Don2 (Don1 Revised)
Contributor
The word "implied" is in there.
Does tacit collusion have implied agreement?
If the NFL owners all decided to follow a rule that did not yet exist formally but to be declared in the future (the rule to reject kneeling by players and/or not hire such persons who would do that), would that constitute an implied agreement among the owners and the NFL and therefore satisfy the definition of tacit collusion?
Maybe not?
I don't know about you, but in work if I am instituting a major change to something I normally have some discussion or other communication with stakeholders.
The proposed rule on Oct 10th isn't something that just happened arbitrarily out of the blue and so therefore it means there were likely communications prior to the proposal between NFL, employees, agents, club owners, etc advocating restricting behaviors of players, the most well-known such player being Kaepernick. The logical inference of such pre-proposal communication between NFL, agents, employees, and/or owners would be that such person ought not be hired.
In a civil matter for arbitration, what gaps are remaining? Are there remaining logical gaps? Does evidence of communication about the change need to be presented? Or is the likely inference enough?
As mentioned previously, "implied contract" has specific legal meaning.
https://www.nolo.com/legal-encyclopedia/what-is-implied-contract.html
https://fcw.com/Articles/1998/11/15/What-are-implied-contracts.aspx?Page=1
The burden of proof is on you. Show the elements of an implied contract exist.
Your not answering my questions while writing "the burden of proof is on you," makes me think you thought my questions were rhetorical. Is that why you did not answer them?