That could well be.
You make frequent appeal to 'a realist sense' but I'm concerned that what you mean here is actually 'a physicalist sense'.
No. I make the distinction between the metaphysician’s possible view that concepts, such as for example the concept of circle, exist independently of minds and of the physical world.
Fast I think supports this view. On this view, concepts exist but not in space, time, or even spacetime. Russell made the distinction between "existing" (in space-time) and "being" (nowhere, nowhen).
Also, I’m not sure there’s a proper physicalist view of the existence of concepts except to reduce our subjective impression that we know concepts to something physical inside the brain, and why not. Another thing would be to provide a convincing explanation how that could be.
The point I'm making is that an immaterial concept of ownership and sale is an accurate, useful and reliable way of dealing with the phenomenon, while a discourse on the neural changes made in the buyer's and seller's brain does not, in practice, accurately capture what is going on.
Yes, I admit that I had forgotten your views on this. I guess it’s been a while since last time you discussed them. And I broadly agree if by concept you meant the object of a thought rather than something existing outside spacetime.
Now you can make a conscious choice to try and base everything in physical interaction. So to represent a concept, you imagine a theoretical set of physical interactions that would populate all the necessary mental, physical and social interactions, from words on paper, to computers to people's heads, in which that concept is instantiated, or could ever be instantiated, in all of space and time.
You are assuming that concepts are shared. I don’t accept the premise and materialists do not either. I say, and they should say, that all you need to do to demonstrate that concepts are material is implement a physical mechanism which achieves the same result as what we people do when we perform an action on the basis of a particular concept. For example, we can implement the concept of circle in a computer and ask the computer to draw circles, to follow a circular trajectory etc. Obviously, it’s been done and more. Selling and buying for example, for instance selling and buying shares on the stock exchange.
It's possible, but there are some objections. A few off the top of my head...
The first is that this isn't a particularly useful way of representing a concept. The concept of ownership neatly categorises certain kinds of social relationship. A vast sprawling collection of physical states that are physically unrelated to eachother, while it may cover the same ground, doesn't do the same work.
It’s useful if you get machines to do the work for you as in the case of the stock exchange, or finding bigger and bigger prime numbers etc. It’s not useful if the machine won’t perform as or more efficiently than us at the particular task.
The second is that you're seriously violating Occam's Razor here. Insisting on the 'reduction' of a fairly simple and straightforward concept to a vast array of otherwise unrelated and unconnected physical processes is about as far from the concept of maximum parsimony as it's possible to get. This is important largely because Occam's Razor is the most common reason given for adopting some form of physical explanation in the first place.
If you were not talking about shared concept I would agree. But shared concepts seem to have to exist outside our minds and if they are not material then it’s ipso facto a massive ontological assumption.
If one takes the view that a concept is the object of a human being’s thought here and now then I don’t see how we could explain this other than through some physical theory. I would also disagree that it’s not ontologically economical since each concept would be explained by the same basic mechanism, ultimately for example the interplay of twelves material particles and one force. What would need to be explained on top of that would be the subjective experience of having a concept in mind. Which of course nobody seems able to even suggest the beginning of an answer.
The third is that it's not really an adequate replacement. Replacing a conceptual category with the instantiation of everything that could fall into that category is not an equivalency. A category is not equivalent to its contents, a set is not equivalent to its members. One does not accurately replace the other.
Again, you are making this assumption. You are assuming that the view of concepts as something real outside our minds is adequate but you would need to show it. If a concept is the object of a thought, we only need to show how this kind of thought can be effective, as I suggested above, and how the brain produces these thoughts, while the question of the subjective aspect of the situation remains unexplained, by all.
A fourth objection is that you lose the distinction between fact and fiction. If 'the scientific method' is merely a collection of physical descriptions or conceptions of that concept, and 'Santa Claus' is similarly a collection of physical descriptions or conceptions of that concept, then on what grounds are they treated differently?
I don’t see any distinction as far as concepts are concerned, so I don’t have this problem. The distinction may be made by reality itself, i.e. some concepts may have a reference, other do not. But the belief that a certain concept has a reference is something else entirely.
So while you certainly can decide to replace all mention of immaterial things with physical things, it's not clear to me that it's somehow desirable, or accurate to do so.
I’m not sure we would need to do that for Santa Claus but that may be useful when it comes to numbers or even words.
Useful perhaps even to the point of making us redundant on day...
EB