We have 4 (5) separate sources attesting to the miracles of Jesus as real historical events.
But the others have content NOT from Mark. So that extra content is an additional source. That Mt and Lk copied some of Mark does not mean they are not also separate sources. There's nothing wrong with a separate source quoting from an earlier source. In fact it increases the credibility of the later source, because it shows that the later writer/editor relied on earlier reports and was not just inventing his own fictional version.
Nonsense. The extra content is simply embellishment of the legend, more often than not in order to squeeze in references to match supposed "prophecies" about the Messiah.
Even if that's the case, the extra content not from Mark did not come from him, and so therefore
Mark is not the source for it.
We have 4 (5) sources, because Mark is not the extra content in Matthew or in Luke. That extra content comes from somewhere, which is the "source" for it, and it's not Mark. So we do have 4 (5) sources and not only one.
It's nutty to keep insisting that the 4 gospels are really only ONE SOURCE. Even if a later document copied or quoted from an earlier source, that is still
2 sources. The only way they can be the SAME SOURCE is if the later one simply copied the entirety of the first source, in which case it's not a separate document but the same document.
So we have 4 gospels or sources, and 2 later ones quoted from the earliest. And even if John knew of Mark and used it in some way, that does not negate John as a 4th source. A later document is not suddenly "disappeared" because of its having made use of some earlier document. This should not have to be explained.
The birth narrative is the most egregious example: Mark has nothing to say about it, starting his story with the baptism by John; Matthew gives the genealogy to "prove" that Jesus was of the House of David, and mentions casually that he was born in Bethlehem; Luke adds the bogus census to skirt the problem of "Jesus of Nazareth" not being "Jesus of Bethlehem", and to "explain" why he was born in Bethlehem;
It doesn't matter where Jesus was born. Even if the whole Bethlehem story is fictional, that's just legend-building on the real events which are not fictional. It's those real events that matter.
And whatever that extra content is in Mt and Lk, those accounts are separate sources from the Mark account. Obviously Mark is NOT THE SOURCE for those parts of Mt and Lk and other content not from Mark. So these are 3 separate sources, with 2 of them quoting from Mark but adding something more that's not from Mark.
So stop pretending that we have ONLY ONE source, which you know is playing word games. No matter what that extra content is, it's
NOT FROM MARK and therefore is not the same source. So we have
4 sources for these events, despite all the sophistry to try to magically turn them into only one.
John doesn't bother, because by his time the Christology had developed to the point where Jesus had always been God, from the beginning of time, and the birth at Bethlehem had become irrelevant.
John has his own version, making this a 4th source, which seems to not know of the Lk and Mt Bethlehem stories:
John 7
40 When they heard these words, some of the people said, "This is really the prophet." 41 Others said, "This is the Christ." But some said, "Is the Christ to come from Galilee? 42 Has not the scripture said that the Christ is descended from David, and comes from Bethlehem, the village where David was?" 43 So there was a division among the people over him.
Obviously John is assuming Jesus was not born in Bethlehem, quoting these people who must have thought that Jesus originated from Galilee and not Bethlehem. So obviously John did not get his version from Mt or Lk, not knowing of them, and it's obvious he's not dependent on Mark and so is a 4th source, and being the last, maybe not as reliable. But also John could be aware of some reports later near Jerusalem which Mk/Mt/Lk didn't have.
The credibility of the later source is not increased by being based on earlier reports;
By using earlier sources, yes this increases the credibility, because it shows that the writer/editor is not just inventing his own story but is trying to stick to that which is already recorded. This is more credible than if he's inventing his own version.
. . . it is decreased by the addition of elements which serve to chime with supposed prophecies through means of additions which are palpably false (census, massacre of the innocents ...).
Some elements are fictional, but there has to be the original story that is real, in order for there to be something for the legendary part to attach to. The legend has to begin from a real origin or real set of events which are the basis for the later legend-building.
No, it's four sources, two of which quoted from the earliest source. Quoting from an earlier source does not somehow make the later source disappear as a source, or turn it into something other than a source, like a magician making a rabbit disappear or become something different.
Quoting from an earlier source does not necessarily diminish the credibility of the later writer; granted. Quoting passages wholesale and verbatim while adding in obviously fictional elements designed to match supposed prophesies, OTOH, does.
The fictional elements may increase doubt in any document, whether it quotes previous sources or not. But, the quoting of previous sources does not in any way change the fact that we have
4 sources rather than only 1 or 2.
We can deal with the problem of possible fictional elements, which may reduce the credibility of a document containing such content, though there is nothing unusual about a document containing both fictional and factual content. The fictional element is added for various reasons which do not necessarily negate the other elements.
The fictional part itself has to be explained, and the best explanation for it is that there is also a factual element which serves to explain how the mythologizing got started. Without that factual part, there is no explanation how the legend originated. Something believable must have been the origin, and then to this the fictional elements were added.
Again, Paul omits EVERYTHING about Jesus prior to the night of the arrest. And most later Christian writers either omit any reference to the Jesus miracles or give only slight mention about them. Except the resurrection which is emphasized by all of them. So Paul fits into the same pattern as all the later Christian writers about neglecting the miracle healing stories.
Most early Christian writers had the gospels to hand for the miracle stories, as did their readers, so there was no need for them to rehash those stories when they were already known to their readers.
But then, why did they "rehash" the resurrection so much, and also the virgin birth? They repeatedly mention these. And why did they rehash the Hebrew prophecies and miracles of Moses et al.? These are repeated again and again throughout the patristic literature for many centuries later. By comparison there is virtually NO reference to the Jesus miracle healing stories in that later literature. Why was there less reason for them to "rehash" the Jesus miracles than the Moses and Elijah miracles?
Paul is silent on all miracles except the resurrection. Why shouldn't we assume that his silence on the miracle healings of Jesus is the same as that of the Christian writers for many centuries later?
All the writers, including Paul, put heavy emphasis on the resurrection of Jesus, repeating it over and over, but not his miracle healing acts, which are hardly ever mentioned.
The later writers added to the resurrection the virgin birth and the Hebrew prophecies, from Isaiah, the Psalms, etc. And also many O.T. miracle stories.
But also the miracles of the apostles AFTER Jesus, from the Book of Acts -- why did they "rehash" these miracles? They also had the Book of Acts "to hand" for the miracles of Peter and Paul, and yet they "rehash" these over and over in their writings. There's far more of the miracles of the early apostles in the Christian writings than of Jesus in the gospels.
So the avoidance of the Jesus miracle healings cannot be because they had those stories "to hand" and there was "no need for them to rehash those stories," because if that's the reason, then they also would not keep repeating the miracles from the Book of Acts over and over as they do. St. Augustine is a good example of this. It's a clear pattern.
And why do they keep repeating the "virgin birth" over and over? This too was "to hand" in Matthew and Luke, so what was the reason to keep repeating this so much, as they do constantly?
It makes sense that all of them repeat the resurrection of Jesus over and over, as this was the most important of the miracles. Including Paul. But the Jesus healing miracles are conspicuously absent from all of them. We can assume this omission in Paul is the same as for the later Christian writers.
And in the case of Paul, it fits clearly into his pattern of omitting EVERYTHING about Jesus prior to the night of the arrest. He obviously had some reason to omit all that and pick up the events forward from that point in time. There's no reason to say it's because he didn't know of those earlier events or that they didn't happen.
Paul did not have that luxury, and could easily have made use of them to illustrate how the life of Jesus showed him to be something more than just another false Messiah.
No, if Paul could easily have used the Jesus miracles this way, then the later Christian writers also could have and would have made use of them to illustrate this, but they did not. Why didn't St. Augustine and all the other Christian writers make use of the Jesus miracle healing stories "to illustrate how the life of Jesus showed him to be something more than just another false Messiah"?
How could Paul have easily used them for this purpose but St. Augustine could not?
Those writers did anything
BUT. They virtually ignore these miracle stories, and instead keep pounding away at the "virgin birth" and the prophecies and miracles of the Hebrew Scriptures. And also the miracles of Peter and Paul (Book of Acts).
For the same reason St. Augustine and the others didn't.
his Jesus was not of this world.
But he was in this world and did acts in this world. His resurrection, as Paul speaks of it, was an act in this world.