No. I don't think that at all.
First, according to the ordinary concept of absolute time, the past and the future are symmetrical in every respect except that the universe appear to us as if it was going in the direction of the future and the correlate of this that we have a memory of the past but not of the future. So the notion of a future without an end is symmetrical to the notion of a past without a beginning. Also, the notion that the past ends now is symmetrical to the notion that the future starts now. Appart from that, the whole thing is rather bland and straightforward.
It's absurd to say the past ends at the present.
It may be absurd depending on the point of view but it's not illogical.
To say that the past ends now is essentially a manner of speaking. It shouldn't be taken literally as you appear to be doing.
We often represent time conventionaly as an axis with now represented as a point on this axis moving towards the future. In this view, the past is always relative to the present, i.e. there is no absolute past and there is one past for each point in time (each point on the axis of time). To say that the past ends now is just a way of expressing this relation but it's only the past relative to now as we speak that ends now, with the idea that now is not a part of this particular past (even if it will be part of a future time) so this particular past does end now.
I don't think there was any major disagreement between this ordinary view of time and the scientific concept of time until Einstein came along. If so, I would be very surprised if there was any logical inconsistancy in it.
The past BEGINS at the present. First you have a present moment then that moment becomes a past moment. The past flows out of the present, the present is the beginning of the past, not the other way around as you imply.
You can look at it this way if you like but there is no compulsion in that and it's not the ordinary notion of absolute time. If I imagine that I am counting the past backward, i.e. starting from now = 0, I will indeed begin with yesterday = 1 (or -1) and then the day before = 2 (or -2). So my counting will start now. So what? If you have a road that stops here you can say that it begins here. Big deal!
From the point of view of science, time doesn't really begin or end. It's just an abstract mathematical referential usually taken to be one-dimensional and probably infinite in both direction. The past in this case is relative to each particular point in time, i.e each particular point on this axis. Each past in this case is limited by a particular point in time. Whether we say that is ends there or not is moot.
Second, I have no reason to compare the amount of time already passed with the amount of time that could still pass. Supposing both are infinite, I don't know what it would be to compare them except to say that they would be both infinite. So, they would have a shared quality, being infinite, but one that would prevent any attempt at comparing them. Saying one is bigger, or longer, than the other, or that they are equal, would be idiotic. All we could say would be that they are both infinite.
To say they are of a different size would be irrational. They are the exact same kind of infinity. An ever growing sequential infinity. 1 +1 +1 + 1 + 1 ........
Again I didn't say or imply that they were of different sizes.
And yes they are the exact same kind of infinity.
But your use of "growing" here is defective, as often with whatever you say in this thread. In our conventional view of time, only finite periods of time are said to grow. For example, I can be said to be growing old because I was born at a particular time so that the time I already lived is growing with time itself. Similarly, the time left to me to live is growing smaller and smaller (or diminishing) every day. But an infinite future doesn't grow smaller and smaller and an infinite past doesn't grow bigger and bigger.
Infinite time in the future MUST represent the exact same amount of time as infinite time in the past. They are the exact same infinity.
No. It just doesn't mean anything.
To have the same exact amount of time you would need a definitive count, something you could not have in the case of an infinite past or an infinite future.
If infinite time in the future is an amount of time that will never finish so is infinite time in the past.
See above. You are just playing a childish game with words.
I haven't seen were you provide a proper justification for your idea that a past without a beginning is a past that never ends.
The past is time that already passed. If time has no beginning that means the amount of time that has already passed has no limit.
Yes.
An amount of time with no limit is an amount that will never finish.
No. Again, amounts don't start or finish.
You are not parsing your English sentences proficiently. You can talk of the amount of time that has already passed but it's like this:
- The amount of ((time) that has already passed))
Not like this:
- (The amount of time) that has already passed
As I said, improve your English skills first if you want to argue effectively.
So, I still haven't seen any sensible justification whatever.
EB