What is a better answer to our question? The only reason to reject this answer is that you impose the dogmatic premise that there can be no miracle acts whatever -- period. Except for that dogmatic premise, the hypothesis that he really did have power is the best answer.


People believe miracle claims because they want to . . .

But why didn't they want to believe all the other miracle claims? There were plenty other miracle pretenders and gurus and "savior" heroes to choose from. Why did people want to believe ONLY THE JESUS miracle claims?

. . . or out of ignorance and superstition, . . .

But why was their ignorance and superstition limited to ONLY THIS one miracle legend such that it was the only one that spread and became published in multiple documents, and not any others? There were easily hundreds of other gurus and mythic hero pretenders and "messiah" figures running around to feed on their ignorance and superstition, not only this one.

. . . not because there is any rational reason to believe them.

A better answer is that they believed in this case -- to the point of publishing a written record about him -- because this time the miracle claims were more credible than the dozens or hundreds of other miracle claims, which were not credible.

This is a better explanation, because to just attribute it to superstition and ignorance, or to their wanting to believe it, fails to answer why they did not believe the other miracle claims, or why no one wrote anything down about all the other cases, if all the others were just as credible as the Jesus miracle claims.

The best explanation is the one which best answers the questions. The question is: Why did they publish written reports about the Jesus miracle claims and copy these reports into accounts to be preserved for the future, but they did not do the same for the hundreds of other miracle claims or miracle-worker legends or heroes?

And the answer is: The Jesus miracle reports were more credible. This answers the critical question.


That is the exact reason I copied the Justin Martyr quote which you evidently didn't read (or comprehend). The quote doesn't imply that Jupiter was a man, it implies that Martyr was aware of many similar myths about Roman god-men who were "sons of Jupiter" whose story lines followed virtually identical paths to the one attributed to your favorite hero-god myth.

But there is no evidence that those gods did perform any miracle acts, and they were not even historical persons. The legends about them obviously evolved over many centuries and are not based on reports written during their lifetime (if they did live 1000 years earlier as real persons), and so there is no comparison between them and the historical Christ person of 29-30 AD. Nothing about them is any evidence that the Jesus accounts are untrue.

The evidence that these god-men were historical figures and performed marvelous acts is exactly as good as the evidence that your favorite god-man lived and performed marvelous acts.

No, there is no such evidence. The Jesus evidence is the several documents written about him from 30-70 years after the reputed events. There is no such evidence as this for the pagan myth heroes. Documents written this soon after the events are evidence. Much of our history is based on such evidence. But documents written 1000+ years after the alleged miracle event are not acceptable evidence that the event happened.


Towns in which Perseus and Hercules lived were mentioned in their stories.

You have to name the locations and dates (APPROXIMATELY, not exactly). Cite the text which gives that information, just as we have the location and date of the Jesus events in the gospel accounts. We need to have some indication of when and where an historical figure lived in order to believe the reports.

But secondly, we also need to know the approximate date of the earliest known written record of this historical person. We know the gospel accounts are dated from about 65-100 AD. We need a written record of the historical person which is less than 1000 years after he lived. Or less than 500 years.

You do not have such documentation for Perseus and Hercules and the other myth heroes. Stop claiming there's evidence for them which is "exactly as good as the evidence" for the Jesus events. 1000 years after the alleged events happened is not "exactly as good" as 30-70 years after the events. When will you finally get serious?


People with whom they interacted were mentioned in these stories.

That helps, if those characters are established as real persons, such as John the Baptist is established as a real person, but you still have to establish where and when the events happened, and when the documents reporting them were written.


Hercules once held the sky on his shoulders, an absurd a claim as Jesus looking at all kingdoms of the earth from an exceedingly high mountain.

We have far more detail than this about the location and date of the Jesus events. Even if there is some metaphor in the gospel accounts, there are real events at real known locations happening at about 30 AD.


Perseus was able to use the cloak of Hades to run around in public completely invisible to everyone around him. He used the decapitated head of Medusa to rescue Andromeda in Phoenicia. He showed it to the Krakon, a horrid sea monster Poseidon had sent to devour Andromeda, which immediately turned the Krakon into stone. Later he stormed the castle of Polydectes in Seriphus in an attempt to rescue his mother from being forced to be a sex slave to Polydectes. Once he had gained entry to the castle he again used Medusa's head to turn Polydectes and his court into stone.

When did it happen, and when were the documents written which tell us about it? Did all this happen in "Phoenicia"? We have this kind of information about the historical Jesus, i.e., the approximate locations and dates.


Perseus and Andromeda had seven sons and two daughters and their descendants eventually became the Persians, growing into a mighty empire that conquered the Babylonians.

It sounds like the date of this had to be prior to 1000 BC.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perseus
The two main sources regarding the legendary life of Perseus—for he was an authentic historical figure to the Greeks— are Pausanias and the Bibliotheca, but from them we obtain mainly folk-etymology concerning the founding of Mycenae.

Bibliotheca is 100-200 AD, way too late. The name Pausanius is too common, but he has to be later than 500 BC.

Obviously there is no source for this that is any less than 500 years from the reputed events, and probably even 1000 years.

You need to stop horsing around with silly examples like this. Anyone with half a brain or more can see the difference between a reported historical person/event who is 1000 years earlier than any written record of him, and a figure for whom there are written records less than 100 years and even less than 50 years after the reported events.

When will you stop this horseplay and get serious?


You keep having to draw increasingly tiny circles around your favorite god-myth in an attempt to extricate it from the context in which it is found.

I've asked for the "context" many times and you cannot give it. There is nothing in the pagan myths that has any connection to the "Jesus myth" except in the same sense that you could connect Superman or Davy Crockett or William Tell to the pagan myths. Just because there is a miracle event or heroic deed, does not make it connected to those earlier myths. (Again, you can make a slight case for comparison of the birth/early childhood narratives to the pagan myths, but that's all.)


These arbitrary criteria you cite are truly irrelevant.

You mean, to determine whether a reported event really happened, it is "irrelevant" when the written reports were written? A source 2000 years later is just as reliable as a report 50 years later? You mean Shakespeare is just as reliable for the Julius Caesar events as Cicero or Tacitus is?


It doesn't matter whether the stories found themselves in written form within 50 years of when they allegedly happened or 100 years, 500 years or 1000 years.

At this point, you are conceding something: For anyone who disagrees with you here and who believes that Cicero is more reliable for Julius Caesar than Shakespeare -- such a person does have reason to believe the Jesus miracle stories are more credible than those of Perseus.

So, are you conceding that we have more evidence for the Jesus miracles than we have for the Perseus miracles, assuming that a source 50 years later is more credible than a source 1000 years later?

The only reason you are saying the Perseus stories are just as credible is that you also believe that Shakespeare's account of Caesar is just as reliable as Cicero's. The separation of time from the events to the reports of it are IRRELEVANT according to you. You are entitled to believe this if you insist. But don't you recognize that there are many people who do think that the closer proximity of time does make the written account more credible?

And for those who do think this time span is relevant, it is clear that the Jesus miracle stories are more credible than the Perseus miracle stories.


Truth is we have no way to determine when the Perseus story was first written down, . . .

No no no no no no no -- Don't try to pull a fast one! -- you're not being asked for the very first written account of Perseus, but rather, for the first one that has survived and which we have available to us today.

We also don't know when the first Jesus account was written. This isn't what we rely on. We have written documents now in museums, and these are what we rely on. And we have these for Perseus. And you know that the earliest we have is many centuries, probably more than 1000 years, later than the actual events. And that's why we do not believe the Perseus miracle events.


. . . but we have many written variants of it extending back hundreds of years before your favorite god-myth was ever thought about.

Of course, because the actual events go back probably 2000 years. And you believe those accounts are just as credible as ones written within 100 or 50 years, just as you believe Shakespeare is just as credible as Cicero for the events about Caesar. But for those who believe the time distance does matter for judging the credibility, the credibility of the gospel accounts is greater for the miracles of Jesus than any accounts we have for the miracles of Perseus.



(to be continued)
 
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(to be continued)
Why in the name of Gozer would you say that?
Don't you mean, to be repeated?
just as you believe Shakespeare is just as credible as Cicero for the events about Caesar.
Any chance you can back that up?
That you can find ANYONE crediting Shakespeare as a credible historian giving an account of Caesar?
 
Why the biblical stories about the last days and hours of Jesus are probably not true

by Bart Ehrman

Widely challenged today is the age-old view that the Gospels are accurate reports written by disciples of Jesus (Matthew and John) or companions of the apostles (Mark, the secretary for Peter; Luke, the traveling companion of Paul). For one thing: whatever else one might say about the Gospels, they were written by unusually well-educated authors from outside of Palestine who composed their works in relatively high-level Greek. Jesus’ own followers were illiterate Aramaic-speaking peasants from rural Galilee.

How then did the later Gospel writers acquire their materials? How did they know about the Triumphal Entry, the cleansing of the Temple, the betrayal of Judas Iscariot, the trial before Pilate, and the rest? The scholarly answer: they knew these stories the way virtually all ancient Christians knew them. Someone told them.
 
hey, Lumpy? Why does Jesus appear to the Faithful these days with holes piercing his hands?

If he had the miracle power to raise the dead, if he was so divine that he had, as Deadpool puts it, 'the cure for everything,' why didn't he fix the holes in his own hands and the spear-hole in his side?

Wouldn't that be kind of like a psychic who can tell you what stocks to invest in and who to marry, but doesn't see the police coming to arrest her for fraud? Or the mentalist who can tell me what job my sister has in 'a large city in the South' but can't find his car keys after the show?
 
No no no no no no no -- Don't try to pull a fast one! -- you're not being asked for the very first written account of Perseus, but rather, for the first one that has survived and which we have available to us today.

We also don't know when the first Jesus account was written. This isn't what we rely on. We have written documents now in museums, and these are what we rely on. And we have these for Perseus. And you know that the earliest we have is many centuries, probably more than 1000 years, later than the actual events. And that's why we do not believe the Perseus miracle events.

No, the reason we do not believe the Perseus miracle events is exactly the same as the reason we don't believe the ridiculous stories about other god-men doing miraculous events. It's because there is no evidence any of these miracles actually happened. It is trivially easy and always has been to invent stories about people doing miracles. Stories about miracle abound in every religious tradition on the planet. It has never been possible to produce evidence that the miracles occurred.

Like all dubious miracle stories the myths about Jesus left absolutely no shred of tangible evidence. If Jesus had moved a mountain or turned a fig tree into an indestructible titanium statue rather than healing anonymous people who disappeared into the black hole of lore we wouldn't be having this discussion. You could point to the neatly severed base of the mountain and give your god-man credit for it. This would be especially strong if contemporary observers untainted with agenda to promote the god-man had also observed the phenomenon and were obviously perplexed by it. Instead all you have is myths written by people who never saw any of it themselves, did not ever claim to have talked to anyone who saw it for themselves, and believed this bullshit because someone else told them about it. The exact same reason people believed Marshall Applewhite, Joseph Smith, J.Z. Knight and thousands upon thousands of other bullshitters who have bullshitted their way through the annals of history. And as if that weren't bad enough your stories originated 1500 miles safely removed from the places where the events allegedly happened and no less than 40 years removed. And they contain known lies. What in the hell more does one need in order to see just how spurious all this stuff is?

The only thing getting people to believe it is sincere looking priests making heaps of money by selling it to people. How folks don't understand the conflict of interest is beyond me. And I used to be one of the folks selling it. We all do stupid things we regret though, so I try not to beat myself up too much about it.
 
hey, Lumpy? Why does Jesus appear to the Faithful these days with holes piercing his hands?

If he had the miracle power to raise the dead, if he was so divine that he had, as Deadpool puts it, 'the cure for everything,' why didn't he fix the holes in his own hands and the spear-hole in his side?

Wouldn't that be kind of like a psychic who can tell you what stocks to invest in and who to marry, but doesn't see the police coming to arrest her for fraud? Or the mentalist who can tell me what job my sister has in 'a large city in the South' but can't find his car keys after the show?

Richard Carrier wrote about that, and it had a big impression on me as I was deconverting. The whole business with the breaking of the legs is odd.

The point of crucifixion was to kill a person slowly, and in public. If the Romans wanted you dead quickly, they put you against a wall and threw spears at your chest.

But for some idiosyncratic reason, Pilate was deeply sensitive to Jewish holidays and rituals and felt it would be unseemly to have a crucified person still hanging on after sundown. Earlier in the day, they had offered Jesus liquid to drink, so as to prolong the suffering, but all of a sudden he has to be dead and quick.

One way to end a crucified person's life quickly is to break his legs. Then he can't lift up his body weight, his chest constricts, and he suffocates. So according to the Gospel of John, the Roman soldiers go to break his legs to make Jesus die. But they don't bother breaking his legs because he's already dead. So then they stab him to make Jesus die.

This is contradictory and unexplainable behavior. But it might have a symbolic meaning, if Jesus is supposed to be a symbol of the Passover Lamb. One of the requirements is that Passover Lambs not have any broken bones. Ergo, Jesus shouldn't have any broken bones either.

Had Jesus' legs been broken as a matter of course, then he would have had to crawl on useless legs to let Doubting Thomas investigate him along with sticking his fingers into Jesus' nail holes. Because it wouldn't make sense for Jesus' resurrection to heal his broken legs but not the nail holes and spear wound.
 
just as you believe Shakespeare is just as credible as Cicero for the events about Caesar.

Any chance you can back that up?

Yes. Atheos said: "It doesn't matter whether the stories found themselves in written form within 50 years of when they allegedly happened or 100 years, 500 years or 1000 years."

OK, Shakespeare was more like 1600 years later. I assume Atheos also meant 1500 or 2000 years. But if he meant to draw a sharp line at 1000 years, then you can replace the Shakespeare example with something closer.

By saying that the time span between event and later written account doesn't matter for judging the credibility, Atheos is in effect saying Shakespeare is just as credible as Cicero for the life of Caesar.


That you can find ANYONE crediting Shakespeare as a credible historian giving an account of Caesar?

Atheos said the time gap doesn't matter, which applies to any example if he doesn't indicate otherwise.

And there's nothing wrong with using Shakespeare as a source for this. It's just that the earlier source is more credible.

More important: Are the sources for Perseus just as credible as the sources (the gospel accounts) for the Jesus events? The sources for Perseus are likely more than 1000 years later than the actual events (assuming Perseus was an historical figure who became mythologized).

Atheos is saying that this time gap of 1000+ years, between the historical Perseus and the first written accounts about him, does not make the account any less credible than an account 50 years later, such as the accounts about Emperor Vespasian (who allegedly performed 1 or 2 miracles), which are 50 years after his life, or the gospel accounts which are 40-70 years after the Jesus events.
 
The Jesus miracle stories are more credible than those of Perseus, Joseph Smith, etc. etc.

(continued)

Truth is also that the dates of the Jesus gospels themselves are hardly confirmed.

Even granting some latitude, the documents are generally agreed to be within 100 years. For the resurrection, the Paul epistles are surely agreed to be mostly in the 50s AD. This dating is "confirmed" as well as it is for MOST historical documents which we rely on.

Once again, and again and again, you give arguments which, if applied consistently, would require tossing out MOST of the historical record.

Why are you unable to give reasons for doubting the Jesus events which are not also reasons for scrapping most of the historical record?


We have no physical copies of any of it that can be confirmed to be earlier than the 3rd century.

And again, all your complaints against these accounts, if applied to other historical records, would require tossing them all out. Hardly any manuscripts are closer to the actual events than the gospel accounts are to the events of 30 AD. It is typical for manuscripts to be dated 1000 years later than the actual events reported, or than the dating of the original document written by the author.


We know for certain that much of the content was edited and changed even after the earliest copies we have . . .

The changes are all minor. There is nothing that undermines the credibility of the documents generally. There is nothing wrong with the fact that there are some editing changes, or some additions, that take place in the copying process. There are enough manuscripts by now to ensure that only minor changes have occurred, mostly in spelling, seldom actual changing of the sentences. But where the sentences are changed, it is nothing of substance. You can't give any example of a change which undermines the general credibility of the accounts.

Even if some additions are found which are inaccurate and are discounted, that does not undermine the general credibility of the accounts. The Jesus quote in Mark 16:18 saying that the disciples would be able to handle snakes and drink poison without being harmed is surely a later addition and not an early text or authentic quote of Jesus. And there could be other quotes falsely attributed to Jesus. But this does not negate the general credibility of the accounts. One can reasonably believe the general account while discounting certain dubious details or quotes.

. . . and can only imagine how much they might have mutated before that.

You can give no example of any change that casts doubt on the credibility of the accounts. They have remained substantially the same as more manuscripts are discovered and added to the record. There are many text variants, but all minor in substance.


Your case gets weaker the more it gets looked into.

No, it gets stronger. New manuscripts are discovered and always show the same result, which is that the text does not get substantially changed.

When the oldest confirmed fragment was discovered, a piece of the John Gospel, the text of it was word-for-word the same as the known text at that time. There are no substantial changes. The copyists generally were careful to preserve the text they copied from. This has been proved repeatedly, even though there are minor variations.

As to the changes that Mt and Lk made to Mk, their work was not that of copying Mark, but using it as a source for helping to produce their own account. This is legitimate and does not cast doubt on their credibility. If a "discrepancy" appears, it's OK to speculate on which version is the more credible. This does not undermine the general credibility of the accounts.


I'd also encourage you to actually click on the link to the "Miracles of Joseph Smith" before embarrassing yourself yet another time with your lack of knowledge of the subject matter at hand. Since you evidently can't be bothered to do so I'll quote a brief portion of the article:

Healing

According to a number of eye-witness accounts, Joseph Smith is credited with the miraculous healings of a large number of individuals.

  • Oliver B. Huntington reported that, in the spring of 1831, Smith healed the lame arm of the wife of John Johnson of Hiram, Ohio. This account is corroborated by the account of a Protestant minister who was present. However, he did not attribute the miraculous healing to the power of God.
  • Smith related an experience in which he said the Lord gave him the power to raise his father from his deathbed in October 1835.
  • Smith related another experience, occurring in December 1835, in which he said the Lord gave him the power to immediately heal Angeline Works when she lay dying, so sick that she could not recognize her friends and family.
  • In his personal journal, Wilford Woodruff recorded an event that occurred on July 22, 1839 in which he described Smith walking among a large number of Saints who had taken ill, immediately healing them all. Among those healed were Woodruff himself, Brigham Young, Elijah Fordham, and Joseph B. Noble. Woodruff also tells of how, just after these events occurred, a ferryman who was not a follower of Smith but who had heard of the miracles asked Smith to heal his children, who had come down with the same disease. Smith said that he did not have time to go to the ferryman's house, but he charged Woodruff to go and heal them. Woodruff reports that he went and did as Smith had told him to do and that the children were healed.

All the Joseph Smith reputed healings were of his disciples only, and are reported only by his disciples. All of whom were heavily under the influence of Smith's charisma for several years.

By contrast, the Jesus healings were not of his disciples, but outsiders not of his cult, and were reported by onlookers who were not his disciples.

Joseph Smith did all his healings as part of a long religious healing tradition, i.e., all done in the name of Jesus, which was a religious tradition dating back several centuries.

But by contrast, the Jesus miracle healings cannot be connected to any religious miracle healing tradition which his followers believed in.

Nevertheless, if there are cases where a faith-healer, like Sai Baba, or Rasputin, or Joseph Smith, or other healer-guru in fact does heal someone, as probably Rasputin did, there is nothing wrong with that. If Smith did heal someone, that does not negate the healings that Jesus did 2000 years ago.

Some other cases of healing miracles have probably happened. If the evidence is there, as you're saying is the case with Joseph Smith, then fine -- maybe it really did happen.

If you really believe there is a convincing case of this, you should present the evidence for it, the original text, and explain how it appears to be convincing. The gospel accounts give such events, and there are enough cases, believed by these separate sources, all believing that it happened, telling the situation in each case -- and the victims healed are not disciples of Jesus. They tell of crowds coming to Jesus, bringing the sick and infirm, who are healed.

If there is similar evidence for other miracle healers, then maybe they also had such power.

But no one has presented the examples of it, i.e., not the original text which reports the events. You have to give the reports near to the time of the event, not just give a Wikipedia article 200 years after the event.

Some early text has been quoted here, but the real examples seem to be very few. The humor of this is that if you finally do present a convincing example, the response to that is that maybe Joseph Smith really did have some healing power. So what's the point?

You do not refute the Jesus miracles by showing evidence that someone else also did similar acts. So far I've not seen any convincing case other than that of Rasputin, about whom the reports are from persons who were not his disciples, nor was the victim one of his disciples. So there's reason to believe he had power to heal one child of a blood condition.


Please note that the "evidence" in this case is of considerably greater quality than the evidence you keep presenting about Jesus.

No, you're not giving the original text. An article 200 years later is not evidence. Your refusal to provide the actual text indicates that you don't believe there's any serious case.

The text of the Jesus miracles can be presented, and the case made, even if one chooses not to believe it. However, the Joseph Smith miracles seem to not be worth presenting for some reason. The reason surely is that they are not convincing. Simply a disciple praying to be healed, or being prayed for by his guru, is not a convincing case. This happens in thousands of churches and cults, as a normal religious experience, just as the pagan disciples prayed before statues of their Asclepius deity.


Assuming we have the two accounts of the first case, which is not clear, then for this one there are two sources, and one of them qualifies it by saying the healing did not come from "the power of God," which makes it questionable. Why would he say this if he didn't think there was something suspicious about it?

Nevertheless, if there really are two written sources for this, then I'd say this is evidence that Joseph Smith may have performed a healing in this case, or an unusual recovery took place that is coincidental. If there were many other healing acts reported about Smith, with more than one source, then it should be taken seriously. I wouldn't dismiss it out of hand. Though it looks like this one healing event would be the only one with any credibility.

The other two examples you give have only one source each, and one of those sources is Joseph Smith himself, which hardly is sufficient. The last example is impressive, but there is only one source for it, so it fails to meet the reasonable standard that we must have more than one source.

I do not discount the possibility of other miracles happening in isolated cases. There are many faith-healing stories. Of all the thousands or maybe millions of healing stories through the centuries, I believe there is likely some truth for a few cases, though 99% of them are no doubt just coincidence or examples of "hits" while at the same time there are 10 times as many "misses" that go unmentioned.

It is normal for believers to attribute miracle healings to their pastor or teacher-guru, such as to Joseph Smith, and most of these are just the "hits" that are noted while the "misses" are ignored. The preacher has a strong reputation among his followers and so becomes mythologized, as a result of his reputation. This did not happen in the case of Jesus, who did not have a long career in which to establish his reputation like the standard preacher-guru does.

Since Joseph Smith had only 10-15 years to establish his reputation, I will grant that he is more unique and so there is extra evidence that he might have had something beyond normal power. Maybe it was entirely charismatic, or I would not rule out the possibility that he could have had some healing power. But we should have more examples than these ones given above.

If he did have some healing power, it seems to be quite limited, if these are the only reported cases. He was a well-recognized public figure, which helps explain it. Plus, we should expect there to be some normal praying-healing stories with any highly successful preacher-religious founder, so this doesn't seem to be an irregular case of this.

Whereas for a teacher-healer whose career was less than 3 years, a great number of miracle acts reported in multiple sources is highly irregular and requires an explanation.

Much ado about nothing. You keep appealing to "multiple sources" as if the existence of more than one anonymous variant of the Jesus story somehow bolsters the content. It doesn't.

Yes it does. The credibility is increased as additional sources attest to the same or similar event.


Anonymous documents are not "source" material, they are hearsay evidence.

Virtually all sources for historical events (more than 1000 years ago) are hearsay evidence.

Once again, your standards for what is credible would disqualify MOST of the historical record. Again your only way to reject the gospel accounts is by imposing criteria by which we must reject most or all the standard historical sources.


The later anonymous writers used GMark's material, which hardly qualifies them as independent sources . . .

The term "independent" means very little here. There is nothing wrong about quoting from an earlier source. It does not make the later source any less reliable. For the part they are quoting, they are only adding their affirmation that this earlier source is reliable. This adds a small increment of credibility, but the addition by the later source of further reports, different but similar to the earlier, then adds to the earlier source to show us that the reports generally had an unusually higher degree of credibility than was the norm for miracle claims.

Mt and Lk have plenty of content which is NOT from Mark. It's perfectly OK for them to add Mark to their other sources. These later writers believed the miracle stories, i.e., accepted them as historical events, not just because Mark reports it, but also because their other sources report similar events. All this ADDS to the credibility -- does not SUBTRACT from it.


. . . even if we knew who these people were, . . .

We don't know "who these people were" for most of the historical record for 2000 years ago. Just because there's a name attached does not mean we KNOW who wrote it. There's much doubt about many of the writers we depend upon for the history we believe and take for granted. Having more information (like having a name attached) is nice, but it adds very little to the credibility.


. . . where they got their information and had actual copies of their original writings. We don't.

Once again, you are making demands on the gospel accounts that are not imposed onto other documents for historical events. There's virtually no such thing as "actual copies of their original writings." It's ludicrous that you make such demands. No historical documents, other than for modern history, meet this criterion.


On the other hand, the attestation to the miracles of Joseph Smith are courtesy of signed witnesses.

You're talking about the ones who saw the gold tablets or whatever it was. These were not a miracle, unless they grew wings and flew away or something, which they did not.


We actually do have independent corroboration of the existence of Smith that doesn't come from the same source as the documents that claim he performed miracles.

Again, we have attestation of the existence of Jesus in the famous Tacitus quote and the 2 Josephus quotes, and of the latter, at least one is authentic, and the notorious one probably did mention Jesus in its original form, even if the text got distorted later.

Most historians also believe the Suetonius quote from The Twelve Caesars is a reference to the same Jesus Christ figure. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suetonius_on_Christians

But also, if Joseph Smith had lived in the 1st century, we would have nothing about him, because hardly anyone got recorded in writing that far back. In modern times it's different, with the advanced publishing industry. So there's little point to making this comparison between a 1st-century and a 19th-century figure.


The fact that some of these claims are from what can arguably be called "hostile sources" actually bolsters the credibility of the account.

But the Joseph Smith miracle accounts are NOT from "hostile" sources. All the victims he allegedly healed were disciples of his, and all the reports are from his disciples.

The one exception to the above is from a woman who was a disciple at the time she witnessed the alleged miracle, but who later repudiated the Smith cult. So her report of her earlier experience may have some credibility. However, her account is difficult to take seriously.

If you think there is a serious account, from a credible witness, present it here -- give the original text, or the earliest text available. You'll probably find the anecdotes unconvincing and not worth quoting as something to make a case for credibility. All but that one, from the ex-Mormon woman, are from his disciples only, or from Joseph Smith himself.

If any of the claims are credible, give the original text relating the event. If you continue to not give such an example, this Joseph Smith analogy is not to be taken seriously. The anecdotes are very lengthy and cumbersome, slow to get to the point and state the actual healing act. The poor quality of the anecdotes is indicated by the continued failure of anyone to post any example here.

But even so, when all is said and done, if you can provide a convincing example, from credible witnesses, then so be it -- maybe he really did have some limited healing power in some cases. It can't be ruled out.

But no one contributing to this message board has yet provided a credible example, quoting the original text for the reported event. It appears no one really takes the Smith miracles seriously.


If you could produce something hostile (or even merely skeptical) written about Jesus that was contemporary to the time frame he is claimed to have lived you'd have a solid case that he was an historical person.

There are very few historical figures (prior to modern times) for whom we have written evidence contemporary to the time they lived. Maybe for some of the major political figures, or rich and powerful persons, there is such evidence, but for the 99.9% who had no recognized status there is generally nothing written at the time they lived. Rather, the only record is 50 or 100 years later for minor figures.

The Tacitus quote is a negative depiction of Jesus, but it's from 70-80 years later.

But millions of people did exist about whom nothing was written. Or only something favorable was written. We don't need to find something "hostile" about an historical figure in order to confirm that he existed. Apollonius of Tyana really existed, but everything about him that we have is favorable. There's nothing about him until about 100 years later. But he did exist, and he probably had some faults, but only favorable stuff was recorded for us.


You cannot because such corroboration does not exist.

There were millions of real people for whom "such corroboration" does not exist. The absence of "such corroboration" is not any evidence that they did not exist, or that the stories about them are unreliable


And what does exist is nothing but anonymous stories written by people who gush to paint the picture of this immaculate individual who had no flaws.

No, there are implied "flaws" which Jesus had, suggested in the gospel accounts. One is the charge that he used the power of Beelzebul to cast out demons (Mt. 12:22-24). Another negative report of him is the "Rejection at Nazareth" story, which almost certainly originates from the very beginning, around 30 AD.

This odd story (Mk 6:1-6) says Jesus was unable to perform any miracle in Nazareth, even though it also says that the people there who rejected him were confounded by the "miracles" or "mighty deeds" he performed. However this story is explained, it shows clearly that Jesus was reputed to be a miracle-worker from the beginning, in 30 AD.


(to be continued)
 
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Any chance you can back that up?

By saying that the time span between event and later written account doesn't matter for judging the credibility, Atheos is in effect saying Shakespeare is just as credible as Cicero for the life of Caesar.
In effect?
I didn't ask for you to put words in people's mouths. I was kind of suspecting/accusing you of doing just that.
I wanted evidence anyone thinks that Shakespeare's plays are actually useful as historical accounts.
 
Wow. I can't tell if Lumpenproletariat is really as dense as his treatment of what I said implies or if he's just being deliberately obtuse.

Cicero is a well-evidenced contemporary of Julius Caesar. Even so if Cicero had written that Julius Caesar was capable of levitating or walking on water I'd suspect what he wrote. It is possible to believe that Cicero might have written some real things about Julius Caesar but embellished the story. People do that.

Julius Caesar is also well evidenced by absolute mounds of archaeological and written evidence, a significant portion of which can be dated to his actual lifetime and in the very same cities in which he was reported to live.

Shakespeare wrote plays hundreds of years later and included a character based a well known historical figure. If the first reports we had about Julius Caesar were the character in his play we'd have every reason to assume the character was a fabrication. Shakespeare didn't know the character and had never met him.

Ironically it has been theorized by some (and their justifications seem reasonable) that GMark may have started off as a play as well. An embellished story about a god-man that ended in tragedy. Euhemerization was a well-established cultural norm by then, which is the process of taking a mythological person (most often a god) and placing them in an historical setting.

It is extremely unlikely that whoever wrote GMark had ever met Jesus personally (assuming Jesus was an historical person). It is for certain that whoever wrote this neither claimed to have seen any of it for himself, and that the writer(s) did not claim to have met or talked with anyone who saw any of this for themselves. The story of Jesus the Magic Jew was about a person who had lived a long time ago in a land far, far away.

It is possible that the Jesus myth started from stories about an actual itinerant preacher and got exaggerated. Over 40 years and countless retellings by the time it got to Rome the Jesus myth had absorbed nearly all of the same sorts of miracle acts that had been attributed to other god-men and gods over the centuries. The whole point is we just don't know. But we do know that it is orders of magnitude more likely that stories got made up than that a man actually walked on water, multiplied morsels of food into enough to feed thousands, controlled the weather with a command, healed paralytics, blindness, leprosy, etc., and floated off into the sky never to be seen again.

You have been presented over and over again with the real way historical analysis is done and you continue to ignore it. Historians do not take documents at face value, especially if they contain unlikely events such as flying elephants, levitating people or Krakens. Your arguments are circular and pointless. You've never dealt with the fact that the Jesus myth was written by anonymous people living thousands of miles removed from the scenes at which the events allegedly occurred in addition to decades removed. The events written down in these myths were not written by anyone who claims to have seen these things for themselves, nor do they imply they were written by anyone who knew anybody who saw any of these things.

They believed these things (assuming they did) because someone else who was convincing told them they happened. Same reason you believe them.
 
The Jesus miracle accounts are MORE CREDIBLE than the Perseus miracle accounts -- (should not be difficult to figure out)

By saying that the time span between event and later written account doesn't matter for judging the credibility, Atheos is in effect saying Shakespeare is just as credible as Cicero for the life of Caesar.
In effect?
I didn't ask for you to put words in people's mouths. I was kind of suspecting/accusing you of doing just that.
I wanted evidence anyone thinks that Shakespeare's plays are actually useful as historical accounts.

There's plenty of historical value to Shakespeare's plays. But, I'm suggesting, more for the time period in which he lived than for 1500 years earlier. Are you having trouble grasping this?

That longer time span is supposed to be irrelevant to judging the credibility of the account, according to you (if you agree with Atheos). According to Atheos, an account 50 years after the event has no more credibility than an account 1000 years later.

That Shakespeare wrote plays does not mean he knew nothing about history. He's a legitimate source for Henry VIII and others, and even for earlier events. But can't you understand the point that a much later source is not as credible as a source close to the time of the events? Are you guys having a problem figuring this out?

It's not that he wrote plays that makes him less reliable (for Caesar), but that he's 1500 years removed.

So now, can I get you to admit something that should be obvious: Isn't it wrong to say that an account 1000 years later is just as credible as an account only 50 years removed? Why are you having so much trouble dealing with such a simple point?

Let me "draw a diagram" for you:

Jesus miracles -- about 50 years intervene --> gospel accounts.

Perseus miracles -- 1000+ years intervene --> first accounts about Perseus.

long period, i.e., 1000 years is much longer than 50 years. Do you understand?

0 -- 50 -- 100 --- 200 --- 300 -- etc. -- 500 --- 700 -- increasing quantity going upward -- 1000 -- etc.
 
Real historical figures became mythologized into gods (not gods mythologized into historical figures).

Ironically it has been theorized by some (and their justifications seem reasonable) that GMark may have started off as a play as well. An embellished story about a god-man that ended in tragedy. Euhemerization was a well-established cultural norm by then, which is the process of taking a mythological person (most often a god) and placing them in an historical setting.

No, you can give no example of this.

The process was the opposite of what you're saying here. I.e., they took a real historical person and made him into a god or mythic hero figure:

Euhemerism is an approach to the interpretation of mythology in which mythological accounts are presumed to have originated from real historical events or personages. Euhemerism supposes that historical accounts become myths as they are exaggerated in the retelling, accumulating elaborations and alterations that reflect cultural mores. It was named for the Greek mythographer Euhemerus. In more recent literature of myth, such as Bulfinch's Mythology, euhemerism is termed the "historical theory" of mythology. Euhemerus was not the first to attempt to rationalize mythology in historical terms, as euhemeristic views are found in earlier writings including those of Xenophanes, Herodotus, Hecataeus of Abdera and Ephorus.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euhemerism

I.e., the theory is that real historical persons, such as Jesus, or earlier pagan figures who were historical at first, were later mythologized into something superhuman.

There's much evidence to show that this mythologizing process took place many times. There are many examples.

However, there are NO EXAMPLES of a god-myth getting mythologized into a historical figure. You wish this to be the case, but there is no example of it. It's the REAL EVENTS, or real persons who happen first in history, and then certain of these who were heroic in some way became mythologized into something superhuman, and that's where the "gods" or other superhuman heroes originated.

Sorry. That's just the facts -- you'll have to take your theories back to the drawing board.
 
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The Jesus miracle stories are more credible than those of Perseus, Joseph Smith, etc. etc.

(continued)


The "Rejection of Jesus at Nazareth" story is a reported flaw of Jesus.

If the gospel accounts are pure propaganda to promote Jesus, fabricated 30+ years later, how do you explain this story about Jesus, which suggests there was a flaw to his power?

Mark 6:1-6 -- The Rejection of Jesus at Nazareth

He left that place and came to his home town, and his disciples followed him. On the sabbath he began to teach in the synagogue, and many who heard him were astounded. They said, ‘Where did this man get all this? What is this wisdom that has been given to him? What deeds of power are being done by his hands! Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary and brother of James and Joses and Judas and Simon, and are not his sisters here with us?’ And they took offence at him. Then Jesus said to them, ‘Prophets are not without honour, except in their home town, and among their own kin, and in their own house.’ And he could do no deed of power there, except that he laid his hands on a few sick people and cured them. And he was amazed at their unbelief.

The phrase "And he could do no deed of power there, . . ." is a negative statement.

Also, the Luke version adds something which was clearly an original negative critique of Jesus:

Luke 4:16-29 -- The Rejection of Jesus at Nazareth

When he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up, he went to the synagogue on the sabbath day, as was his custom. He stood up to read, and the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was given to him. . . . [he reads a text] . . . And he rolled up the scroll, gave it back to the attendant, and sat down. The eyes of all in the synagogue were fixed on him. Then he began to say to them, ‘Today this scripture has been fulfilled in your hearing.’ All spoke well of him and were amazed at the gracious words that came from his mouth. They said, ‘Is not this Joseph’s son?’ He said to them, ‘Doubtless you will quote to me this proverb, “Doctor, cure yourself!” And you will say, “Do here also in your home town the things that we have heard you did at Capernaum.” ’ And he said, ‘Truly I tell you, no prophet is accepted in the prophet’s home town. But the truth is, there were many widows in Israel in the time of Elijah, when the heaven was shut up for three years and six months, and there was a severe famine over all the land; yet Elijah was sent to none of them except to a widow at Zarephath in Sidon. There were also many lepers in Israel in the time of the prophet Elisha, and none of them was cleansed except Naaman the Syrian.’ When they heard this, all in the synagogue were filled with rage. They got up, drove him out of the town, and led him to the brow of the hill on which their town was built, so that they might hurl him off the cliff.

The Luke version contains the repudiation, "Doctor, cure yourself!" This clearly was some kind of rebuke at Jesus, in its original form, which Luke presents here in an ambiguous context.

The Mark version makes it clear that in the early form, this episode was circulated around as a story about the inability of Jesus to perform a miracle in Nazareth, which is also indicated in the above Luke version. This has to be the original meaning. The synoptic gospel writers included it, not because they were promoting the Jesus reputation as Savior or miracle-worker, but because they had this in their sources and felt obliged to include it, showing that they were willing to include something contrary to their instinct that Jesus had unlimited power.

However this episode is explained, it clearly indicates two points:

1) As early as 30 AD Jesus was reputed to be a healer or miracle-worker, and

2) the gospel writers/editors/redactors felt an obligation to include anything in their account that was in their sources, even if it contained something negative about Jesus, or something detracting from their depiction of Jesus as having superhuman or divine power.

This episode makes no sense unless it is assumed that it originated early, and that Jesus was reputed to be a miracle-worker who performed these acts in most places, or in most situations, while this episode says he was unable to do this in Nazareth on this occasion, for some reason.

In Mark and also in the Matthew version (Mt 13:54-58), the writer/editor tries to soften the original claim that Jesus had lost his power in this case by saying that still he did perform some "mighty deeds" there, thus actually contradicting the clear statement in Mark, that "he could do no deed of power there."

Obviously the gospel writers want to present the best depiction of Jesus they can, but they still felt compelled to include this NEGATIVE report, which obviously was of very early origin. This shows their objective goal of telling what happened truthfully, and yet also their additional (propaganda?) goal of making Jesus look good. Both these aspects of these writers are shown here in this "Rejection at Nazareth" story. They did NOT exclude something negative.

You can use this story to downplay Jesus as a miracle-worker, and yet you cannot use it this way without also admitting that he was reputed to be a miracle-worker right from the beginning and that therefore this tradition was not a later invention by the gospel writers or other believers.


And you continue to have to vacillate between him having to be this obscure individual who nobody knew about (so you can extricate him from more famous people who had epic legends grow up around them) and having all these people so dead-sure certain that he was this great miracle worker when if he was so freaking obscure and unknown there wouldn't have been anyone around to be so certain of it.

"this obscure individual who nobody knew about . . ."

No, actually he was NOT so obscure. He became widely reputed within the local region -- "His fame spread everywhere" (Mark 1:28). But this lasted for only a short time, 3 years at most.


Was Jesus OBSCURE, or was he a FAMOUS person?

This is an important point. What we know for sure is that there is no record, outside the gospel accounts, of him being famous. But it's possible that he had the wide recognition or notoriety (of Mark 1:28) for a short time, within that region. For a limited region and a short time period it could easily have happened without gaining mention in the non-Christian sources.

The gospel accounts make it clear that this "fame" was due to his performing the miracle acts, which are emphasized in connection with this fame they mention.

So, it's ONLY IF HE DID PERFORM THE MIRACLE ACTS that he had this fame. If he did not do these acts -- they are fiction only -- then probably the "fame" is also fictional.

So here's the point: IF he did NOT do those acts, you are assuming he was really an obscure figure of no wide repute. I.e., he is a fiction, or he was obscure, of no importance, but became mythologized somehow into an important or famous person.

So if you propose this theory that he did no miracle acts -- i.e., these are fiction only -- then you are also proposing that he was an obscure figure without any wide reputation.

In which case you need to explain how an obscure person of no importance became mythologized into a deity, or miracle-working hero, which is something that never happens. ALL mythologized hero figures, who started out as normal humans, were persons of importance or high status or fame. They may have been "normal" humans but not AVERAGE humans. They had some outstanding qualities or high status or distinction of some kind. An ordinary obscure figure does not get mythologized into a god-hero legend.

Name the example: Apollonius of Tyana was a distinguished person, William Tell was a distinguished hero, King Arthur (if he existed) must have been a great warrior hero, St. Nicholas was a famous rich person who performed noted acts of generosity. And so on. ALL the great mythologized figures began as someone famous or distinguished for displaying some special features.

But for Jesus there is nothing to indicate what he was distinguished for (if he did no miracle acts), and his career was too short -- he cannot be compared to all the others who had long distinguished careers. The miracle acts could explain his "fame" (probably limited fame within that region). But if he did NOT do any such acts, then we have no explanation how he could have been famous, and he probably was not, because the same source saying he had this "fame" also says he performed the miracle acts.

So the point is not that he was necessarily obscure -- we don't know if he really had the "fame" mentioned in Mark and Matthew. But if your theory is that there were no miracle acts, then your theory also has to be that he had no fame but was an obscure figure, in which case you have to explain how such an obscure figure could have later become mythologized into a god.

Obviously he was not obscure 30-40 years later, but we're concentrating here on the period of 30 AD, when he either did or did not perform the miracle acts. If he did not, then what happened, after he was gone, that turned him into a god? How does an obscure person who did nothing of note when he was alive later get turned into a god? This is what needs an explanation, but which no one so far has answered.


Either all these people were simply taking someone else's word for all this stuff or all of them knew it first hand . . .

It's both. It was word-of-mouth, believing someone else who said it, and also some of them witnessing it first-hand. Obviously many never saw him directly but heard reports from others. Either way there was plenty of reason for them to believe it and to assume this case was different than the usual faith-healer charlatan stories, of which there were many, as always. But in this case it was different.


. . . and he was a much more popular figure than you make him out to be. You can't have it both ways.

Within that region his fame did spread. This continued for possibly 3 years. But it could not spread widely throughout other countries in so short a time. There could easily have been some written accounts, but nothing that would be copied or distributed widely. It was all oral reports for many years, until eventually a serious effort was made to record the events for posterity.


(to be continued)
 
In effect?
I didn't ask for you to put words in people's mouths. I was kind of suspecting/accusing you of doing just that.
I wanted evidence anyone thinks that Shakespeare's plays are actually useful as historical accounts.

There's plenty of historical value to Shakespeare's plays. But, I'm suggesting, more for the time period in which he lived than for 1500 years earlier. Are you having trouble grasping this?
So, now shifting the goalpost on Shakespeare and his use as a historical source for the existence and life of Caesar.









Gosh. What a surprise.
 
No, you can give no example of this.

The process was the opposite of what you're saying here. I.e., they took a real historical person and made him into a god or mythic hero figure:
Now if you just had some actual evidence of this baseless assertion you'd be convincing. You don't. It's just your opinion and it's a popular one. Popular doesn't mean right.

Euhemerism is an approach to the interpretation of mythology in which mythological accounts are presumed to have originated from real historical events or personages. Euhemerism supposes that historical accounts become myths as they are exaggerated in the retelling, accumulating elaborations and alterations that reflect cultural mores. It was named for the Greek mythographer Euhemerus. In more recent literature of myth, such as Bulfinch's Mythology, euhemerism is termed the "historical theory" of mythology. Euhemerus was not the first to attempt to rationalize mythology in historical terms, as euhemeristic views are found in earlier writings including those of Xenophanes, Herodotus, Hecataeus of Abdera and Ephorus.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euhemerism

I.e., the theory is that real historical persons, such as Jesus, or earlier pagan figures who were historical at first, were later mythologized into something superhuman.

There's much evidence to show that this mythologizing process took place many times. There are many examples.

However, there are NO EXAMPLES of a god-myth getting mythologized into a historical figure. You wish this to be the case, but there is no example of it. It's the REAL EVENTS, or real persons who happen first in history, and then certain of these who were heroic in some way became mythologized into something superhuman, and that's where the "gods" or other superhuman heroes originated.

Sorry. That's just the facts -- you'll have to take your theories back to the drawing board.

Seriously? You didn't actually read the rest of the WIKI article you quoted? Later in the same article it describes how Euhemerus placed Zeus into an historical setting, claiming he was once an earthly king. Euhemerus was known for taking ancient myths and fabricating historical settings for their origin. That's exactly the same thing I'm suggesting could have happened with your Jesus myth. Look, I'm not saying this is what did happen, I'm saying it could have happened. My point all along is that we don't have enough evidence to draw a conclusion about what actually did happen. When there is not enough evidence to know for sure what happened it is only reasonable to leave open the possibility that we don't know. It is the height of non-scholarship to pick a scenario and claim we know that's what happened. In fact I'd go one step further and say that it's dishonest to do so.

Since you have no evidence that Jesus was an actual person and certainly no evidence that the miracle-working Jesus described in the gospels was as described, and since even you cannot possibly claim with a straight face that the people living in Rome circa 65-70 A.D. were personally familiar with activities that took place by an obscure enough individual to have never made a single blip in the local region's historical record, who had died 40 years earlier in a land 1500 miles away, it is fair to say that the people in Rome were following a myth - a story told to them by a convincing story teller containing fantastic claims about a magic Jew. Euhemerism is taking that fantastic story and placing it in an historical setting. Which is exactly what could have happened here. All you have to do is produce some contemporary evidence that Jesus was an actual person living in and around Jerusalem and dying circa 33 A.D. in order to eliminate that possibility. Produce that evidence.

And no, I don't have ready access to examples of people who theorized that GMark started off as a play, but it was presented in previous discussions on this very board in BC&H (Biblical Criticism & History, which is now defunct). I'm not saying this is a well accepted scenario, and it certainly is not. We also had a guy there (Mountainman) who argued that Constantine invented christianity from whole cloth - he runs a website even now at http://www.mountainman.com.au/essenes/. We had a guy there (Judge) who vociferously argued that GMatt was originally written in Aramaic instead of Koine Greek. Don't tell me nobody has ever made a particular argument unless somehow you have the miraculous ability to know every argument and position anyone has ever put forth.

And for the umpteenth time, unique doesn't mean true. Even if Jesus is the only example ever of a mythologized god-man whose exploits were placed into near history it doesn't somehow make the story true. I don't disbelieve the Jesus myth because it was written hundreds of years later than the claimed events. I disbelieve it because the evidence (anonymous tales originating in or around Rome) is insufficient to warrant believing the very extraordinary claims in these tales. I know how easy and common it is for people to make up stories about miracles. I know how every time someone makes up such a story it has turned out that upon rigorous investigation there was no actual miracle, just a perfectly rational explanation of something people were mistaken about or it was a complete hoax from the get-go. Stories get made up overnight. People with an agenda can quickly fabricate reams of stories. There is no arguing that pimping christianity was profitable for the pimps. Always has been and always will be. You've got motive, you've got opportunity and voila you've got this.

Until you can demonstrate that it was impossible for J.Z. Knight to perpetrate her completely unique scam and make millions, for Marshall Applewhite to perpetrate his completely unique scam and make millions, for Mohammad and Joseph Smith to fabricate completely unique stories and sell them so effectively you cannot demonstrate that it was impossible for "Paul" to do the same thing. Paul used "distance" for the same purpose that J.Z. Knight and others used "time." Prove otherwise.
 
Wow. I can't tell if Lumpenproletariat is really as dense as his treatment of what I said implies or if he's just being deliberately obtuse.

Cicero is a well-evidenced contemporary of Julius Caesar. Even so if Cicero had written that Julius Caesar was capable of levitating or walking on water I'd suspect what he wrote. It is possible to believe that Cicero might have written some real things about Julius Caesar but embellished the story. People do that.

Julius Caesar is also well evidenced by absolute mounds of archaeological and written evidence, a significant portion of which can be dated to his actual lifetime and in the very same cities in which he was reported to live.

Shakespeare wrote plays hundreds of years later and included a character based a well known historical figure. If the first reports we had about Julius Caesar were the character in his play we'd have every reason to assume the character was a fabrication. Shakespeare didn't know the character and had never met him.

Ironically it has been theorized by some (and their justifications seem reasonable) that GMark may have started off as a play as well. An embellished story about a god-man that ended in tragedy. Euhemerization was a well-established cultural norm by then, which is the process of taking a mythological person (most often a god) and placing them in an historical setting.

It is extremely unlikely that whoever wrote GMark had ever met Jesus personally (assuming Jesus was an historical person). It is for certain that whoever wrote this neither claimed to have seen any of it for himself, and that the writer(s) did not claim to have met or talked with anyone who saw any of this for themselves. The story of Jesus the Magic Jew was about a person who had lived a long time ago in a land far, far away.

It is possible that the Jesus myth started from stories about an actual itinerant preacher and got exaggerated. Over 40 years and countless retellings by the time it got to Rome the Jesus myth had absorbed nearly all of the same sorts of miracle acts that had been attributed to other god-men and gods over the centuries. The whole point is we just don't know. But we do know that it is orders of magnitude more likely that stories got made up than that a man actually walked on water, multiplied morsels of food into enough to feed thousands, controlled the weather with a command, healed paralytics, blindness, leprosy, etc., and floated off into the sky never to be seen again.

You have been presented over and over again with the real way historical analysis is done and you continue to ignore it. Historians do not take documents at face value, especially if they contain unlikely events such as flying elephants, levitating people or Krakens. Your arguments are circular and pointless. You've never dealt with the fact that the Jesus myth was written by anonymous people living thousands of miles removed from the scenes at which the events allegedly occurred in addition to decades removed. The events written down in these myths were not written by anyone who claims to have seen these things for themselves, nor do they imply they were written by anyone who knew anybody who saw any of these things.

They believed these things (assuming they did) because someone else who was convincing told them they happened. Same reason you believe them.

I still want to know what part of outer space Jesus flew to when he used his super levitation powers.

Of course people of the time found this part of the story was reasonable; they believed that the sky was a solid dome, so to them it made sense that Jesus would use his super flying powers to travel to the dome, on top of which was heaven.

But what is the excuse of modern Christians? They know darn well that the sky is not a solid dome. They also know what is (and more importantly isn't) in outer space, yet we are supposed to believe this was a factual historical account?
 
But what is the excuse of modern Christians? They know darn well that the sky is not a solid dome. They also know what is (and more importantly isn't) in outer space, yet we are supposed to believe this was a factual historical account?
Well, Lumpy, for one, is quite comfortable throwing out those parts of the biblical account which might be difficult to rationalize.
He doesn't offer any real way to tell which parts are and are not historical, beyond apparently deciding anything he doesn't want to believe in isn't important to accept in order to get into Heaven.

That's why he concentrates on healing miracles, raising the dead, as a direct proof for life after death. It doesn't make a lot of sense, keeping people out of any and all afterlives does not validate any of the afterlife superstitions, nor is it evidence that Jesus knew how one got to said afterlife. But Lumpy's sure that's all he needs, accept the (appropriate) miracles, thus evidence for divinity, thus salvation assured.
 
No, you can give no example of this.

The process was the opposite of what you're saying here. I.e., they took a real historical person and made him into a god or mythic hero figure:

:confused:

I thought that was exactly what you have been arguing against. Others and I have maintained that Jesus may have historically been one of the many roaming preachers at the time (or a composite figure of several roaming preachers) that was, over time, mythologized by claiming him to have magical powers eventually making him a god in Christian stories. You have been maintaining that he was a magic god Jew because the mythologized stories say so.
 
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We are told Jesus is part of the trinity, that he is simply another aspect of God. The all powerful, omnipotent God. But can't work minor miracles when surrounded by disbelievers?
 
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