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Fine-Tuning Argument vs Argument From Miracles

a Google definition of "miracle"


Where does the word miracle come from?

A miracle is generally defined, according to the etymology of the word—it comes from the Greek thaumasion and the Latin miraculum—as that which causes wonder and astonishment, being extraordinary in itself and amazing or inexplicable by normal standards.

https://www.google.com/search?sourc.....0..35i39j0j0i22i30j33i21j33i160.IjmmgX_Ws8s

This wouldn't necessarily include "supernatural" as essential to the meaning. It fits what the Gospel accounts describe as the healing acts of Jesus, and the Resurrection.

No doubt there are other definitions also, and some including "supernatural" or "against the laws of nature" etc. And requiring divine power.

An "Argument from Miracles" need not be forced to conform to any one definition, but to any of several standard definitions, including this one. Nor should it exclude any standard definition as "wrong" and try to impose another as the "right" definition.

So are you saying that David Copperfield's (if he were there at the time) act would have been reported as miracles that would have made Jesus' (if he was an actual person) act look like he was a piker?
 
What skepticalbip said above about magic, yes.

So what is the ***strongest*** adjective---the ***most extraordinary*** claim---that the witnesses of Jesus's various activities used to describe those activities, in the original languages? Did they describe it as being (in their languages) a miracle, being a supernatural event, a superhuman event? Or did they mellow it down a bit and say it was just inexplicable to them at their present time? Or maybe even explicable and comprehensible, but still just unusual?

Before proceeding further in this discussion, it seems that is a pretty core area to clarify.
 
What skepticalbip said above about magic, yes.

So what is the ***strongest*** adjective---the ***most extraordinary*** claim---that the witnesses of Jesus's various activities used to describe those activities, in the original languages? Did they describe it as being (in their languages) a miracle, being a supernatural event, a superhuman event? Or did they mellow it down a bit and say it was just inexplicable to them at their present time? Or maybe even explicable and comprehensible, but still just unusual?

Before proceeding further in this discussion, it seems that is a pretty core area to clarify.
Nah.
The Bible does say that the entire PURPOSE of the miracles Jesus performed was so that we would know he was divine.

John 2:11 This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.
So even if SOME miracles may not require a supernatural explanation, denying Jesus's supernatural nature is missing the point of the biblical narrative.

And as this is the whole point of Lumpy's efforts to establish the historicity of the healing miracles, you'd think he'd understand that.
 
What skepticalbip said above about magic, yes.

So what is the ***strongest*** adjective---the ***most extraordinary*** claim---that the witnesses of Jesus's various activities used to describe those activities, in the original languages? Did they describe it as being (in their languages) a miracle, being a supernatural event, a superhuman event? Or did they mellow it down a bit and say it was just inexplicable to them at their present time? Or maybe even explicable and comprehensible, but still just unusual?

Before proceeding further in this discussion, it seems that is a pretty core area to clarify.
Nah.
The Bible does say that the entire PURPOSE of the miracles Jesus performed was so that we would know he was divine.

John 2:11 This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.
So even if SOME miracles may not require a supernatural explanation, denying Jesus's supernatural nature is missing the point of the biblical narrative.

And as this is the whole point of Lumpy's efforts to establish the historicity of the healing miracles, you'd think he'd understand that.

Interesting. So what are we to believe of the many evangelical faith healers around today (and over the last couple thousand years)? I've seen then make the lame walk, the deaf hear, the blind see, etc. I suppose from Lumpy's claims, they must be divine too.
 
Interesting. So what are we to believe of the many evangelical faith healers around today
They heal in Jesus' name, thus confirming Jesus' divinity and their worthiness as representatives of The Divine.

When Jesus delegated his miracle-powers to the disciples he didn't make them gods, but he confirmed that they had a connection to the divine through him. So these are name-dropper miracles, not 'proof-they're-gods' miracles.

This is also how the Truly Faithful (TM) can handle snakes, because of that delegation of mini-divinity upon them.
 
a Google definition of "miracle"


Where does the word miracle come from?

A miracle is generally defined, according to the etymology of the word—it comes from the Greek thaumasion and the Latin miraculum—as that which causes wonder and astonishment, being extraordinary in itself and amazing or inexplicable by normal standards.
...

See that! Another perfectly good and functional word totally distorted by religion's woomasters.
 
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a Google definition of "miracle"


Where does the word miracle come from?

A miracle is generally defined, according to the etymology of the word—it comes from the Greek thaumasion and the Latin miraculum—as that which causes wonder and astonishment, being extraordinary in itself and amazing or inexplicable by normal standards.
...

See that! Another perfectly good and functional word totally distorted by religion's woomasters.

Ah, I felt that there was something strangely familiar about Lumpy's use of language. Your post reminded me what it was...

humpty-dumpty_etymology--e1478789741758.jpg
 
a Google definition of "miracle"


Where does the word miracle come from?

A miracle is generally defined, according to the etymology of the word—it comes from the Greek thaumasion and the Latin miraculum—as that which causes wonder and astonishment, being extraordinary in itself and amazing or inexplicable by normal standards.

https://www.google.com/search?sourc.....0..35i39j0j0i22i30j33i21j33i160.IjmmgX_Ws8s

This wouldn't necessarily include "supernatural" as essential to the meaning. It fits what the Gospel accounts describe as the healing acts of Jesus, and the Resurrection.

No doubt there are other definitions also, and some including "supernatural" or "against the laws of nature" etc. And requiring divine power.

An "Argument from Miracles" need not be forced to conform to any one definition, but to any of several standard definitions, including this one. Nor should it exclude any standard definition as "wrong" and try to impose another as the "right" definition.

This is how google defines the word miracle:

noun
noun: miracle; plural noun: miracles

a surprising and welcome event that is not explicable by natural or scientific laws and is therefore considered to be the work of a divine agency.
"the miracle of rising from the grave"
synonyms: supernatural phenomenon, mystery, prodigy, sign
"his first miracle was to turn water into wine"
a highly improbable or extraordinary event, development, or accomplishment that brings very welcome consequences.
"it was a miracle that more people hadn't been killed or injured"
an amazing product or achievement, or an outstanding example of something.
"a machine which was a miracle of design"
synonyms: wonder, marvel, sensation, phenomenon, astonishing feat, amazing achievement
"Germany's economic miracle"

The first definition is "event that is not explicable by natural or scientific laws ". The second definition states the event has to be highly improbable or extraordinary.

Human corpses don't come to life after lying in the grave for days or years since the processes that power the functions of the body have ceased, and the body experiences chemical breakdown. Humans who are declared dead can sometimes be revived or brought back to life through medical intervention within short periods (usually minutes or tens of minutes) of cessation of vital functions. No human has arisen from the grave after being dead for 3 days or more (Jesus/other risen zombies in the Bible respectively). At a very minimum, such an event would be considered highly improbable (within a day or two), or impossible, in cases where the person died years ago and the organs needed to sustain life have decayed away.

Human beings also do not have an ability to levitate into the atmosphere under their own power, since we lack the flight control surfaces that flying animals like birds and bats possess, and we are unable to generate enough lift from aerodynamic forces to undergo sustained flight. Such a claim would be considered impossible, as in, violating the laws of nature.

The Bible makes both claims. Here is what we know:

  1. We have no eyewitness accounts to support the claims.
  2. The earliest known description of these claims is dated at least 60 to 120 years after the events (gospel Mark).
  3. The first gospel (Mark) is directly contradicted by the writings of Paul, which may have predated Mark by a few decades.
  4. Mark is considered to be allegorical by serious scholars. That is, they do not believe that the author intended the stories to be taken as a recounting of history.
  5. Mark was copied by later authors in the second century who also added creative embellishments to the story. They are so far removed from the events, and the contradictions they introduce, make them useless as historical sources.
  6. There is no corroboration of the claims by sources outside the Bible.
  7. There are no sources listed for the gospel of Mark. We have no way to assess the historicity of Mark.
  8. Consequently we have no way to authenticate Mark.
  9. Dead and risen, miracle performing personal savior messiahs were common at that time and place. Numerous examples are documented.

Here are a few candidate explanations for Mark's motives, ranked in decreasing order of probability:
1. Mark's gospel is wholesale fabrication. He wanted to popularize the Jesus cult around a flesh-and-blood messiah (perhaps Paul's Jesus), so he deliberately made up these stories to reach out to the masses.
2. Mark heard some miracle stories (no sources cited) and used that as an inspiration for writing his gospel.
3. Mark heard some miracle stories (no sources cited), was convinced these accounts were true, and wrote up the stories just as he had heard them.

Even assuming (3) to be true, there is no case to assert that the miracle stories are probably true, given the background information cited previously. People of the time were gullible and believed all sorts of nonsense claims (and people still do). But here's the last nail in the coffin. Even if Mark were supported by the sworn testimony of a dozen named eyewitnesses, and we had good reason to believe that the testimony was sincere, there are still other explanations for the reports that do not require the laws of nature to be broken, which make them more probable. Magicians routinely trick audiences of hundreds of people into believing all manner of impossible things; that may be one candidate. Everyone in the audience would swear that the magician had teleported across the room, or that a pretty young woman had been sawed in half, but we know those were merely cleverly designed illusions.

Your assertion that the claims are probably true is ridiculous. You have not met your burden. And to add irony to your attempts at making up shit, you are skeptical of every other miracle claim out other than your preferred claim, which points to considerable bias on your part. Fail!
 
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Is Jesus Christ ONLY ONE OF MANY reputed miracle-workers of Antiquity?

Who are the others? Where is the record of them? Where are the reports of their miracle deeds?



Your entire “logic” is predicated on the notion that there existed a first century equivalent of a newspaper of record that reported—for all posterity—on officially investigated “hoaxes” and/or reported every single idiotic claim that any person made, such that they could in turn be investigated and tracked.

No such fundamental record existed.

I'm not asserting anything which assumes such a record existed.

You most certainly are, just indirectly.

Rather than nitpicking over what that means, the fact is that there were several references to hoaxes but that there was no comprehensive record of all the hoaxes. And Jesus was by far the most documented of the reputed miracle-workers but is not identified as a hoax by any of the sources we have for the period.


So there's much mention of reputed miracle-workers who were hoaxes.

"Much"? You just said there were only two authors who wrote about such "hoaxes;" Lucian and Plutarch.

No, there was also Josephus. And there are ambiguous references to this or that presumed wonder-worker, e.g., Simon Magus mentioned in Acts, and Josephus mentions Simon the Magician who might be the same character. Also it depends on how far back you want to go. There was the slave-revolt leader in 132 BC, Eunus, who was said to blow fire out from his mouth in some kind of trick. There are accounts of Romulus who died mysteriously, and the commoners were deceived by nobles who claimed he was taken away by the gods. This is described in accounts as probably a hoax perpetrated by those nobles.

So there are many stories, or reports of earlier events, saying there was a hoax played on people by someone. It was common to report these in the writings, as hoaxes, and these reports of hoaxes outnumber the miracle-workers reported as legitimate (if we count Jesus and Asclepius each as one reported miracle-worker). At least in comparison to reports saying a hoax was perpetrated, there are actually very few reported miracle-workers (reported as legitimate in the accounts) before 100 AD (unless one claims it's a "miracle" every time someone had a vision or made a prediction which came true, etc.). Rather, the total number of cases reported as legitimate by writers was vastly greater after 200 AD and the following centuries, when the pattern changes and the cases reported as legitimate outnumber the reported hoaxes.

Scoffing at miracle claims follows a pattern which changes from the Classic period into the Middle Ages, appearing in different forms. E.g., in the Book of Acts Paul is quoted preaching the resurrection of Jesus to a crowd at Athens (ch. 17), and some in the crowd scoffed at him specifically in response to this claim. Scoffing at miracle claims or reputed wonder-workers is frequent in the literature at this time and earlier, and also there were very few cases of such reputed miracle-workers before 100 AD. But in the following centuries the number of reputed miracles vastly increased, while the scoffing decreased, so that the many stories reported in the following centuries are never scoffed at by the writers but are reported as legitimate events which happened, and our sources for reputed miracle-workers (e.g., St. Genevieve, St. Francis) are not skeptical writers who scoffed at it, as our sources frequently are for the cases many centuries earlier.

So, there was far more skepticism and scoffing at miracle claims before 200 AD and back into ancient times than there was from 200 AD forward for about 1000 years. It was during the early period of much more skepticism that the reported Jesus miracles appear, when there were very few such stories and virtually no miracle traditions leading up to the Christian Gospel accounts. But then, there is a sudden increase in such stories, after the Gospels appeared.


Lucian was a satirist born in 125 CE. He wasn't an historian by any measure and is considered, in fact, to be the grandfather of "science fiction." You are evidently mentioning him because he does not specifically call Christianity a "hoax" in any of the books that have survived the ravages of time.

No, his relevance is mainly that he debunked a fraudulent miracle-worker named Alexander.


But everything we know about Lucian comes from the writings that we have. For all we know, he could have written dozens of books about the still nascent Christian cult, all of which were either lost to time or deliberately destroyed by any number of later "Christians" at any point in time.

Including today.

Yes, for all we know, the Catholic Church might have sent out its book-burning squad, in recent times, and rounded up all books which debunk the Bible or Jesus etc., including all manuscripts back to the 1st century, and had them destroyed, paying off all the librarians and scholars to keep their mouths shut, and also murdering all authors and scientists having any dangerous facts, and it might have tortured all the scholars and forced them to rewrite the existing books and manuscripts and suppress all the evidence against Christianity. And maybe tomorrow it will send their Black Helicopters to snatch you out and torture you and all the other Bible-debunkers, to shut you up.


Regardless, the only time Lucian does mention Christians, however, it's in a personal letter he wrote to a friend ("Cronius") about the death of Peregrine that had to have been written some time after 165 CE (i.e., after Pregrine/Proteus died).

Here's what he writes about Christians in that letter:

1 Poor dear Peregrine--or Proteus, as he loved to call himself,--has quite come up to his namesake in Homer.
...
10 That business about his father makes rather good hearing: only you know all about that;--how the old fellow would hang on, though he was past sixty already, till Proteus could stand it no longer, and put a noose about his neck. Well, this began to be talked about; so he passed sentence of banishment on himself, and wandered about from place to place.

11 It was now that he came across the priests and scribes of the Christians, in Palestine, and picked up their queer creed. I can tell you, he pretty soon convinced them of his superiority; prophet, elder, ruler of the Synagogue--he was everything at once; expounded their books, commented on them, wrote books himself. They took him for a God, accepted his laws, and declared him their president. The Christians, you know, worship a man to this day,--the distinguished personage who introduced their novel rites, and was crucified on that account. Well, the end of it was that Proteus was arrested and thrown into prison.

12 This was the very thing to lend an air to his favourite arts of clap-trap and wonder-working; he was now a made man. The Christians took it all very seriously: he was no sooner in prison, than they began trying every means to get him out again,--but without success. Everything else that could be done for him they most devoutly did. They thought of nothing else. Orphans and ancient widows might be seen hanging about the prison from break of day. Their officials bribed the gaolers to let them sleep inside with him. Elegant dinners were conveyed in; their sacred writings were read; and our old friend Peregrine (as he was still called in those days) became for them "the modern Socrates."

13 In some of the Asiatic cities, too, the Christian communities put themselves to the expense of sending deputations, with offers of sympathy, assistance, and legal advice. The activity of these people, in dealing with any matter that affects their community, is something extraordinary; they spare no trouble, no expense. Peregrine, all this time, was making quite an income on the strength of his bondage; money came pouring in. You see, these misguided creatures start with the general conviction that they are immortal for all time, which explains the contempt of death and voluntary self-devotion which are so common among them; and then it was impressed on them by their original lawgiver that they are all brothers, from the moment that they are converted, and deny the gods of Greece, and worship the crucified sage, and live after his laws. All this they take quite on trust, with the result that they despise all worldly goods alike, regarding them merely as common property. Now an adroit, unscrupulous fellow, who has seen the world, has only to get among these simple souls, and his fortune is pretty soon made; he plays with them.

14 'To return, however, to Peregrine. The governor of Syria perceived his mental warp: “he must make a name, though he die for it:” now philosophy was the governor's hobby; he discharged him–wouldn't hear of his being punished–and Peregrine returned to Armenia. He found it too hot to hold him. He was threatened from all quarters with prosecutions for parricide. Then again, the greater part of his property had disappeared in his absence: nothing was left but the land, which might be worth a matter of four thousand pounds. The whole estate, as the old man left it, would come perhaps to eight thousand. Theagenes was talking nonsense when he said a million odd. Why, the whole city, with its five nearest neighbours thrown in, men, cattle, and goods of every description , would never fetch that sum.

15 –Meanwhile, indictments and accusations were brewing: an attack might be looked for at any moment: as for the common people, they were in a state of furious indignation and grief at the foul butchery of a harmless old man; for so he was described. In these trying circumstances, observe the ingenuity and resource of the sagacious Proteus. He makes his appearance in the assembly: his hair (even in these early days) is long, his cloak is shabby; at his side is slung the philosopher's wallet, his hand grasps the philosopher's staff; truly a tragic figure, every inch of him. Thus equipped, he presents himself before the public, with the announcement that the property left him by his father of blessed memory is entirely at their disposal! Being a needy folk, with a keen eye to charity, they received the information with ready applause: “Here is true philosophy; true patriotism; the spirit of Diogenes and Crates is here!” As for his enemies, they were dumb; and if any one did venture an allusion to parricide, he was promptly stoned.

16 'Proteus now set out again on his wanderings. The Christians were meat and drink to him; under their protection he lacked nothing, and this luxurious state of things went on for some time. At last he got into trouble even with them; I suppose they caught him partaking of some of their forbidden meats. They would have nothing more to do with him, and he thought the best way out of his difficulties would be, to change his mind about that property, and try and get it back. He accordingly sent in a petition to the emperor, suing for its restitution. But as the people of Parium sent up a deputation to remonstrate, nothing came of it all; he was told that as he had been under no compulsion in making his dispositions, he must abide by them.

So what we get from this is a description of a group of primarily well-to-do Jews ("convinced him of his superiority...prophet, elder, ruler of the Synagogue" "partaking of some of their forbidden meats") who worshipped a man (not a god) that was crucified (not resurrected) and supposedly worshipped Peregrine/Proteus as a God as well.

Not as God, but as a God. See the distinction? He describes this cult as being extremely superstitious and non-critical and basically easily duped by Proteus. Worshipped as a god; became devout to him; accepted his laws; made him "President" no less.

So are you arguing that all of this was true? I mean, it must be, because it was written down, right?

This might be something like "historical fiction" describing some Christians during Lucian's time and using the fictional Proteus character. It can't be used as a source for the historical Jesus of 30 AD.

But more important is Lucian's account of the charlatan Alexander of Abonoteichus, or Alexander the False Prophet http://www.tertullian.org/rpearse/lucian/lucian_alexander.htm :

AN account of the false priest of Asclepius, Alexander of Abonoteichus. It has been discussed in detail by Cumont in the Mémoires couronnées de l’academie de Belgique, vol. xl (1887).

Although Alexander achieved honour not only in his own country, a small city in remote Paphlagonia, but over a large part of the Roman world, almost nothing is known of him except from the pages of Lucian. Gems, coins, and inscriptions corroborate Lucian as far as they go, testifying to Alexander’s actual existence and widespread influence, and commemorating the name and even the appearance of Glycon, his human-headed serpent. But were it not for Lucian, we should not understand their full significance. Alexander's . . .

Lucian's account of this character is more appropriate here, because it's not fiction but is about a real historical figure. Like the gospel accounts are not fiction but are about real persons in history. This is about the period after the Asclepius cult revived at around 100 AD, after the Gospel accounts of Jesus had begun circulating:

. . . full significance. Alexander’s religious activity covered roughly the years A.D. 150-170. The cult which he established outlasted him for at least a century. It was highly unusual in its character, as Cumont observes. Sacred snakes were a regular feature of sanctuaries of Asclepius ; but to give a serpent a human head and style it the god incarnate was a distinct innovation. Moreover, the proper function of Asclepius was to heal the sick, who passed the night in his temple, expecting either to be cured while they slept or to have some form of treatment suggested to them in their dreams. But at Abonoteichus we hear nothing of incubation, and only incidentally of healing; the “new Asclepius” deals in oracles like Apollo, and gives advice on any subject. This, together with Alexander’s extravagant claims of divine descent, confirms Lucian in his appraisal of him as an out-and-out charlatan, aiming to play upon the gross credulity of the times and to secure the greatest gain with the least effort.

Lucian was in a position to know a good deal about Alexander, and clearly believes all that he says. Without doubt his account is essentially accurate, but it need not be credited absolutely to the letter. Lucian was no historian at best, and he was angry. In the account of his relations with Alexander he reveals his own personality more clearly than usual, but not in a pleasant light.

The piece was written at the request of a friend, after A.D. 180, when Alexander had been in his grave for ten years.

There were charlatans, or hoax miracle-workers, here and there, and we have more reports of them than we have of reputed real miracle-workers (reported as authentic by the writers). So it's not unreasonable to expect that someone would write an account of Jesus the charlatan, if there was reason to believe that the miracle claims in the Gospels were a hoax.


As for Plutarch, who was actually a biographer and a philosopher (and a Platonist), he, of course, lived much closer to Jesus' alleged death (i.e., born in 45 CE- 120 CE). He influenced early Christians, but does not write about them most likely for the obvious reason that they weren't much of anything until much later in his life. GMark isn't even written until the late 70's and from Lucian we get that they are basically a Jewish splinter cult at best by about the time Plutarch dies.

I mentioned Plutarch with Lucian because of the following quote from Richard Carrier's "Kooks and Quacks" article https://infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/kooks.html :

Miracles were also a dime a dozen in this era. The biographer Plutarch, a contemporary of Josephus, engages in a lengthy digression to prove that a statue of Tyche did not really speak in the early Republic (Life of Coriolanus 37.3). He claims it must have been a hallucination inspired by the deep religious faith of the onlookers, since there were, he says, too many reliable witnesses to dismiss the story as an invention (38.1-3). He even digresses further to explain why other miracles such as weeping or bleeding--even moaning--statues could be explained as natural phenomena, . . . Clearly, such miracles were still reported and believed in his own time. I find this to be a particularly interesting passage, since we have thousands of believers flocking to weeping and bleeding statues even today. Certainly the pagan gods must also exist if they could make their statues weep and bleed as well!

Carrier lists Plutarch's excerpt here along with mentions of charlatans by Josephus and Lucian. However, checking more closely, it turns out that the Plutarch text is not about charlatans, but only about the gullibility of worshipers who imagine seeing the statues weeping or hearing them vocalize. And Carrier relates this Plutarch excerpt to modern claims of "weeping statues" where there are hoaxes played on the worshipers, though that isn't what Plutarch is saying.

But still there are many examples of hoax reports. Probably even from Plutarch, though his point here about the statues was only about the gullibility of some worshipers and not about a hoax.


But there is no way to explain the Jesus miracle acts as fictional

Nonsense. Look at Lucian's letter. In that letter he writes a fictional account.

We know it's fictional because the characters in it are fictional, unlike the Gospels which are about real historical figures. There is a real historical setting with real historical figures named, with the events placed during the reign of Tiberius and when Pontius Pilate was governor of Judea. Lucian's fiction story names no historical figures or characters who were real persons. But by contrast, his account of Alexander the false prophet is non-fiction, being about a real historical figure in a real historical setting.

And Paul's epistles are not fictional accounts. He names real persons, at the churches in Judea, with whom he met. Jesus Christ was a real person, and also James, who Paul calls "brother of the Lord," and Josephus also mentions James, who he says is brother of Jesus "who was called Christ." So our sources for the Jesus miracle acts are not fictional, not about non-existent fictional characters, but about real persons in history, mentioned in several documents as real persons.


Or are you now arguing that what Lucian wrote is non-fiction, in which case you'd need to . . .

He wrote both fiction and non-fiction. There's no need to place every author neatly into the "fiction" or the "non-fiction" category.

. . . you'd need to explain how the Christians of circa 160 CE could have taken Proteus as a God and made him their "President" accordingly. Did they not already believe that there was only one God (in three parts, no less)?

It's not clear what your point is. The Lucian story is fiction, while the gospel accounts describe real historical events taking place in Judea-Galilee at about 30 AD. Of course there could be errors in the gospel accounts, just like there are in Josephus and Herodotus, etc., but these are factual accounts reporting what happened, or what the authors believed had happened, unlike the Lucian story.

However, the other Lucian account, about Alexander the false prophet, is factual. And this too probably contains some error (fiction), but it is a factual account, not fictional, based on what Lucian believed was historically accurate.


given the accounts

"The accounts" are GMark (fiction) and . . .

You can condemn any writings as "fiction" which you don't like. By that standard there are no reliable accounts about anything, and there is no historical record.

Most of Mark is about characters we have no information about outside the NT. However, there are four real historical figures in the account (in addition to Jesus Christ), who we know really existed: John the Baptist, Herod Antipas, Herodias, and Pontius Pilate.

For three of these we have verification outside the NT that GMark is about real people in history, not someone fictitious. For Pilate and all the other characters we have no way to verify Mark's report about them, i.e., what they did, but there's nothing to contradict his account. So, all Mark's characters are likely real historical persons rather than fictional, but only for John the Baptist and Herod Antipas and Herodias do we have exterior confirmation of what he says about them. Pilate also is historical, though we have no confirmation for Mark's reports on Pilate (outside the NT) as we have for his reports on the other three.

This doesn't mean every detail in Mark about these three is accurate, but it's giving a factual account of them, reporting what the author thought really happened, or who these historical persons were and what they actually did. There are some discrepancies, but GMark is about real people in history and is therefore not fiction. Whereas Lucian's Proteus story is not about real historical figures. But you're free to purge from the historical record anything you wish didn't happen and condemn it as fiction, because we don't have a time machine for returning to the past to confirm what really happened, and all our documents could be forgeries, and all the historical record might be fraudulent, if that's what you wish to believe.

"The accounts" are GMark . . . and Paul . . .

No, there are 5 accounts, not only 2. The 4 gospels are not the same one source. They are all from the 1st century and are close enough to the reported events for each to be treated as a legitimate source, like any other document is considered a source for events that recent, in the ancient history record. Just because 2 of them quote from Mark does not eliminate them as separate sources in themselves.

. . . and Paul desperately arguing that a belief that Jesus was spiritually resurrected was a necessity or else there was no religion, which in turn conclusively proves that . . .

Your depiction of what Paul was arguing is your subjective word game. There's nothing in Paul saying "or else there was no religion" etc. If you want to use Paul to prove something, you have to quote him rather than putting your words into his mouth.

We have five sources, or accounts: the 4 gospels and the Paul epistles. These five sources are more than enough to establish the general facts, and of course there are many details one can dispute, as with any accounts we rely on for historical facts.

. . . which in turn conclusively proves that the "Christians" (at least the gentiles, which were the only ones Paul was trusted to handle by the actual disciples) didn't even believe Jesus had resurrected.

No, it indicates that some of the Greeks farther distant from the event had doubts about the claims of resurrection. Some believed and some disbelieved. That's what we should expect if the resurrection etc. actually did happen.


Marry that fact to what Lucian writes--that the Christians he referred to in or around 165 CE worshipped a man (not a god) who . . .

This helps confirm that Jesus performed the miracle acts. Because it says they worshiped him, and there is no explanation WHY they did this if he did not perform the miracle acts described in our sources for the event of about 30 AD. There has to be a reason why they worshiped him "as a god." What is the reason, based on the evidence from the 1st century, close to the time? The best answer is the reports of the miracle acts, including the resurrection, in our only sources. If that's not why some worshiped him "as a god," then what is the reason?

. . . who was crucified (not resurrected) and evidently had no . . .

It's OK to assume Lucian did not believe the resurrection. But he doesn't say that, and he had no information about what happened, other than from the earlier sources which say Jesus did resurrect. Lucian had no sources of information except those reporting that the resurrection did happen. He knew nothing except what's in those sources.

. . . had no problems worshipping other men as a God as well--

There were a few persons who were worshiped "as a god." E.g., the Roman emperor. In every such case we can recognize the REASON WHY a person was worshiped "as a god." It was always because of something unusual they did, or the unusual power they exerted in some way, and this got exaggerated into a claim about their divine status.

So, whoever was worshiped "as a god" -- you must explain WHY they were worshiped this way. Only one in a million (or 10 million) was worshiped "as a god." So there has to be something very unusual in their case, and you can always identify what it was in any case where we have some reports or sources telling who he was and what he did. Such as we have for the Roman emperor, who exerted vast power over millions of humans who were forced to obey and do homage to the ruler.

So then, what was unusual about Jesus that many people worshiped him "as a god" as this text says they did? By far the best answer is that he performed the miracle acts reported in the Gospel accounts, or, you can say it's that people believed he did those acts. But then you must explain why they believed it but not similar claims about anyone else. Why were there such claims about him, recorded in writings, multiple sources, in a period 30-70 years after his death? and for someone who had no political power like emperors and kings did? There is no other example of such a thing. Why would a large number believe such claims about Jesus and write accounts of it, but not for anyone else?

. . . and you've got a good 150 years after Jesus' alleged death where the extra-biblical world informs us he was just a man that was killed.

No, there were extra-biblical writings by then saying he was the Son of God who was killed and then resurrected. By 180 AD some of the early Church writings had appeared, e.g., Justin Martyr, Epistle of Barnabas, which affirmed the Resurrection and other reports in the Gospels.

But why are you obsessed with writings 150 years later as a source for the historical Jesus? We must rely on the earliest sources, which are the Paul epistles and the Gospel accounts. The farther distant we go from the earliest sources, the more we find new distortions and tales being fabricated, new theological interpretations and confusions getting mixed in with the original facts. So someone's interpretation of what Christians thought in 180 AD "informs us" nothing concerning the historical Jesus in 30 AD.


But there is no way to explain the Jesus miracle acts as fictional, given the accounts and the proximity to the reported events and the lack of any explanation how Jesus could have become the object of mythologizing such as famous and powerful figures like Alexander the Great or Emperor Vespasian were mythologized, or how people could have mistaken Jesus to have divine healing power . . .

People didn't. Cult leaders did.

Cult leaders are not "people"?

There's no way to explain how cult leaders 30 or 40 years later would mistake only Jesus to have divine healing power and not any other prophet or rabbi also. There were many "cult leaders" and many rabbis and prophets and priests and messiah pretenders of one kind or another who could be imagined to have miracle power. The "cult leaders" at this time were not united around any one doctrine or any one rabbi or prophet or guru.

Whatever "cult leaders" you have in mind, they did not all think alike or all have the same philosophy or revolutionary program. There were anti-Roman and pro-Roman cult leaders, there were mainline Jews and rabbis, and there were dissident Jews like the Essenes and Zealots. And there were Gnostics and other mystics, whose influence got into the NT writings. Why would all these differing "cult leaders" come together around this one person only and agree to make him their miracle-working Messiah?

If he did nothing unusual, then how did he stand out such that they all united around him only, to crown him King of the Jews, and not around anyone else, like John the Baptist, or some other rabbi or prophet or sage? Why don't we have several miracle-working Messiah figures appearing instead of only this one?


You are assuming fictional stories are non-fictional and then claiming the fact that they are non-fictional to be evidence that they are non-fictional.

You mean like fictional stories in Herodotus and Josephus and other historians? (They do contain some fiction.)

The Gospel accounts and Paul epistles are non-fiction because they are about non-fictional real historical persons, in a particular historical setting, naming particular historical persons as some of the characters, and connected to real events, some of which are verified.

If you mean it's fictional in the same way that Josephus and Herodotus contain some fiction, then you can call them that, but they are about real people and the general events reported are factual, despite the fictional element, like the particular dialogue and words which the writer presumably chose. In some cases the dialogue might be totally created by the editor-writer, which also happens in some of the historical documents, which are still evidence for the general events and are non-fiction. It's difficult at times to distinguish the historically precise content from the fictional element in the historical writings. But they are still credible sources for the events, and history is based on them.

We have that same kind of "fiction" in Josephus and Herodotus and other historians, and some historians may be more credible than these two. But the fictional element does not change a factual account of the events into fiction.


Then you reference Lucian who confirms that Jesus was just a man who was killed that his followers worshipped as a God, not as God, just like they did Proteus.

Lucian's account is not about real people, while the Gospel accounts are about real historical persons, like John the Baptist and Herod Antipas and others. And some of the events reported are verified, unlike anything in Lucian's Proteus story.

Lucian is a credible source for events of his time, in the 2nd century. He is not a source for anything happening in 30 AD. Even his fictional Proteus story might be partly reliable for information about people of that time, as his account of Alexander the false prophet is a reliable source for that period. But those 2nd-century writings have nothing to do with the historical Jesus in 30 AD.


So is Proteus now also God?

No, he's the Jolly Green Giant.


(this Wall of Text to be continued)
 
Is Jesus Christ ONLY ONE OF MANY reputed miracle-workers of Antiquity?

Who are the others? Where is the record of them? Where are the reports of their miracle deeds?



(continued from previous Wall of Text)


. . . there is no way to explain . . . how people could have mistaken Jesus to have divine healing power when he did not cite any ancient healing god as his source of power.

He most certainly did!

There's no case where he's quoted as citing any ancient healing deity, as all reputed miracle healers do in order to win belief from their audience. In all cases of healing claims (by a faith-healer, charlatan, miracle-worker, etc.), there is a particular ancient healing deity who is named as the source of the healing power, or ancient miracle legend, invoked as part of the account, to connect the current miracle claim to an ancient tradition or belief already recognized, in order to add credibility to the story. Jesus is the only exception to this.

In all three Elijah and Elisha healing stories (I-II Kings), the name Jehovah is used by the prophet and "the God of Israel" is named in the text.

But Jesus names no previous deity or prophet or other authority figure as his source, in the miracle stories, nor does the narration of the healing acts say that it was God or the God of Israel or Jehovah who did the miracle. Some of the Jesus miracle stories mention "God" or "the Lord" (Theos, Kurios) within the text, but most do not. Such mention has no essential connection to the miracle act. In most cases there is no such mention.

The leper healed in Mark 1:40-44 is instructed by Jesus to report to the priest and do a cleansing rite prescribed by Moses, after he's already healed. This is the closest to anything recognizing an ancient authority in any of the Jesus miracle healing acts, and no other similar example. If this accompanied 90% of the Jesus miracle stories, you might claim this was an appeal to an ancient miracle legend or authority.

The sage Apollonius of Tyana is credited with doing miracles by the author Philostratus, who connects Apollonius to ancient miracles in every one of his reported miracle acts. Not only half of them, but all. The most famous of these is the story of resuscitating a dead girl, who returned to her family, we're told, "just as Alcestis did when she was brought back to life by Hercules" (Vol 1, Bk 4, ch 45, Life of Apollonius of Tyana).

For this author, Philostratus, there are several ancient miracle legends cited, rather than only one. So his appeal to ancient authority is in effect a "salute" to the whole pantheon of Greek-Roman deities. I.e., he identifies Hercules, Asclepius, Apollo, Athena, and others in his Apollonius stories. In one case a legendary Homeric hero, Telephus, is called upon to enter a child suffering from a wound which won't heal. This ancient hero is invoked because he had also suffered from an incurable wound, and the healing ritual is done in his name so the child is magically cured (Vol 2, Bk 8, ch 7, Life of Apollonius of Tyana). So this miracle-worker, according to the only account of his deeds, identifies his power with these ancient miracle heroes and legends and deities.


He claimed Jehovah was the source of his power.

No, he never claims this in any of the miracle stories. The names used are "Lord" and "God," which probably don't mean Jehovah or Elohim in most cases. Though Jesus mentions God here and there, he almost never cites God or the Lord as his Source for a healing act. An exception is the healing of the demoniac, in Mark 5:1-20, where he tells the cured victim to go home and tell his family "all that the Lord has done for you." This is after the healing act, and it's a very rare case where he's quoted as giving credit to "the Lord" (Kurios) for the miracle act. The general pattern is omission of any such appeal to religious authority or miracle tradition. But the opposite is the case for all other miracle healing claims, where the specific ancient healing deity/hero is invoked every time.

In the Gospel accounts you have to go outside the miracle stories per se to find claims of connection to God or the Lord, as the authority or power, also to Moses and David and Solomon or other ancient authority.

All other reputed healers cite the ancient healing deity, in the miracle story per se. And not just "God" ("Theos"), but a specific ancient healing god or hero. All the Asclepius healing stories invoke Asclepius by name, not just "God" or "Theos," but a specific ancient miracle deity distinguished from others.

In the story of Emperor Vespasian healing two victims it's the god Serapis who is invoked, according to both Suetonius and Tacitus, who relate this miracle story. And in the one Josephus account of an exorcist expelling demons, it is Solomon who is credited by Josephus as the source of the healing power, by means of the rituals which Solomon instituted (Antiquities Bk 8, ch 2, 5 (42). (These last 2 miracle stories date later than 90 AD, after the Jesus miracle stories were circulating.)

In more recent times it is always Jesus who is named as the source for healing miracles. E.g., Joseph Smith and modern faith healers. Citing a specific ancient authority or miracle legend (not just "God") is generally an essential part of the miracle claim, giving it credence, to gain popular acceptance and belief. But the case of Jesus is an exception, not citing a particular ancient miracle legend or deity as his source.

(An example from modern pop culture: in the movie "the Exorcist" it is Christ who is invoked, not just "God" or "the Lord." In one scene the priest yells repeatedly to the demon, "The power or Christ compels you! The power of Christ compels you!" There is always a specific ancient healer authority who is called upon, specifically named, distinguishing this healer legend from others.)


That was the whole basis of his and his followers' claims to his divinity;

No, he's not quoted saying Yahweh or the Lord or the God of Israel is his source of power. Of course there are quotes from the prophets, from the commandments, from the "Scriptures," references to David and Moses and others. But not in connection with the miracle acts, as the source of his power. These references to ancient authorities are there, e.g., in the teachings, but not connected to the miracle acts.

This is a radical departure from all other miracle healing gurus/prophets, or accounts of them, where the miracle claim always cites a particular ancient healing deity, in connection with the reported miracle act, or as the source of their power. They make this appeal to an ancient miracle legend because it increases their acceptance by the audience. But the case of Jesus is different -- apparently he did not need to cite any such ancient authority in order to gain belief from his audience. Why? Even when it's the writers who cite the ancient authority, like Philostratus describing Apollonius, still the appeal to the ancient miracle legend is always part of the story. It's obviously done in order to gain credibility from a skeptical audience.

. . . that he was the son of their Jewish god (whatever name you want to give it; Jehovah, Yahweh, whatever).

No, not in the Gospel account text, in the miracle stories. There he calls himself "Son of Man." As a Jewish term this doesn't identify him with any miracle healing tradition. Some of the demons expelled call him "Son of God," and some victims seeking to be healed call him "Son of David." In one case the prophet Isaiah is named, and another mentions Moses. But in most of the healing stories there's no such name or identity mentioned. The term "God of Israel" is mentioned once, by the crowd after a demon is expelled.

These identifications or names are in less than half the miracle stories, and they never mean anything like an appeal to an ancient miracle healing deity such as we see in the Asclepius stories and all other ancient miracle healing claims.

The terms "God" and "the Lord" appear ("Theos" and "Kurios") in a few cases. You could claim these are the same as the Jewish Jehovah or Yahweh or Elohim or Adonai, but you could just as easily equate them with Allah or Aton or Zeus, etc. "Theos" and "Kurios" do not identify a specific ancient miracle tradition in the same sense as the names Hercules or Asclepius or Apollo or Serapis do, which are specific ancient heroes/deities cited by reputed miracle-workers, and are in contrast to names of other ancient deities.

It's not in the accounts of the miracle acts that specific ancient hero/deity names occur in the Gospel texts. In these he's not quoted naming a particular divine authority or ancient deity or ancient tradition as his source of power. A vague reference to "God" or "the Lord" in 2 or 3 examples is not the same as invoking a specific ancient miracle legend such we find in all the Asclepius miracle stories. We find names of ancient authorities or references (Moses, Elijah, Solomon) only outside the miracle stories, like in the teaching texts, but not in the miracle stories per se.


EVERYTHING that Jesus does is to fulfill Jewish prophecy.

You can interpret the gospel accounts this way, but nothing in the miracle narratives makes any such claim of prophecy fulfillment, or in any way shows a reliance on ancient miracle tradition. Those connections are theological interpretations not contained within the text of the miracle stories.

Your problem is that you're trying to explain the miracle stories as a product of the earlier Jewish traditions. But that leaves a huge question unanswered: Why didn't Jewish prophecy get connected that way to anyone else? other than Jesus? I.e., why didn't they make any other Jewish hero figure into a miracle-working Messiah? Why only this one Jesus person? There were plenty of Jewish rabbis and prophets and gurus of one kind or another to connect to the ancient prophecies. Why is only Jesus reported in writings as being the Messiah, reportedly doing miracles, but no one else? Presumably there were some rabbis or priests claiming to perform Yahweh's rituals, but we have no written accounts naming them and describing their acts, like we have 4 (5) sources identifying Jesus as doing miracles, and claiming he's the Messiah doing fulfillment of Jewish prophecy.

The real connection of Jesus to Jewish prophecy happened chronologically as follows:

event 1: Jesus showed up unexpectedly, performing those miracle acts somehow; and then

event 2: several Jews converged on him as "the Messiah" predicted in their scriptures, because of those acts he did and which made him stand out as unique, having real power and needing to be explained somehow. So they sought and found the explanation for him in their ancient scriptures.

However, if you try to reverse the above order, making the Jewish tradition & scriptures Event #1, which then produces Event #2 (Jesus the Messiah), you have to answer why they didn't connect them to ANY OTHER rabbis or prophets, but only to Jesus. So unless you can answer this, the best explanation how Jesus got connected to Jewish prophecy is the above 2-step chronology. I.e., first he showed up doing the miracles, then many Jews took note and connected him to Jewish prophecy.



What are the "PRIMARY SOURCES"?

Second, there are no primary sources making any such claims.

There are virtually no "primary sources" making any claims of any kind.

You mean extra biblical sources.

"Can we talk"? -- this term "primary sources" is tossed around all over the place without real clarity as to its meaning. Many people imagine that we have "primary sources" for everything, which are sources contemporary to the actual events, even eye-witnesses who saw what happened and wrote our earliest accounts, and we have to go back to those contemporary authors living at the time to tell us what really happened. And then authors 50-100 years later are not reliable themselves but are dependent on the earlier "primary sources" we need in order to get at the real truth. And this is all nonsense. We have virtually no contemporary sources for the events. 90% of our sources date from 50-100 years after the events happened. Also there's much uncertainty about the accuracy of many of the historical events (for 1000+ years ago).

As to extra biblical sources, we must rely on the earliest sources for anything, regardless if it happens to be one of the biblical writings. For the historical Jesus we obviously are dependent on the NT writings, because these are the earliest. Plus a very few other Christian writings which are early and not in the NT.

Just because a document became included in the NT does not mean it has to be tossed out as unhistorical or unreliable. It was included in the canon precisely because it was early and therefore a more reliable account of what happened. How could we ever know anything about history if it's required to toss out of the record anything which happens to be early and closer to the actual events (like the Gospel accounts are)?


History is based on the sources which exist, not on imaginary "primary sources" you wish existed.

So, you mean like the books of the NT?

Whatever books have survived and are close to the actual events. Did the Sanhedrin exist? Did the famous rabbis Hillel and Shammai ever really exist? Yes, but the only sources for them are Jewish writings, and for those famous rabbis there's nothing until 200 years later. Nothing from 1st century historians.

You can't demand that history must come only from certain mainline historians or from contemporary "primary sources" certified as authentic, and only neutral sources with no propaganda in them -- and that everything else has to be tossed out. Those demands mean eliminating at least half of our ancient history.


Our sources for the Jesus miracle acts are better than our sources for most of the ancient history events generally.

"Better" in what sense?

In the sense that we have more sources, i.e., 4 (5) sources for these events, and these sources are closer in time to the reported events than half (or 1/3 or 2/3 -- take your pick) of our known (ancient) history, which is typically reported in sources 50-100 years later than the events.


Again, as your own reference to Lucian proves, he easily concocted a fictional story about Christians in one letter. That's all it took, unless you are now going to argue that Lucian's account was also non-fictional?

There were many fictional stories concocted about many things. What's your point? Our question is about what happened around 30 AD which led to writings about the Jesus miracle acts. A story 150 years later sheds no light on that.


Your argument is ridiculous. It takes zero generations to write a fictional or otherwise mythological story (i.e., fictionalizing/embellishing certain elements of a story that may otherwise be based in some part on real people).

There are no miracle legends which show up in writings only 30-70 years later than the alleged events, in multiple sources. I.e., until modern times. If there are exceptions to this, why is no one offering any? (Or rather, why is there only one glaring exception to this, and nothing else coming close?)

If it takes "zero generations" for a fictional miracle legend to appear, like Jesus in the Gospels, then where is an example of it? This one happened in 25-70 years, in 4 (5) accounts. Where is there any other case of a miracle legend appearing in such a short period, in the ancient world? Where is there anything even close?


There are reasons one might doubt the reports

Good, then we're done.

Of course there are reasons to doubt the Jesus miracle stories, and also to doubt much of our mainline historical events, and also reasons to believe them. A believer can have doubts. There are many facts of history, in the standard historical record, which can be doubted for lack of certainty. Even so, there is still reason to believe, despite the doubt. And reasonable hope in cases of something optimistic, even miraculous, if there's evidence, like 4 or 5 sources confirming it.


but the complaint that there are no "primary sources" is no more reason to doubt these reported events than 90% of the reported history of those times.

It very clearly is, or, again, are you now going to argue that Lucian was writing a non-fictional, historically accurate account of Christians circa 165 CE as being a group of easily duped communal Jews who worship a man who was killed and who also worship another man (Proteus) as if he were a god (not that he IS a god; but LIKE a god)?

Your obsession with this 2nd-century fiction story has no relevance to our question of what happened in 30 AD. There were many fiction stories. How do we explain the origin of the Christ miracle stories by obsessing on this one unrelated 2nd-century story?


And, according to your own illogic, mustn't we now set in stone Lucian's account as the gospel, if you will, regarding Christians as late as 165 CE?

His description of Christians of his time, as he knew them, could be partly accurate. Any writing which is polemical is usually not very trustworthy to give a totally accurate account of the ones depicted. That doesn't mean it's dismissed as total fiction. A fictional account with fictional characters can be a tool to communicate real events. You're ignoring that ALL the ancient writings contained both fact and fiction. E.g., even though Homer is classified as "fiction," still there is some historical fact in the stories, and probably some of the characters were real.


There are only stories of stories handed down year after year in oral form until decades later (at best) some unknown author (“Mark”) wrote his version.

And that's a better and more reliable account we have for an historical figure than we have for any other 1st-century Jew or 1st-century figure living in Palestine.

Which doesn't change the fact that its shite.

So all 1st-century history is "shite"? Call it what you want, there was a 1st century, with characters like Hillel the rabbi and Josephus and Philo the Alexandrian and Jesus Christ and John the Baptist and Pontius Pilate and Herod Antipas etc. etc. -- people who did some things which we have some knowledge about, despite the difficulties with all the ancient sources. Our sources for the historical Jesus are as good as (or better than) our sources for most of the other 1st-century historical figures. Including many Greeks and Romans we assume did exist and did things we know about, and for some of whom the evidence is limited.


Or, again, are we now setting in stone Lucian's account?

Why are you obsessing on this one account? All the ancient sources are set in stone. And all contain a mixture of fact and fiction.


(this Wall of Text to be continued)
 
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Once again, your walls of text say nothing, other than to tautologically confirm the fact that fiction is fictional.

Last night I had a vision that Jesus appeared before ten thousand poeple to tell them he was not a god and that there are no miracles.

That is identical to what Paul did; claimed he had a vision. That is the full extent of his “authority” on the matter; a vision he claimed he had.

Which means that by your illogic, I am now an authority on Jesus and since visions in and of themselves have no chronological time component to their efficacy, I am now the most reliable source on Jesus because I live contemporaneously to you.

That is what you are arguing. Chronological proximity to an event somehow having more relevance in regard to the efficacy of the event having happened as claimed.

Or better still, twelve of my friends claim I am the “second coming” of Jesus and I right now confirm that fact. The evidence of this are the wars and rumors of wars and the anti-christ (Trump) on the throne and the fact that only I know the hour and day and I come like a thief in the night, blah blah blah.

Because I just made that claim—me, a primary source, even, and not the far less reliable anonymous and countless others in between my making the claim and decades later someone writing it down—and according to your illogic of chronological proximity to the original claimant, my claims are true and are the most reliable historical accounts.

You are, after all, RIGHT NOW reading my claims that I JUST made, so therefore, you are a day or two distant (if not a few hours distant) from the original statement of claims, so therefore what I claimed and what you witnessed by reading my claims proves that I am the return of Jesus.

And there are three hundred thousand witnesses who saw me appear before them and there is a whole website dedicated to debunking any such claims--called Talk Free Thought--and my claim has never been debunked there, therefore my claim must be true and these are the most reliable sources, so I command you to throw everything else away.

That is how ridiculous is your argument. It takes exactly zero time to make shit up. It takes less than a roundtable game of telephone (are you old enough to remember that game?) for an original statement to be corrupted and interpolated into something completely different. Iow, it literally only takes ten seconds for an oral account passed around a living room table, ffs, to get completely changed and embellished and distorted, let alone what would happen to the same story told and retold over decades by primarily gullible, ignorant people who already believe in such things as resurrection and gods and healing powers and the like.

But what's worse is that you're actually talking about two different stories. One is about a group of seditionists who evidently caused a series of social disturbances culminating in the burning of Rome and who were formed by or once led by a martyred leader named "Chrestus" or the like.

The other story is either Roman propaganda or that leader's follower's martyr mythology about him.

So you've got mentions of a seditionist cult of radicalized Jews (what we would call "terrorists" today and certainly from the Roman perspective) doing some shit in the lead up to what became a full blown revolut (and subsequent slaughter of the Jews by the Romans, who then wrote the history) and the mythology apparently created by that cult and in regard to their martyred leader.

At best. Which still puts you exactly at fictionalized accounts of a non-divine, natural being and his non-divine, natural exploits.

Aka, mythology. Aka, fiction.
 
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If a miracle is defined as 'inexplicable', then any event we can explain as having a god as a cause is by definition not a miracle. Either that, or the existence of miracles proves that the concept of god has no explanatory value.

Either way, theism is contraindicated.
 
Once again, your walls of text say nothing, other than to tautologically confirm the fact that fiction is fictional.

Last night I had a vision that Jesus appeared before ten thousand poeple to tell them he was not a god and that there are no miracles.

That is identical to what Paul did; claimed he had a vision. That is the full extent of his “authority” on the matter; a vision he claimed he had.

Which means that by your illogic, I am now an authority on Jesus and since visions in and of themselves have no chronological time component to their efficacy, I am now the most reliable source on Jesus because I live contemporaneously to you.

That is what you are arguing. Chronological proximity to an event somehow having more relevance in regard to the efficacy of the event having happened as claimed.

Or better still, twelve of my friends claim I am the “second coming” of Jesus and I right now confirm that fact. The evidence of this are the wars and rumors of wars and the anti-christ (Trump) on the throne and the fact that only I know the hour and day and I come like a thief in the night, blah blah blah.

Because I just made that claim—me, a primary source, even, and not the far less reliable anonymous and countless others in between my making the claim and decades later someone writing it down—and according to your illogic of chronological proximity to the original claimant, my claims are true and are the most reliable historical accounts.

We can certainly verify and acknowledge the fact that you exist, and you'll notice: we have a little more to go on at present, as your claim has the advantage (over the ancients) since we are here today on the forum, witnessing your live presence. We can write about you ( as an "external source" too). We have the internet and camera's and technology to document your existence.

Just the miracle things left to do ... it just, may not be written about , documented or any other hint worth the mention..

if we .. "in this time", of your second coming, don't see you perform them .
 
Is Jesus Christ only one of many reputed miracle-workers of Antiquity?

Who are the others? Where is the record of them? Where are the reports of their miracle deeds?

And why can't anyone give a reason to disbelieve the Jesus miracles which isn't also a reason to disbelieve ANY ancient historical events?



(continued from previous Wall of Text)


Most of our ancient history record was written decades later, even 100 years later, and is based on the oral stories handed down. Only a small percent is from authors contemporaneous to the events.

And it's equally faulty for precisely that reason.

So you agree that the evidence for the Jesus miracle acts is the same as for much of our accepted historical record, which means there is doubt, even though it's reasonable to believe it. So,"faulty" = not known with total certainty = most of our mainline "history" record = the same as our knowledge of the Jesus miracle acts.


The mystery around who Homer was is still just as debated today as it was centuries ago, but no matter who he might have been, there never have been "gods" named Zeus and Poseidon.

One thunderbolt zap to the fanny would change your mind about that. Also, we can't be sure Zeus did not start out as a real person, like we know the original St. Nicholas was a real person.


The closest we can get to any confirmed identity of any of the authors of the NT is Paul, who never met Jesus (in spite of the fact that he supposedly lived contemporaneously to him and was both a Roman citizen and a Jew).

That's better than we have for most historical figures reported in the writings.

Again, proximity means nothing, so . . .

Of course it means something if we have a source contemporary to the reported event.

We can draw an analogy between Paul and Cicero. We have a tiny bit from Cicero about the assassination of Caesar. Later writers tell us much more about Caesar and his downfall, but it's good to have a little from someone who was contemporary to the event. That very close information has value we can't get from a writer 100 or 200 years later. Paul confirms that Jesus was "handed over" to the Romans, and is our best confirmation that Jesus was crucified and buried and raised.

. . . let's skip to:

Third, the claims are not just that Jesus could perform miracles, but that his disciples could as well, including raising people from the dead.

There's almost nothing in the Gospel accounts saying that. It's only the Book of Acts reporting those events.

Ummm...Matthew 10? Never heard of it?

There's virtually nothing there. Almost nothing in the Gospel accounts about this. There's no narration in them of any healings by the disciples. Once the Jesus miracle reports were circulating and causing disturbance, it's easy to explain how additional claims would emerge, even though fictional, also how there would be normal praying and some victims recovering from illness, as they would have anyway. Just as we've always had stories of miracle healings where people prayed and claimed it was a miracle if a sick person recovered. And when the sick person died anyway -- well --

But for the Jesus miracle acts we have real evidence, several written descriptions of these, in 4 accounts. And 5 confirming the Resurrection. And no explanation what led up to these if they are fiction.


1 Jesus called his twelve disciples to him and gave them authority to drive out impure spirits and to heal every disease and sickness.

2 These are the names of the twelve apostles: first, Simon (who is called Peter) and his brother Andrew; James son of Zebedee, and his brother John; 3 Philip and Bartholomew; Thomas and Matthew the tax collector; James son of Alphaeus, and Thaddaeus; 4 Simon the Zealot and Judas Iscariot, who betrayed him.

5 These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: “Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. 6 Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel. 7 As you go, proclaim this message: ‘The kingdom of heaven has come near.’ 8 Heal the sick, raise the dead, cleanse those who have leprosy,[a] drive out demons. Freely you have received; freely give.

So, is Matthew not true either?

This particular text does not say explicitly that healings were actually performed by the disciples. Mark 6:13 and Luke 9:6 do say it, in a very brief phrase, treating it as unimportant.

It's easy to explain how, once the Jesus miracle stories were circulating and believed, some would start believing the disciples also did healings, even if it didn't really happen. What cannot be explained is how the original Jesus miracle claims were believed if the events did not happen. There was nothing previous to cause anyone to start believing the claims if nothing had happened. But once it was known that Jesus was doing the healing miracles everywhere he went, then people began believing, and this expanded to believing additional stories about the disciples having power, even if they did not. This all is easily explained in terms of how normal mythologizing happens, once the original miracle beliefs get started. The question to answer is: how did the original Jesus miracle stories get started, if he did not do those acts?


But there is no explanation what inspired the Jesus miracle stories unless they were real events.

Nonsense. The explanation is that they are lies made up either by people who wish to control others (aka, a cult) or they're just typical aggrandizements.

No, there were lots of lies by lots of people wishing to control others, and lots of aggrandizements. And yet there is no other case of someone reportedly doing miracles, in many towns around the region, reported in multiple writings near to the time of the alleged miracle events. If this scam could spread so easily and be reported in written documents, there would be other scams also, reporting similar claims. It makes no sense that we have only this one reported case of such a miracle cult, and no others.


Again, look at how Paul desperately tries to convince an early church congregation that doesn't believe Jesus was resurrected.

Some believed it and some did not.

They were hundreds of miles distant, 25 years later, separated from the original event, hearing this from a foreigner of a different culture, and of a culture not as skeptical as their own. It's remarkable that so many did believe, despite the obstacles.


But where there is no explanation of what caused the stories, a good explanation is that the events really did happen.

There are several very simple explanations--deliberate lies either by cult leaders or others; innocent aggrandizements of oral accounts and/or written accounts changed by copyists over time; a cultural understanding that such fantastical characters are never meant to be taken literally; etc.

If these could explain it, we should have several Jesus-like cults or religions all around the region, appearing over several centuries. There's no explanation why only one group, only in the 1st century, was able to get its miracle claims published and circulated, in different accounts.


The very fact that the Gnostic Gospels exist, for a perfect example, and yet are not to this day considered "canon" proves that there were early accounts that church "elders" considered to be too radical or . . .

No, the Gnostic Gospels are not "early" accounts, but date 100-200 years later than the events happened. Only the Gospel of Thomas might be early, and yet this Gospel does not contradict the canonical gospels, but partly confirms the canonical gospels.

. . . too radical or too fantastical or just did not present the version of the cult that they wanted preached.

No, the Gnostic Gospels were rejected mainly because they were not early enough, and therefore not reliable for reporting what Jesus did and said. Almost all the early writings were included in the NT, and those not included were rejected mainly because they were mistakenly believed to be too late. Nothing in the early writings which were excluded shows any significant conflict with the canonical books. It was their supposed late date, not their content, which ruled them out.


Miracle acts by the disciples, reported only in Acts, are probably fiction and were not widely believed until much later.

Ahhh. And Matthew? Fiction too? And what isn't fictional then?

ALL the writings contain both fact and fiction. Not just the NT, but Josephus and the other historians. There is no source that is totally fiction or totally fact. We must analyze to separate the fact from the fiction. We can do that, but there is always some doubt, and some guesswork, with any conclusions. We can draw reasonable conclusions about what the truth is, despite the doubt and the mixture of fact with fiction.


Can you provide an exhaustive and detailed list of everything that isn't fiction and exactly what evidence you have that would prove such an assertion?

We can look at every claim, in ALL the documents which survived, and try to determine if it's fact or fiction. We can do that and determine what probably happened, generally. But if you insist that we cannot, then there is no history, and you can throw out every history book and eliminate all the history classes from schools. Is that what you're saying we must do?


Can you provide an exhaustive and detailed list . . . that would prove such an assertion? No, you can't.

No one can prove with certainty what happened 1000+ years ago. We have evidence, in the writings, from which we can reasonably piece it together and determine what happened, and what did not. What we have is evidence, and some good guesswork, not the absolute certainty you're demanding.


As is painfully evidenced in all of this tap dancing you're doing.

I'm auditioning for a part in the next Kiss Me Kate production.


Fourth, the fact that there were (supposedly) 12 disciples walking around Jerusalem with the power to heal the sick and raise the dead makes one wonder why those people are not still alive today.

There's virtually nothing of this except in Acts.

Again, wrong, so . . .

In the Gospels we see Jesus performing miracle acts on every page, again and again. But almost nothing about the disciples doing this. It's very easy to explain how those claims about the disciples were added, as an afterthought. There are only 2 or 3 loose comments briefly mentioning it. It's only the Book of Acts which takes it seriously about the disciples performing miracles.

. . . so let's skip all the bullshit about Acts.

Then skip the question whether the disciples were given power to perform miracle acts.

This book shows us the development taking place, how the memory of the Jesus miracle acts inspired new stories, due to mythologizing, as believers longed for a repetition of those events. It's so easy to see how these stories got started as fiction, once the original Jesus miracles caused so many to believe. And it's obvious today also, as it's been for many centuries, as believers are not satisfied having only the record of what happened around 30 AD.

The public ministry of Jesus lasted less than one year, according to Jesus scholar Albert Schweitzer (1-3 years according to most others). And we have no reliable information about him other than for this one brief period. That short period is not enough for most people, for believers -- the wish for more can easily result in additional output of claims, just to satisfy the demand, or the wish, for the miracle events to resume. That's largely why Acts exists, to satisfy that demand. But there would never have been such a demand, if the original acts of Jesus had not really happened, causing so many to believe such power was actually possible.

So those later stories about the disciples also doing miracles are further evidence for the earlier miracle acts of Jesus, to explain what inspired those later stories.


It's easy to poke fun at the part which is obviously fiction.

Ahhh. "Obviously fiction."

There's no point to any of this if you can't recognize that all the ancient historical record is a mixture of fact and fiction. For ANY documents or sources. There's not one which is all fiction or all fact. No matter what it claims. So, to pounce on something and condemn it because it contains fiction is extremely bone-headed. By this standard, ALL the ancient history has to be scrapped. Again, you and all the other debunkers here have to keep falling back on arguments which force us to disqualify ANY record for the ancient history events. So you're trashing ALL the history record when you use this reasoning. You're saying ALL (or most) of our historical record is fiction.


What cannot be explained is why such stories were not told 50 or 100 years earlier.

Again, Matthew. Which many cult members still think of as the first in the passion narrative mythologies, but is actually dated to around 85 CE.

No, before Jesus in the Gospels.

The question is why there are not similar stories about any other Messiah figure than Jesus, especially earlier. If the Jesus stories are a product of a slow process of miracle beliefs leading up to the 1st century, why don't we see any other miracle Messiah in any literature during the period earlier? like in 10 or 20 or 30 AD? or in 20 or 30 or 40 BC? or 100 BC?

Why is there a total blank? zero miracle stories in this period, going back to 200 BC? Why do the Asclepius miracle claims die out by 200 or 100 BC, so there is nothing left of these in the decades before the Jesus miracles suddenly pop up out of nowhere? Where did these suddenly pop up from? Where is the "lead-up" to this miracle phenomenon which suddenly appears in the mid-1st century, popping up from nowhere?


Why don't we see stories of such miracles in 60 or 40 or 20 AD and earlier? There is a total blank of such stories in the literature going back at least 200 or 300 years. There is no miracle tradition in the Jewish or Greek/Roman culture during these centuries having any resemblance to the Jesus miracle healings and which could explain where these came from, if they could be explained as fiction. The Asclepius cult, the closest there is to anything analogous, was dying out, and these were priests worshiping an ancient healing god and performing rituals like modern healers who perform their rites in the name of Christ.

Ok, well, we do circa 85 CE, so, I guess that means everything after GMark is fiction?

Probably 99% of miracle claims are fiction. Before and after GMark. But you'll notice that there are virtually NO miracle claims in the literature from about 200 BC to 50 AD, before GMark. Or, nothing outside the Jesus miracle stories up to about 90 AD. What needs explaining is why there is a sudden explosion of miracle stories from about this time, when there had been zero such stories earlier.



(this Wall of Text to be continued)
 
Once again, your walls of text say nothing, other than to tautologically confirm the fact that fiction is fictional.

Last night I had a vision that Jesus appeared before ten thousand poeple to tell them he was not a god and that there are no miracles.

That is identical to what Paul did; claimed he had a vision. That is the full extent of his “authority” on the matter; a vision he claimed he had.

Which means that by your illogic, I am now an authority on Jesus and since visions in and of themselves have no chronological time component to their efficacy, I am now the most reliable source on Jesus because I live contemporaneously to you.

That is what you are arguing. Chronological proximity to an event somehow having more relevance in regard to the efficacy of the event having happened as claimed.

Or better still, twelve of my friends claim I am the “second coming” of Jesus and I right now confirm that fact. The evidence of this are the wars and rumors of wars and the anti-christ (Trump) on the throne and the fact that only I know the hour and day and I come like a thief in the night, blah blah blah.

Because I just made that claim—me, a primary source, even, and not the far less reliable anonymous and countless others in between my making the claim and decades later someone writing it down—and according to your illogic of chronological proximity to the original claimant, my claims are true and are the most reliable historical accounts.

We can certainly verify and acknowledge the fact that you exist, and you'll notice: we have a little more to go on at present, as your claim has the advantage (over the ancients) since we are here today on the forum, witnessing your live presence. We can write about you ( as an "external source" too). We have the internet and camera's and technology to document your existence.

Just the miracle things left to do ... it just, may not be written about , documented or any other hint worth the mention..

if we .. "in this time", of your second coming, don't see you perform them .

Others have and they have provided to you their eyewitness accounts. Therefore it’s all true.
 
I was stuck at DFW airport this Wednesday waiting for a delayed connection, and I spent about an hour watching the antics of a cockatoo named Mr Max.

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCtnY5vJ-2SaEIeE1zhA_xxA

Cockatoos are fascinating creatures. They are intelligent, they can learn to mimic the human voice, and some can pick up a vocabulary of over a hundred words. If you follow the youtube link and watch some of the videos, you will find that cockatoos can engage in "conversations" with their owners, a back-and-forth dialog that mimics conversations between humans. They string together the words and sounds they know to make it sound like they are actually communicating using human language. But no matter how smart the bird might appear at first glance, cockatoos do not have nervous systems capable of abstract thought, or the ability to engage in actual conversation with a human.

Lumpy's posting habits bear a strong resemblance to the mimicry of the cockatoo. For over a year now Lumpy had been putting together walls of text using words from the English language, but when you read the text you discover that they say nothing, or very little.

Just like the cockatoo puts together strings of words and sounds that communicate nothing or very little, Lumpy puts together long chains of words that communicate nothing or very little.

You can talk back to the cockatoo and try to explain an idea to it, but the cockatoo will not understand you; it will simply repeat the words and sounds it knows. Likewise, you can talk back to Lumpy and point out why his claims make no sense, and Lumpy will simply repeat what he said before, over and over and over, seemingly incapable of understanding anyone's posts.

The cockatoo will sometimes throw tantrums and make loud noises when it cannot get its way. Likewise, Lumpy will sometime throw tantrums, complaining that others are not willing to accept his claims as presented.

I am not saying that Lumpy's cognitive abilities are the same as the cockatoo's. I am sure that is not the case. However, Lumpy is apparently unable to engage in a rational debate about the historicity of Biblical claims, and his posting habits on the subject for well over a year have demonstrated this fact over and over. I am the fool here for continuing to try, not Lumpy, or the cockatoo.

Anyway, do check out Mr Max on youtube. Fascinating bird!
 
If a miracle is defined as 'inexplicable', then any event we can explain as having a god as a cause is by definition not a miracle. Either that, or the existence of miracles proves that the concept of god has no explanatory value.

Either way, theism is contraindicated.

Unless you see it from the angle that the word "miracle", was used to express a simple contextual term ,... before the use of the word, became later as accordingly , refined and defined, as you've described in your quote.
 
If a miracle is defined as 'inexplicable', then any event we can explain as having a god as a cause is by definition not a miracle. Either that, or the existence of miracles proves that the concept of god has no explanatory value.

Either way, theism is contraindicated.

Unless you see it from the angle that the word "miracle", was used to express a simple contextual term ,... before the defined description became "later" defined and refined, as you've described in your quote.

So, unless the things people called 'miracles' in the past were not, in fact, miracles?

I agree entirely. They called lots of things miracles, but they were wrong. Either they were wrong about what happened; Or wrong to call it miraculous.

Stuff like a guy being crucified - which is deliberately intended to be a long, slow and painful death over many days - passing out after a day or so, being mistakenly declared dead, and then recovering after a few days lying down out of the direct sun. It's not particularly implausible; Certainly it's not miraculous. But in the context of a pre-medical age, when a weak heartbeat and shallow breath could easily be mistaken for death, it could certainly be mistaken for a miracle.

Miracles don't happen. Never have, never will. There's no possible mechanism for them - and no phenomenon that cannot be understood without them. Miracles are make-believe. Grownups don't think that they are real.
 
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