THE OBJECTIVE CONDITION IS THAT THE OBJECT IS COLORED. YOU CAN'T PROVE IT IS NOT. YOU CAN'T PROVE THAT IT IS.
NOR CAN PALMER. NOR CAN ANYONE.
Fucking hell.
ETA: So, no, nothing anyone asserts can exclude that "colour is anywhere else other than in brains." It does not matter what Palmer says, he cannot prove that the object is not colored or that color ONLY exists in the brain.
There's that proof straw man again.
It's not a strawman, ruby. It would be a strawman if I said that you had argued that there
was proof. What you
have been arguing is that Palmer's statement
excludes color from being an objective condition, which is false. False that his statement serves to legitimately exclude color as being an objective condition.
But at least now you're not misreading Palmer.
I never was, but you have been and that's the point. No one can exclude color from being an objective condition. No one can state that color ONLY exists "in the brain."
I don't mean that trivially, I mean that it is not a measurable, verifiable assertion due to the hard problem. Palmer can only
legitimately state that color is a brain experience, NOT that color is ONLY a brain experience. He has no legitimate basis to make such a declarative just as you have no basis to make it.
It's not even a "model" as you put it in a subsequent post.
Do you understand what that means?
You (and Palmer) can legitimately state that color is
at least a phenomenological experience that occurs somewhere in the brain. You (and he) cannot, however, legitimately state that color is
only a phenomenological experience that occurs somewhere in the brain. That would require objective proof, which is not possible to provide.
ETA: Here's proof from your OP. I'll bold Palmer's words where he delineates a difference, but not the one you subsequently latched onto:
People universally believe that objects look colored because they are colored, just as we experience them. The sky looks blue because it is blue, grass looks green because it is green, and blood looks red because it is red. As surprising as it may seem, these beliefs are fundamentally mistaken. Neither objects nor lights are actually “colored” in anything like the way we experience them. Rather, color is a psychological property of our visual experiences when we look at objects and lights, not a physical property of those objects or lights. The colors we see are based on physical properties of objects and lights that cause us to see them as colored, to be sure, but these physical properties are different in important ways from the colors we perceive".
...
Claim 1: objects are not themselves coloured, they do not have colour.
...
I think claim 1 is the easier and more recognised to be the case. I might hold that one quite strongly.
The problem, obviously, hinges on this sentence fragment:
color is a psychological property of our visual experiences when we look at objects and lights, not a physical property of those objects or lights.
But he immediately qualified that assertion and, indeed, the whole of his book--including definitions provided prior to that quote--is about qualifying that assertion by making delineations between "input" information and "output" information; between the strictly scientific and the psychologically experiential.
He literally states: "The colors we see
are based on physical properties of objects and lights that cause us to see them as colored, to be sure, but these physical properties are different in important ways from the colors we perceive."
Yes, color is a psychological property of our visual "experiences" when we look at objects and lights. Whether or not it is ALSO a "physical property of those objects or lights" however is not testable and therefore not a valid assertion to make AND an assertion his own book (and subsequent writings) disavows/contradicts or otherwise leaves open/qualifies.