So the answer you have given above is incomplete at best and/or a weak rationalization for the re-institution of sexist practices in pay for what I can see to be no other reason than to re-institute sexist practices.
Inequality of outcome does not make a practice sexist.
If I am wrong, please enlighten me, make clearer your point. For example, are you claiming that men should be paid more because they play more sets, or are you saying that equality of work, in the traditional sense of the word, does not apply to something so subjective as the value of performance top performers in the sport of tennis?
Whichever way you define it, it is clear that women's tennis produces less value.
Based on match length, women do not play as long as men, isolated cases aside. Men play best out of five sets, women play best out of three. Women produce less product and less value in terms of running time (a longer match means more eyeballs seeing more commercials.)
Based on viewer popularity, women's tennis is a less valuable product. The total number of eyeballs watching men's tennis dwarfs the eyeballs watching women's tennis. This situation might be turning around but it is not near parity.
Based on objective physical prowess, women's tennis is nearly a parody of men's tennis. If male and female players had objectively equal physical prowess, there'd be no need to force parity: there'd be a single ranked #1 player. But women cannot match the strength, speed and endurance of men. If they could, they wouldn't need a separate league of their own.
If Williams had to face Djokovic, she would be schooled more humiliatingly than the schoolings Williams herself has dished out to lesser female players.
So, tell me, on what basis do you think women's tennis deserves parity pay with men's tennis, and how did you come to that conclusion?