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Language as a Clue to Prehistory

And why would that be so? There isn't a good correlation between a group's languages syntactic typology and its mode of subsistence. Here's the distribution of languages by whether they have morphological case, https://wals.info/feature/49A#4/-11.87/143.57

You will note that there isn't much of a global pattern, and in some regions, e.g. Northern Australia our Southeast Europe you find everything from languages with no case marking to 10 or more cases right next to each other.

Again, even if "experience is unchanged" (which it never is), that's no reason for language structure and syntax to evolve any slower.

I'm not referring to syntactic typology. If there is a term that I am referring to I don't know it because I've never formally studied linguistics. I'm talking about the scope of words that exist in the language, not the structure of how they're expressed.

I'm making the claim that the words which exist in a language come into common usage because they're relevant to the lifestyle of those speaking the language. Therefore, if hunter-gatherers have been living essentially the same static lifestyle for [x] period of time, then the evolution of the language is very slow, and it's likely that the modern one resembles the original one more closely than if more social evolution had occurred. I don't particularly care about structure, I'm discussing what's been symbolized.

Yes social changes have occurred in that time, but I think it'd still be true that the language San Bushmen were speaking in the 19th century would be a good indicator of what they were speaking many thousands of years ago (in prehistory), if not an exact replica.

And I'm telling you that it isn't..

You made a guess, and you guessed wrong, end of story.

Sometimes I really wish there was an analogue to a driving license before people get to spout claims about language pulled from thin air.
 
And why would that be so? There isn't a good correlation between a group's languages syntactic typology and its mode of subsistence. Here's the distribution of languages by whether they have morphological case, https://wals.info/feature/49A#4/-11.87/143.57

You will note that there isn't much of a global pattern, and in some regions, e.g. Northern Australia our Southeast Europe you find everything from languages with no case marking to 10 or more cases right next to each other.

Again, even if "experience is unchanged" (which it never is), that's no reason for language structure and syntax to evolve any slower.

I'm not referring to syntactic typology. If there is a term that I am referring to I don't know it because I've never formally studied linguistics. I'm talking about the scope of words that exist in the language, not the structure of how they're expressed.

I'm making the claim that the words which exist in a language come into common usage because they're relevant to the lifestyle of those speaking the language. Therefore, if hunter-gatherers have been living essentially the same static lifestyle for [x] period of time, then the evolution of the language is very slow, and it's likely that the modern one resembles the original one more closely than if more social evolution had occurred. I don't particularly care about structure, I'm discussing what's been symbolized.

Yes social changes have occurred in that time, but I think it'd still be true that the language San Bushmen were speaking in the 19th century would be a good indicator of what they were speaking many thousands of years ago (in prehistory), if not an exact replica.

And I'm telling you that it isn't..

You made a guess, and you guessed wrong, end of story.

Sometimes I really wish there was an analogue to a driving license before people get to spout claims about language pulled from thin air.
Completely misinterpreting someone's argument and then telling them they're wrong without saying why is about just as credible as a guess.

If you're completely convinced that I'm wrong I'd love to hear why. Really.
 
WALS Online - the World Atlas of Language Structures. It is exclusively of present-day languages, without any past ones or reconstructed ancestral ones.

Be careful of areal effects.  Standard Average European, Standard Average European describe several linguistic features shared by many European languages and rare outside of Europe. They use lots of linguistic jargon, though they do have some examples.

Euroversals - Are all European languages alike? - YouTube
Standard Average European: The European Sprachbund - YouTube

Dolgopolsky list with numbers in Swadesh-list versions for easy search: 100-word (Wikipedia), 207-word (Wiktionary), Khoisan 100-word
  1. I/me -- 1 -- 1 -- 1
  2. two/pair -- 12 -- 23 -- 9
  3. you (sg, inf) -- 2 -- 2 -- 2
  4. who/what -- 6, 7 -- 11, 12 -- 4, 5
  5. tongue -- 44 -- 78 -- 81
  6. name -- 100 -- 207 -- 84
  7. eye -- 40 -- 74 -- 71
  8. heart -- 52 -- 90 -- 92
  9. tooth -- 43 -- 77 -- 88
  10. no/not -- 8 -- 16 -- X
  11. nail (fingernail) -- 45 -- 79 -- 71
  12. louse/nit -- 22 -- 48 -- 45
  13. tear/teardrop -- X -- X - X
  14. water -- 75 -- 150 -- 36
  15. dead -- 61 -- 109 -- 99
In that Khoisan list, these languages: !XOO JU|’HOA NKHOEKHOE KWADI SANDAWE HADZA
Wiktionary has 207-word Swadesh lists for ǃXóõ and Khoekhoe, and a big selection of others, including reconstructed Proto-Indo-European and Proto-Austronesian.
 
And I'm telling you that it isn't..

You made a guess, and you guessed wrong, end of story.

Sometimes I really wish there was an analogue to a driving license before people get to spout claims about language pulled from thin air.
Completely misinterpreting someone's argument and then telling them they're wrong without saying why is about just as credible as a guess.

If you're completely convinced that I'm wrong I'd love to hear why. Really.

I posed the question on the linguistics stack exchange: https://linguistics.stackexchange.c...n-hunter-gatherer-languages-a-good-indication

Short answer: the answer can't be tested and so is unknowable

But the long answer I got to the question is pretty good. I'd probably update the proposition to languages like Khoisan being the best we've got.
 
Remember that the picture is complicated by the existence of typological patterns that cut across ancestral relationships. There are limits to how languages can differ from each other, and the factors that might cause typological similarities are not well-established. See  linguistic typology.

I guess my point is less about relationships between and structures of languages, and more about the objects that have been symbolized in each language. In Khoisan, what I find interesting isn't it's evolution across time, but rather what people chose to symbolize one hundred thousand years ago. In that sense the scope of the language points to the life experience and concepts contained by those speaking it, or a part of our prehistory.

That is what I understood you to be saying, but that shifts to question to one of anthropology and sociology, rather than linguistics. If you are just talking about the subject matter of what people talk about, then you aren't really talking about differences of language. Any language can adopt any vocabulary it needs, whether through borrowing or pure word coinage. A very good book that speaks directly to this question is George Lakoff's tour de force  Women, Fire, and Dangerous Things. He went into some detail on how cultural concepts can shape linguistic behavior, not vice versa.

Beyond that, when you say 'there are limits to how languages can differ', that's interesting to me too, because it points to the fact that, regardless of time period, our fundamental experience as humans is relatively static. In theory there should be a finite set of objects and concepts to symbolize, and an even smaller set that are in every day use.

I would prefer to say that human experience has a range limited by our biology. Lakoff called his philosophical approach "experientialism".
 
Sorry for the flippant quick answer above, hoping to get more back on topic with this post.

And why would that be so? There isn't a good correlation between a group's languages syntactic typology and its mode of subsistence. Here's the distribution of languages by whether they have morphological case, https://wals.info/feature/49A#4/-11.87/143.57

You will note that there isn't much of a global pattern, and in some regions, e.g. Northern Australia our Southeast Europe you find everything from languages with no case marking to 10 or more cases right next to each other.

Again, even if "experience is unchanged" (which it never is), that's no reason for language structure and syntax to evolve any slower.

I'm not referring to syntactic typology. If there is a term that I am referring to I don't know it because I've never formally studied linguistics. I'm talking about the scope of words that exist in the language, not the structure of how they're expressed.

It sounds like you are referring to the vocabulary of a language, is that correct? Which concepts are expressed at all, or which are expressed by separate words vs. grouped together with similar concepts? Things like the fact that Latin had, and Arabic has, one word for maternal uncle (avunculus, khaal) and a different one for paternal uncle (patruus, 'amm) because, in a strictly patrilineal society where your mother's relatives aren't properly considered family, the two concepts are different enough to warrant a terminological distinction, while in English, Spanish and Inuit the two are collapsed?

As the example already shows (Latin splitting, modern Romance languages lumping), this kind of thing is neither well-correlated with genealogical families nor stable on timescales as centuries or (low single digit) millennia.

I'm making the claim that the words which exist in a language come into common usage because they're relevant to the lifestyle of those speaking the language.

Sure, but how is that relevant to Khoisan languages being any more representative of what languages people may have spoken in deep prehistory than other extant languages?

Therefore, if hunter-gatherers have been living essentially the same static lifestyle for [x] period of time, then the evolution of the language is very slow, and it's likely that the modern one resembles the original one more closely than if more social evolution had occurred. I don't particularly care about structure, I'm discussing what's been symbolized.

That if clause, at least when applied to Khoisan languages, seems to contain several unspoken assumptions that are either demonstrably false or not known to be true. It is not only false but logically impossible that the San have been living the same static lifestyle for anywhere near the 50k years you were talking about - if nothing else, because the climate in the larger Kalahari region has been constantly changing becoming dryer or wetter and thus more or less abundant on timescales much shorter. As of today, in Southern Africa and elsewhere, hunter-gatherers are largely confined to marginal lands, but this wasn't always so, and the hospitability of a land directly affects group size, the viability of amassing possessions and the importance of clear inheritance rules and a host of other variables known to correlate with social structure. This is not merely theoretical, there are actual ethnographic records (e.g. from the Northwest USA and British Columbia Pacific Coast macroregion in the 19th century) showing that hunter-gatherers too will form complex stratified societies where the environment supports it. Assuming that a hunter-gatherer group living on what's now a scarce desert area will have "essentially the same static lifestyle" as their ancestors when the area was lush grassland a mere 2000 years ago is nonsense even in the absence of migration and contact (again not true, more on that below).

Even letting that fly, the timescale's just wrong. No serious linguistic reconstruction can go back more than, maybe, with a lot of conjecturing, 3000 years before the attested language stages under the best of circumstances - because languages change, period. Not "if there is a radical shift in lifestyle", not "when there is extensive contact with outsiders", it's just a thing language does

Yes social changes have occurred in that time, but I think it'd still be true that the language San Bushmen were speaking in the 19th century would be a good indicator of what they were speaking many thousands of years ago (in prehistory), if not an exact replica.

First, you were talking about Khoisan as a whole, not specifically about the San (Bushmen). The Khoisan are not one tribe speaking one language, they are a group of diverse people with diverse lifestyles, speaking a set of vaguely similar languages falling into three well-established families some of which may not even actually be related - and most of them were pastoralists herding sheep and cattle (both originally domesticated in Eurasia millennia earlier) when they were first encountered by Europeans, or for that matter by the Bantu. Even the "San" are not a monolithic group with a common language. A number of languages of hunter-gatherers classified as San by ethnography are actually closer to the languages of Khoekhoe pastoralists than to those of other San groups - and indeed some groups may be descended from pastoralists who gave up lifestock breeding when the climate deteriorated.

The history of Southern Africa in the two thousand years before the Europeans appeared on the scene is *much* more nuanced than you appear to believe. From my reading, the most plausible scenario is that a group of (probably, at least in a loose sense) Khoisan speakers in what's today Zambia or even Southern Tanzania picked up pastoralism from neighbouring Bantu (or possibly Kushitic) people around the year 500 BC or earlier and ran this new technology all the way to the Cape in quick succession, up to a millennium before Bantu farmers colonized Eastern South Africa. What appears less clear is if these people largely supplanted the previous inhabitants or whether it was more a case of cultural diffusion, where local foragers adopted the practice from their neighbours. If it is the former, most modern Khoisan as far west as Namibia actually trace most of their ancestry to this group. The jury, I gather, is still out on which is more plausible, though some researchers have argued that the existence of cognate terms for "cattle" and "sheep" among many Khoisan languages suggests the former, though there are other approaches (a fine example of language giving clues to prehistory, by the way, but not the way you seem to imagine). Interestingly, cognate forms for lifestock also appear in hunter-gatherer languages, suggesting at least that there ancestors knew about/where in contact with pastoralists prior to language diversification.

Here's some of my reading: Southern African ancient genomes estimate modern human divergence to 350,000 to 260,000 years ago - don't let the title fool you, while they do report a genetic component that appears to be unique to Southern African Khoisan people and splitting from the rest at a very early age, they also estimate that "all modern-day Khoe-San groups have been influenced by 9 to 30% genetic admixture from East Africans/Eurasians" deriving from this pastoralist expanstion and/or the later Bantu (farmer) expansion.

Fine-Scale Human Population Structure in Southern Africa Reflects Ecogeographic Boundaries - suggesting neither language affiliation nor mode of subsistence are all that well correlated with genomic data, suggesting that both spread predominantly through diffusion rather than supplanting previous populations.

The early livestock-raisers of southern Africa - heavy on comparative linguistic data and discussing possible implication as to whether cattle and sheep arrived as one complex or in two waves (sheep first).

Tracing Pastoralist Migrations to Southern Africa with Lactase Persistence Alleles - providing data for positive selection for lactase persistence among Khoisan groups, by quantifying the overabundance of the corresponding (East African derived) alleles relative to the overall share of East African ancestry. An interesting marginal finding of theirs is evidence for selection among to forage groups which can be construed as an indication that they've shifted to foraging from an earlier pastoralist lifestyle.

Was there an interchange between Cushitic pastoralists and Khoisan speakers in the prehistory of Southern Africa and how can this be detected? - Slightly different topic, but what I found interesting was the observation that South African Bantu languages (such as Zulu and Xhosa) actually have Khoisan loans for sheep and cattle, suggesting that the earliest Bantu cultivators reaching the region only brought goats and were familiarized with cattle and sheep by their non-Bantu neighbours.
 
I'll make some Dolgopolsky lists.

I/me, two/pair, you (sg/inf) / who/what, tongue, name / eye, heart, tooth / no/not, nail (finger-nail), louse/nit / tear/teardrop, water, dead.
Wiktionary 1, 23, 2 / 11, 78, 207 / 74, 90, 77 / 16, 79, 48 / X, 150, 109

Proto-Indo-European:
*egH- *me-, *dwoH, *tuH- *te- / *kwis, *dngwh-, Hnomn / Hokw-, kerd-, Hdont- gombh- / ne-, Hnegh-, konid- lewH- / -, Hekw- wodr-, mer- dhew-

I suggest going to Appendix:Swadesh lists - Wiktionary and copying out some more. I can't do everything, and this is the sort of research that one must do if one is to be a good comparative linguist.
 
Sorry for the flippant quick answer above, hoping to get more back on topic with this post.



It sounds like you are referring to the vocabulary of a language, is that correct? Which concepts are expressed at all, or which are expressed by separate words vs. grouped together with similar concepts? Things like the fact that Latin had, and Arabic has, one word for maternal uncle (avunculus, khaal) and a different one for paternal uncle (patruus, 'amm) because, in a strictly patrilineal society where your mother's relatives aren't properly considered family, the two concepts are different enough to warrant a terminological distinction, while in English, Spanish and Inuit the two are collapsed?

As the example already shows (Latin splitting, modern Romance languages lumping), this kind of thing is neither well-correlated with genealogical families nor stable on timescales as centuries or (low single digit) millennia.

I'm making the claim that the words which exist in a language come into common usage because they're relevant to the lifestyle of those speaking the language.

Sure, but how is that relevant to Khoisan languages being any more representative of what languages people may have spoken in deep prehistory than other extant languages?

Therefore, if hunter-gatherers have been living essentially the same static lifestyle for [x] period of time, then the evolution of the language is very slow, and it's likely that the modern one resembles the original one more closely than if more social evolution had occurred. I don't particularly care about structure, I'm discussing what's been symbolized.

That if clause, at least when applied to Khoisan languages, seems to contain several unspoken assumptions that are either demonstrably false or not known to be true. It is not only false but logically impossible that the San have been living the same static lifestyle for anywhere near the 50k years you were talking about - if nothing else, because the climate in the larger Kalahari region has been constantly changing becoming dryer or wetter and thus more or less abundant on timescales much shorter. As of today, in Southern Africa and elsewhere, hunter-gatherers are largely confined to marginal lands, but this wasn't always so, and the hospitability of a land directly affects group size, the viability of amassing possessions and the importance of clear inheritance rules and a host of other variables known to correlate with social structure. This is not merely theoretical, there are actual ethnographic records (e.g. from the Northwest USA and British Columbia Pacific Coast macroregion in the 19th century) showing that hunter-gatherers too will form complex stratified societies where the environment supports it. Assuming that a hunter-gatherer group living on what's now a scarce desert area will have "essentially the same static lifestyle" as their ancestors when the area was lush grassland a mere 2000 years ago is nonsense even in the absence of migration and contact (again not true, more on that below).

Even letting that fly, the timescale's just wrong. No serious linguistic reconstruction can go back more than, maybe, with a lot of conjecturing, 3000 years before the attested language stages under the best of circumstances - because languages change, period. Not "if there is a radical shift in lifestyle", not "when there is extensive contact with outsiders", it's just a thing language does

Yes social changes have occurred in that time, but I think it'd still be true that the language San Bushmen were speaking in the 19th century would be a good indicator of what they were speaking many thousands of years ago (in prehistory), if not an exact replica.

First, you were talking about Khoisan as a whole, not specifically about the San (Bushmen). The Khoisan are not one tribe speaking one language, they are a group of diverse people with diverse lifestyles, speaking a set of vaguely similar languages falling into three well-established families some of which may not even actually be related - and most of them were pastoralists herding sheep and cattle (both originally domesticated in Eurasia millennia earlier) when they were first encountered by Europeans, or for that matter by the Bantu. Even the "San" are not a monolithic group with a common language. A number of languages of hunter-gatherers classified as San by ethnography are actually closer to the languages of Khoekhoe pastoralists than to those of other San groups - and indeed some groups may be descended from pastoralists who gave up lifestock breeding when the climate deteriorated.

The history of Southern Africa in the two thousand years before the Europeans appeared on the scene is *much* more nuanced than you appear to believe. From my reading, the most plausible scenario is that a group of (probably, at least in a loose sense) Khoisan speakers in what's today Zambia or even Southern Tanzania picked up pastoralism from neighbouring Bantu (or possibly Kushitic) people around the year 500 BC or earlier and ran this new technology all the way to the Cape in quick succession, up to a millennium before Bantu farmers colonized Eastern South Africa. What appears less clear is if these people largely supplanted the previous inhabitants or whether it was more a case of cultural diffusion, where local foragers adopted the practice from their neighbours. If it is the former, most modern Khoisan as far west as Namibia actually trace most of their ancestry to this group. The jury, I gather, is still out on which is more plausible, though some researchers have argued that the existence of cognate terms for "cattle" and "sheep" among many Khoisan languages suggests the former, though there are other approaches (a fine example of language giving clues to prehistory, by the way, but not the way you seem to imagine). Interestingly, cognate forms for lifestock also appear in hunter-gatherer languages, suggesting at least that there ancestors knew about/where in contact with pastoralists prior to language diversification.

Here's some of my reading: Southern African ancient genomes estimate modern human divergence to 350,000 to 260,000 years ago - don't let the title fool you, while they do report a genetic component that appears to be unique to Southern African Khoisan people and splitting from the rest at a very early age, they also estimate that "all modern-day Khoe-San groups have been influenced by 9 to 30% genetic admixture from East Africans/Eurasians" deriving from this pastoralist expanstion and/or the later Bantu (farmer) expansion.

Fine-Scale Human Population Structure in Southern Africa Reflects Ecogeographic Boundaries - suggesting neither language affiliation nor mode of subsistence are all that well correlated with genomic data, suggesting that both spread predominantly through diffusion rather than supplanting previous populations.

The early livestock-raisers of southern Africa - heavy on comparative linguistic data and discussing possible implication as to whether cattle and sheep arrived as one complex or in two waves (sheep first).

Tracing Pastoralist Migrations to Southern Africa with Lactase Persistence Alleles - providing data for positive selection for lactase persistence among Khoisan groups, by quantifying the overabundance of the corresponding (East African derived) alleles relative to the overall share of East African ancestry. An interesting marginal finding of theirs is evidence for selection among to forage groups which can be construed as an indication that they've shifted to foraging from an earlier pastoralist lifestyle.

Was there an interchange between Cushitic pastoralists and Khoisan speakers in the prehistory of Southern Africa and how can this be detected? - Slightly different topic, but what I found interesting was the observation that South African Bantu languages (such as Zulu and Xhosa) actually have Khoisan loans for sheep and cattle, suggesting that the earliest Bantu cultivators reaching the region only brought goats and were familiarized with cattle and sheep by their non-Bantu neighbours.

Tl;dr: speaking of the Khoisan people leading the Khoisan lifestyle and speaking the millennia old Khoisan language is not entirely unlike talking of the Indoeuropeans (to encompass among others Bengals, Canadians and Kurds) while insinuating they all live the lives of Icelandic whalers and speak Mycenian Greek.

Yes, it's that bad. Actually worse - Mycenian Greek is only 3000ish years old, while you're claiming stasis for an order if magnitude or two longer.
 
Interesting thread! A few miscellaneous comments:

* The P-I-E Homeland was certainly Yamnaya (Pit Grave) and its predecessors in the East European steppes. The Yamnaya culture may not have invented the wheeled cart, but they benefited enormously from it because of flat terrain and pastoral economy. The wheeled cart allowed them to become more productive semi-nomads; it also let them serve as a conduit between metal-workers and ore sources. The 2nd-earliest known branch-off from P.I.E. was Afanasievo (ancestral to Tocharian) and digs there have produced ceramic wagon toys. (Actual wooden wagons do not survive well.) The earliest branch-off (Anatolian/Hittite) left the steppes before the invention of the wheeled cart and, sure enough, the Hittite words for wheel and axle are borrowed.

The reconstructed word for 'beech tree' was a stumbling-block for this theory: Beech doesn't grow in the East European steppes. But (this amazes me slightly) scientists have recovered ancient beech pollen from steppe soil. Beech trees did grow there at the time of Yamnaya!

A Yamnaya origin for I-E fits the facts like a glove fits a hand. Even Atkinson-Gray will concede this privately.

* The use of new words like 'dog' or 'perro' for canines shouldn't be surprising, given the large difference in dog breeds. Invaders from a country with terriers might well use a new word (the local word or even slang) to describe the spaniels they encounter in their new home. Although it looks back only 400 years, Shakespeare's writing is a fun way to look at historical English. The Bard often uses 'hound' in favorable or neutral contexts, but 'dog' (or 'whoreson dog' or 'coward dogs') is often negative.
"Where death and danger dogs the heels of worth."
"... In killing creatures vile, as cats and dogs, of no esteem."
"Die men like dogs!"
"Cry 'Havoc!' and let slip the dogs of war"​

* Numbers are interesting. 'Seven' (or rather its P-I-E ancestor) appears to be borrowed from Semitic. How ancient is the Semitic special veneration of that number (cf. seven-day week)? Vigesimal numbering (present even in English: "Fourscore and seven years ago") was adopted by languages along Europe's western coasts, and may trace back to Africa's western coasts.

That 'five' and 'cinq' are cognates, tracing back to P-I-E 'penkwe' by different sound changes, seems to me a splendid example!

* Long-range genetic connections between languages or language families is an extremely controversial topic. As a non-expert I can only look on and form an opinion based on combinatorial arguments, debaters' emotions and common-sense. The hypothesis of  Amerind_languages encompassing in one macro-family the pre-Columbian languages of South, Central and parts of North America seems almost certain to be true, yet attracts strident opposition from academics who have built their careers on studying just one of Amerindian's many subfamilies. And (speaking of languages with vigesimal counting) even more controversial is a theory linking Basque, Burushaski, the Northwest Caucasian family and even perhaps Sumerian! Might this macro-family, supported by many cognates, reflect genetic links among the earliest farmers, with Basque arriving in Western Europe via the Cardial Ware expansion?
 
Yes, there are some Proto-Indo-European words that are related to some Semitic words, likely by borrowing.

*sweks "six", *septm "seven", *(s)tauros "bull", *ker-n- "horn", etc.

Another curiosity is that the word for "eight" *oktô has a dual ending, a plural for two of something, like "two" itself: *dwô But the PIE word for "four" was *kwetwores , not anything that could give *oktô .

Bjørn-2017-Foreign-elements-in-the-Proto-Indo-European-vocabulary.pdf

*bha-bh/k- "bean", Lat. faba -- likely Neolithic European, multiple borrowings

*gonu- "knee", Lat. genu, Gk. gonu -- Uralic: Finno-Ugric *kinä "elbow" -- likely inherited from some common ancestor of IE and Uralic

*ghaid-o- "goat", Lat. haedus "young goat" -- likely a European regionalism -- Semitic *gadi-, NE Caucasian: Proto-Nakh *gazha -- likely some Neolithic-Europe language family

*H3neH3-mn- "name" (H3 is likely "khw"), Lat. nômen, nômin- Gr. onoma(t-), Russ. imya, imyen- -- Uralic, Yukaghir *nime -- likely from an IE-Uralic ancestor

*linom "linen", Lat. lînum, Gk linon -- NE Caucasian *thlwin'i "flax seed" -- likely another Neolithic-European word

*(s)tauros "bull", Lat. tauros, Gk. tauros, Eng. steer -- Semitic *ttawr-, NE Caucasian *stw- -- likely an early borrowing

*wed-r "water", Lat. unda "wave", Greek hudôr, Russ. voda -- Uralic *wetä -- likely inherited from some IE-Uralic ancestor

*(w)rugh- "rye" -- Uralic FU *ruchV, *NE Caucasian *recchV -- likely another Neolithic-European word
 
Continuing,

*(s)weks "six" -- Sem. *shidtt-, NW Cauc. *sakhcha, NE Cauc.: Khinalug zäk, Kartvelian *ekws -- the IE one was either borrowed from a Semitic one or a shared Neolithic source

*septm "seven" -- Sem. *sb't-, Kartvt *shwid-, Hurrian sitta -- like the above

*oktô "eight -- Kartv. otkho "four" -- the Kartvelian word for 4 is likely borrowed from an early IE one that only survives as its dual

-

Then an a combination of these assessments.

That article is at Prehistoric loan relations – Foreign elements in the Proto-Indo-European vocabulary
 
Expanding on the specific issue of genetic affiliation among Basque, Burushaski, and North Caucasian:

Given the huge distance between Spain and Pakistan, the affiliation among these languages, if true, certainly helps prehistoric reconstruction. When Basque is discussed one frequently reads that it is a vestige of a pre-Neolithic European language: that it was spoken in the West before farmers arrived. Ha! Don't believe them! The ancestor of Basque was a language of farmers somewhere in the Eastern Mediterranean or Fertile Crescent region, and traveled westward, perhaps with the Cardial Ware adventurers about 7000 years ago, or perhaps even with the copper workers 5300 years ago. Thousands of miles to the East, the language of the Harrapan/Indus River civilization is also a mystery: several candidates have been proposed, then rejected. I think Burushaski is a good dark-horse candidate for that honor.

So, some farmers in the Fertile Crescent region eventually ventured far to the West and far to the East, leaving obscure language isolates near the Pyrenees mountains and the Hindu Kush. That language family has mostly disappeared from its origin area, except for "hold-outs" in the Caucasus mountains. (Languages in this family were probably dominant in Anatolia before the arrival of the IE-speaking proto-Hittites.)

The evidence for a Basque/Burushaski/North Caucasian language family takes several forms. There are many cognates; here's an example just for me to practice tags:
EnglishBasqueBurushaskiNorth Caucasian
goatzikirotshigírts'ik'er
Surely the similarity between 'zikiro' and 'tshigir' is too strong to make coincidence likely. This might be a Wanderwort but from the Hindu Kush to the Pyrenees is a long way to wander! "Proof of the pudding" is the quantity of cognates ... but do your own Googling. :) The sharing of words for goat, horse/donkey, milk suggests to some that Basque-Burushaski broke up after the development of animal husbandry; but on this topic I think the evidence for P-I-E is more impressive: About ten P-I-E words have been reconstructed just related to horses.

Cognate evidence is particularly convincing when the cognates are observed to follow different regular sound changes in the different languages. (This usually shows that any borrowing must pre-date the sound change.) Regular sound changes have been deduced for this putative family.

Another type of linguistic evidence for genetic affiliation is suppletion. A classic example is the irregularity of English 'good/better/best', corresponding to German 'gut/besser/beste' and Danish 'godt/bedre/bedst.' Had English just borrowed 'good' from German, the English forms would be 'good/gooder/goodest.'

Suppletion is seen in the pronouns of Basque-Burushaski. For example, the 2nd person in Burushaski has two distinct forms: un / góo. Both forms are also present in Northern Caucasian.

Those linguists who accept Basque-Burushaski usually want to place this group into an even larger macro-family called Dene-Caucasian (details varying), which includes Chinese, Apache, etc! Here is a humongous chart which combines almost all the world's languages (outside sub-Saharan Africa and Oceania) into a single Borean super-family. WOW! No wonder the majority of linguists frown on these "lumping" conjectures.
 
In addition to deductions from genetic affiliation, prehistory can be deduced from borrowings. For example, the Romani people of Europe speak an Indo-Aryan language so must have made some strange migration not recorded in any history. But Anatolia replaces its language fairly often; the date that proto-Romani passed through Anatolia can be deduced from its borrowings.

As another example, Vietnamese language and Cambodian language are close cousins genetically, but differ greatly in phonology and typology. This is evidence of ancient Chinese colonization of Vietnam.

Daic (the family that includes Thai) has so much similarity to Chinese that it was once classified with it. But now its closest genetic relative is considered to be Austronesian. A small minority theorize that Daic originated when a group of Malayo-Polynesian speakers from the Philippines migrated back to mainland Asia. Their language managed to survive, but was hugely affected by the mainland Chinese-related languages it encountered.

Ma'a is an interesting language studied by Sarah Grey Thomason; it is such a thorough mixture of Bantu and Cushitic that experts weren't sure whether to call it a Cushitic language heavily influenced by Bantu, or vice versa. Ms. Thomason thinks she solved this problem, but I won't try to do her work justice here.

Finally: the evolution of Middle English from Old English is a fascinating example. Although it occurred in historic times, and many OE and ME texts are available, this evolution is still not fully understood. (This is a good reason to be skeptical of prehistoric reconstructions.) Both OE and ME were families of widely different dialects. One reason for the huge change between OE and ME is that written OE was mostly in the Wessex dialect; but the power center moved after the Conquest, so written ME is in London's dialect. London was heavily influenced by immigration from the old Danelaw area immediately to its north.

A few years ago, Joseph Embley Emonds and Jan Terje Faarlund published a monograph of 190 pages, "English: The Language of the Vikings," that argues Middle English was NOT Norsified Old English — it was Anglified Old Norse! Whether right or wrong, their paper is well-researched, well-reasoned and a pleasure to read.

Something I found interesting in the Emonds-Faarlund paper was a discussion of the political context for language change. Before the arrival of William the Conqueror, the Danes and the English were enemies. Enemies seek to retain or even magnify linguistic differences due to an Us-vs-Them mentality. But the Norman invasion reversed that! Now the speakers of Old Norse (or Norsified Old English in the majority view) allied with the Old English speakers against the Normans. Unifying their languages became a political priority and was done deliberately.
 
Euskaro_Caucasian_2_pp.pdf - Basque and North Caucasian

Lists some grammatical evidence: noun-case endings and classifier prefixes (frozen in Basque)

The vocabulary includes domestic animals (bovine, sheep, goat), milk and milk products (butter, cheese), grains (wheat, ...), legumes (peas, beans), mill / millstone / to grind

This indicates that Basque and North Caucasian are remnants of a Neolithic-European language family, spread by the dispersion of Neolithic farmers. That may also explain such oddities as English "lamb" with cognate forms only in other Germanic languages -- and that resembles a North Caucasian word form: *lVmbagV "sheep" Lamb – Prehistoric loan relations

Source: Euskeraren jatorria (in Basque), Euskera – Ibero – Paleoeuropeo (in Spanish), Basque – Iberian – Paleoeuropean (in English)
 
Euskaro_Caucasian_2_pp.pdf - Basque and North Caucasian

Lists some grammatical evidence: noun-case endings and classifier prefixes (frozen in Basque)

The vocabulary includes domestic animals (bovine, sheep, goat), milk and milk products (butter, cheese), grains (wheat, ...), legumes (peas, beans), mill / millstone / to grind

This indicates that Basque and North Caucasian are remnants of a Neolithic-European language family, spread by the dispersion of Neolithic farmers. That may also explain such oddities as English "lamb" with cognate forms only in other Germanic languages -- and that resembles a North Caucasian word form: *lVmbagV "sheep" Lamb – Prehistoric loan relations

Source: Euskeraren jatorria (in Basque), Euskera – Ibero – Paleoeuropeo (in Spanish), Basque – Iberian – Paleoeuropean (in English)

If Germanic borrowed "lamb" (and German possibly borrowed "Ziege" ([tsi:g@]) for goat) from some substrate language, why would it be implausible the Basque/Caucasian/"paleoeuropean" cognate candidates also are due to borrowing a long time ago, i.e. when the neolithic revolution and thus the items they refer to first spread through Europe?

A cognate set largely confined to a particular domain of material culture rather suggests borrowing than shared ancestry to me.
 
Words for domestic sheep and goats spreading with the animals themselves? That's typical of Wanderwörter ("wander words"), words traveling with what they name.

This gets to a long-running controversy in paleoanthropology. Around 1900 or thereabouts, paleoanthropologists often indiscriminately posited migrations. But by the mid 20th cy., they preferred to posit learning from neighbors and warning about pots not being people. Or words, for that matter.

But as we are getting a clearer picture of prehistoric migrations, that is changing somewhat. In Europe at least, Neolithic agriculture seems to have spread with its farmers. This includes Neolithic domestic animals, and also likely words for them.
 
When discussing linguistic ideas like the Basque-Burushaski linkage, one is inevitably drawn into the fiery, often vituperative, debate between "lumpers" and "splitters." On a specific matter like the Basque-Burushaski hypothesis, it may be hard for a layman to make a sound judgement. Did the "lumpers" cherry-pick their data? Another linguist links Burushaski with Indo-European — Both can't be right! For a layman like myself the best chance is to eavesdrop on a debate between two schools of thought and to guess who's right. In making that guess I don't rely on my meager linguistic knowledge — there I'm outgunned by both the lumpers and the splitters — but on the debate itself. Often the splitters end up looking like petulant pedants, totally incapable of common sense or simple intuition about combinatorics.

As an example of that, consider Greenberg's Amerindian Hypothesis. (This wasn't wholly novel: Edward Sapir had noted the commonality of 'Na/Ma' for the 'I/Thou' pronouns decades before, and that this commonality was hard to explain without genetic connection. Edward Sapir and Joseph Greenberg are perhaps the two greatest historical linguists ever.) Most linguists — even "splitters" — accept that languages have distant genetic connections; and common-sense should make it seem likely that all pre-Columbian South American languages probably have a common ancestor within 15,000 years or so. The splitters simply claim that those connections are too remote to be discerned.

Greenberg was NOT an expert on Amerindian languages, but examined lists with many tens of thousands of words in an effort to apply the same "mass comparison" method he had used successfully to classify the languages of Africa. Tens of thousands of words! After he published, he was attacked ferociously by other linguists. My bookmarks and Googling don't work as well as before, but one can find some of the attacks against Greenberg, or his disciples like Ruhlen and Bengtson, in Mother Tongue or Language Log. I'll mention just two examples:
Picard said:
The meaning given for the form is incorrect. For example, Natick mukketchouks is glossed as "boy", but is actually "son, man child".

The pronounciation given is incorrect. For example, the Shawnee word for "girl" is given as kwan-iswa but is actually kwaaniswa.
Greenberg, pored over lists of tens of thousands of words to do his study, but transmuted one gloss from 'man child' to 'boy.' The horror! The horror! I'm not a phonologist but I suppose the substitution of 'kwan-iswa' for 'kwaaniswa' is too horrid to contemplate. :)

Does anyone not see Picard's comment here as carrying pedantry to an absurd degree? These weren't cherry-picked: some of his other criticisms are similar nit-picking.

Returning to the specific issue of the Basque-Burushaski hypothesis this article offers example cognates, and other evidence. Yes, words like 'goat' could be borrowed, but the article mentions various sound-change laws — these support genetic linkage. The best cognates to attest genetic linkages are words that resist change. The words for 'I/thou' are very resistant; hence the match between Basque 'ni/hi' and Dargwa 'nu/hu' is strong evidence.

Similarly, the 'moi/toi', 'mich/dich' pronouns of Indo-European are also found in Saami ('mun/don') and Finnish ('minä/sinä'; t>s is not an uncommon sound change); this is strong support for the Indo-Uralic hypothesis. (In fact this pronoun pattern is found across the much broader language macro-family that Greenberg called 'Eurasiatic.'

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

It's fun to see the effects of sound change. The English words 'head', 'captain', 'chief', and 'chef' all have the same meaning ('leader of a group of people') though a captain leads a ship, and chef leads a kitchen. All four words trace back to the same PIE root: 'kaput.' The Germanic sound change K>H lead to 'head'; 'chief' was borrowed from Old French after its K>Ch sound change; 'chef' came from Modern French after its Ch>Sh change. 'Captain' came from Latin via French; French borrowed this word from Latin after French's K>Ch sound change, so it wasn't subjected to that change.

Word meanings also change: the PIE 'kaput' referred to the head of an animal or human; it's common for such a word to change its meaning to 'leader.' The word for old-sense 'head' is sometimes borrowed slangily from a word for 'bowl.' The French word 'tête' has now gone through both transitions! It was borrowed from Old Italian 'testa' (meaning “pot, jug, brick”), became 'head' (old-sense) and is now extended to mean 'leader.'
 
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Returning to the specific issue of the Basque-Burushaski hypothesis this article offers example cognates, and other evidence. Yes, words like 'goat' could be borrowed, but the article mentions various sound-change laws — these support genetic linkage.

Not necessarily. Law-like sound changes can also occur with borrowing, especially when the words were borrowed at around the same time and underwent the same sound changes that the rest of the language did, and/or were adapted to fit the phonotactics of the recipient language.

For example, a lot of Greek derived words have forms that appear indicative of regular sound change in the otherwise very closely related (almost entirely mutually intelligible) Serbian and Croatian languages due to their borrowing history: They were borrowed from Latin into Croatian and from Byzantine Greek into Serbian due to the Catholic vs. Orthodox influence. Therefore, the the Croatian version reflects the adaptations when borrowed into Latin and the sound changes from classical to medieval Latin (e.g. [x]->[k], [k]->[ts] before e and i), and the Serbian version the sound changes from classical to medieval Greek (e.g. ->[v], [h] becoming silent, some vowel changes...). Some examples (Croatian - Serbian):

barbar - varvar (barbarian)
Betlehem - Vitlejem (Bethlehem)
kemija - hemija (chemistry)
ocean (pronounced with [ts]) - okean (ocean)
Krist - Hristos (Jesus Christ)
kršćanstvo - hrišćanstvo (Christianity, today sometimes the Serbian version is used in Croatian to refer to Orthodox Christianity and vice versa the Croatian version in Serbian to refer to Catholocism)
Bizant - Vizantija (Byzantium)

Now imagine that Croatian and Serbian aren't as close as they are, or that we don't have the written records from antiquity and the medieval period telling us about the Latin and Greek history of those words: We might very well come to the conclusion that those sound changes happened within the respective languages, that they're reflective of a common genetic origin (which those languages clearly do have, but those words don't reflect it).

So, is there any evidence to rule out that the alleged cognates with their alleged regular or semi-regular correspondences between e.g. Basque and Caucasian languages are similarly due to borrowing from a long-dead language that had a role as a lingua franca in Neolithic Europe similar to the role Greek and later Latin assumed a few thousand years later, with the sound changes happening after the borrowing, or being reflective of a split in the donor language(s)?

If the alleged correspondences are largely restricted to a specific domain or a few specific domains, that if anything indicates such a history.

(Your link shows up as a 404 page with a search form in Russian for me, not helpful)
 
Returning to the specific issue of the Basque-Burushaski hypothesis this article offers example cognates, and other evidence. Yes, words like 'goat' could be borrowed, but the article mentions various sound-change laws — these support genetic linkage.

Not necessarily. Law-like sound changes can also occur with borrowing, especially when the words were borrowed at around the same time and underwent the same sound changes that the rest of the language did, and/or were adapted to fit the phonotactics of the recipient language....

(Your link shows up as a 404 page with a search form in Russian for me, not helpful)
Yes, the regularity of sound-change may increase the probability of genetic inheritance, but doesn't prove it. The timing of the sound changes, if known, can be relevant.

Sorry about the link, which I mangled slightly. I've fixed it via Edit in the post above. Here it is again:
http://www.lexicons.ru/modern/b/burushaski/_pdf/burushaski-vasco-caucasian.pdf
 
Returning to the specific issue of the Basque-Burushaski hypothesis this article offers example cognates, and other evidence. Yes, words like 'goat' could be borrowed, but the article mentions various sound-change laws — these support genetic linkage.

Not necessarily. Law-like sound changes can also occur with borrowing, especially when the words were borrowed at around the same time and underwent the same sound changes that the rest of the language did, and/or were adapted to fit the phonotactics of the recipient language....

(Your link shows up as a 404 page with a search form in Russian for me, not helpful)
Yes, the regularity of sound-change may increase the probability of genetic inheritance, but doesn't prove it. The timing of the sound changes, if known, can be relevant.

The timing of sound changes is rarely if ever going to be known when the languages in question don't have a long-ranging written tradition (and sometimes not even then, what with non-alphabetic writing systems). The best we can hope for, in most such cases, is some very rough upper or lower bounds, but rarely both, through borrowings. For example, we can assert that a sound change in Basque that affects clear Romance borrowings is very unlikely to have happened more than about 2000 years ago when the Romans expanded into the Iberian peninsula. A proposed sound change that doesn't seem to affect Romance borrowings may have happened 2500 or 6000 years ago, and there really is no way to tell. Of course, for the purposes of reconstructing deep historical relations that's very bad news, as this uncertainty makes it increasingly difficult to reliably distinguish the parallel of Slavic inherited vocabulary in Croatian and Serbian from the case of words of Greek stock in the two languages.

Sorry about the link, which I mangled slightly. I've fixed it via Edit in the post above. Here it is again:
http://www.lexicons.ru/modern/b/burushaski/_pdf/burushaski-vasco-caucasian.pdf

Thanks for the repaired link. The author doesn't seem to be very explicit about the branching structure within this proposed macro-family, but as far as I can tell from their examples, the suggested relationship between East Caucasian and Burushaski is closer than between either and Basque?

Based on what we know historically, the ancestral language of Burushaski may well have reached the region in historical time from a more Western origin in or near the Caucasus - under various Persian, Hellenistic and later Turko-Mongolian ruling classes, the Caucasus and Hindu Kush were at the extreme ends of the of one and the same empire at various points between 500 BC and 1500 AD. If indeed a genetic relationship between Burushaski and Caucasian languages can be reliably established, it could be the result of a fairly recent dispersal, with Burushaski the sole surviving member of a branch of Caucasian that was lost in its more westerly homeland, or even a language embedded within a Caucasian family but altered almost beyond recognition by extensive language contact.

I remain unconvinced that Basque and Caucasian languages are remnants of a shared Palaeoeuropean stock. I'm not at all saying it's impossible, just that the evidence presented is too sporadic and often based on ad-hoc reconstructions that are themselves rather tentative (and in some cases potentially biased by a desire to make these relationships seem more plausible) to tell with any certainty.
 
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