Well, I strictly define it that way for the purposes of debate and exploration here. But (a) I'm open to that definition/model being challenged or refuted (it's just the model I'm defending) and (b) when I leave this discussion, in between posts, and possibly during them if I'm not careful, I'll sometimes revert to calling light or objects coloured. Because it's hard to resist.
It seems to me as if, in order to talk about colour, even many scientists investigating colour either (i) lapse into the above inconsistency, (ii) accept a pragmatic naming convention which involves light and/or objects being 'said to have colour' or (iii) genuinely accept that although colours are in the brain, there are (also) actual colours,
in another sense, in/of objects and light.
For example, earlier I quoted psychologist David Eagleman. In the quote he says that if we could understand the world as it really is, we'd be shocked at how colourless, dark and silent it really is. And yet, elsewhere he talks of our brains trying to understand the actual colours of things. He says the latter at 0:37 in this video:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wtzzS9TtKes
And here's Richard Feyman:
"As we know, white light can be split by a prism into a whole spectrum of wavelengths which appear to us to have different colors; that is what colors are, of course: appearances. Any source of light can be analyzed by a grating or a prism, and one can determine the spectral distribution, i.e., the “amount” of each wavelength.
A certain light may have a lot of blue, considerable red, very little yellow, and so on. That is all very precise in the sense of physics, but the question is, what color will it appear to be?"
https://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/I_35.html
In the second thing they say, both he and Eagleman (unlike Palmer and the physicist in the video animation I posted earlier) seem to be doing either (i), (ii) or (iii).
For what it's worth, my guess is that Eagleman is doing (i) and accidentally contradicting himself (which the two different things he says clearly do) and Feynman is doing either (ii) or (iii), it's hard to tell from just one snippet or one lecture.
In the model I'm defending here, both Eagleman and Feynman are correct in their first statement and either incorrect or merely following conventions in the second. In the second thing they say, they both have it the wrong way round, imo.