Angra Mainyu
Veteran Member
So, 'privilege' is a relative advantage. But is any relative advantage a privilege? Or is there some kind of extra condition, i.e., that is only about race, or resulting from some past wrongdoing, etc.?Don2 (Don1 Revised) said:1. "it's just discrimination" -- no, I don't think that and I've explained why. I will try to explain that again. The way privilege is used is consistent with dictionary definition and usage in other contexts to mean a word like "advantage." Privilege is in this sense a relative advantage. The opposite of relative advantage is relative disadvantage, not discrimination. Discrimination leads to and has overlap with relative disadvantage but they are not exactly the same set of things as discussed in prior posts. An example is how historical racism in conjunction with color-blind policy can lead to continuation of outcome differences among races and so a relative advantage can still be present without it technically being discrimination. Another thing besides is that the word discrimination is a pretty narrow thing: all opportunity differences across race with external persons, perception differences across race by external persons, treatment differences across race by external persons do not necessarily qualify as discrimination.
So, does 'privilege' mean 'a relative advantage', or something like 'an arbitrary relative advantage'?Don2 (Don1 Revised) said:2. The claim that the things under discussion do not properly belong to the word privilege is incorrect--they do. As above, it's a proper usage as in advantage supported by other usages and by the dictionary. But there's another reason and that is that it is the advantage is arbitrary or undue in the sense that if the same exact newborn baby had just different physical features to appear as a baby of a different race and lived with a different race family upon birth, the opportunity potential would be different and life choices would be different based on the probabilities of available options and different risk assessments, let alone actual concrete differences due to different treatment and perceptions.
I will point out the following: consider a newborn A (Black, White, Brown, it doesn't matter for the purposes of the question). If A had been born with the same features - mental or non-mental - but, say, to richer parents, then all other things equal his opportunity potential would be different and life choices would be different based on the probabilities of available options and different risk assessments, let alone actual concrete differences due to different treatment and perceptions.
And then you got richer privilege. But suppose A is born to parents P1,2 vs. P3,4, who are equally rich, but P1,2 are willing to have no more children that they can dedicate time and effort to raise, whereas P3,4 have many more. Then as before, the opportunity potential would be different and life choices would be different, etc., so it's better parents privilege. Or suppose A is born in a different country, say Japan vs. Haiti, or South Korea vs. North Korea, etc., and there are plenty of privileges by that definition.
So, I would like to ask whether my interpretation of your explanation of privilege is correct, or if not, why not - so that I can adjust it and try to understand what you mean by 'privilege'.