Problem is that we do adress them but you simply ignore our counter arguments.
I have tried not to ignore anything.
If there was some clear refutation then everybody would be continually making it and they would simply put it forth every time I put forth my argument.
But no such thing is occurring.
Perhaps there are several things wrong with your argument? That would also explain your observation.
There are a handful of objections we keep raising; they have been said is several different ways, in an attempt to present them in a manner you can comprehend - Clearly you don't comprehend them, because each time they are raised, you ignore or dismiss them.
The arguments are all over the place and even when I show the problems with the arguments they arise again at some later time as a zombie.
The major problem you are having is you think there can be any limit to the amount of time that has passed if we say time has always existed.
That's not a problem; it is a fact. An infinite line can be bounded at one end, and remains infinite. This is not only true; You accept that it is true, with regards to the future. And yet when it comes to the past, you have a mental block that makes you declare that it is 'illogical', despite your inability to articulate why it is illogical.
You are basically saying infinite time does not equal infinite time.
Infinite time in the future is time without end. It is time that never finishes.
Yes. Time with a beginning but no end is infinite time - as is time with an end but no beginning. They are the same object, reflected.
Yet you somehow think time in the past is a different amount of time. You think it is time that can finish passing.
That is an observation; We are here. So the past has finished. It is therefore either time with a beginning and an end (finite); OR time with no beginning, and an end (infinite). Either is possible.
Because the only way to have a present moment in time is if all the previous moments in time have finished passing. If they have come and gone. If they have ALL completed.
Yes. But that tells us nothing about whether (or when) they started. If the past is finite, then there has been finite time for them to pass, which is OK; If the past is infinite, they can never all pass
in finite time - the time required for that is infinite. But if the past is infinite, then the time available is infinite. So there is no problem.
The only way there can be a problem with infinite time passing is if there is only finite time available - which is a contradiction (as well as, apparently, your avowed belief).
But if the amount of time in the past is infinite then it must be the same amount of time as an infinite future.
Not necessarily, but it doesn't matter because:
It must be an amount of time that never finishes.
This is completely wrong; it is not supported by anything. A road that begins here, and stretches infinitely to the east, has an infinite extent. Placing a mirror at the cul-de-sac, we see a road that ends here, and stretches infinitely to the west. The two are the same length; and there is nothing that makes one 'logical' and the other 'illogical'.
You are contradicting yourself. You are saying the amount of time in the past is without end yet it ended at the present moment.
You are confusing yourself; You refer to both 'ends' of a line, and then refer to one of them as an 'end' as opposed to a 'beginning'.
Infinite time in the past is an illogical belief that contradicts itself.
Using the same word to mean two different things in the same argument, while pretending that they are synonymous, is a logical fallacy
http://atheism.about.com/library/FAQs/skepticism/blfaq_fall_equivocation.htm.
If the past has two terminii - one at the start of time, and the other at the present moment, then it is finite.
If the past has one terminus - at the present moment - and does not have another terminus somewhere in the past, then it is infinite.
Neither of these statements can be shown to be true (or false) with current evidence.
Let us state your position once again, using the word 'terminus' to mean the limit of a line, and using the phrases 'in the past'; 'in the present' and 'in the future' to denote the positions of any terminii you wish to mention explicitly, and see what we get:
Infinite time in the future is time without a terminus in the future. It is time that never finishes.
Yet you somehow think time in the past is a different amount of time. You think it is time that can have a terminus in the present.
Because the only way to have a present moment in time is if all the previous moments in time have a terminus in their future. If they have come and gone. If they have ALL completed.
But if the amount of time in the past is infinite then it must be the same amount of time as an infinite future. It must be an amount of time that does not have a terminus in the future.
There is nothing here to deny the possibility of time with a terminus in the present, but
without a terminus in the past.
Perhaps I have mistranslated your argument. Please provide a statement of your position that replaces any use of the word 'end' with 'terminus'; or (if you need to specify) 'terminus in the past/present/future', bearing in mind that the word 'terminus', without a qualifier, can mean in the past OR the present OR the future. 'Start' must be replaced either with 'terminus in the past', and 'finish' with 'terminus in the future' as appropriate.
No more woolly language; If you cannot present your argument using unequivocal terms, then it is a flawed argument.